E170 System CBT questions

Question 1

What is the certified ceiling of the ERJ 170

Answer 1

41000 feet

Question 2

In a turn, what requires the largest clearance

Answer 2

Tail

Question 3

In case of total power loss,

Answer 3

DC power provide Emergency lighting

Question 4

Above what cabin altitude will the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT signs automatically illuminate

Answer 4

14,000 feet

Question 5

How many service doors provide access for service access

Answer 5

2

Question 6

What is the max thrust of one engine

Answer 6

14,200 lbs

Question 7

where is the EICAS display brightness control knob located

Answer 7

On the left hand glare shield light control panel

Question 8

The warning message CABIN ALT HI together with a red cabin altitude indication will be displayed whenever the cabin altitude exceeds

Answer 8

9700 ft.

Question 9

Cabin zone temperature control

Answer 9

can be transferred from the cockpit control panel to the flight attendant control panel

Question 10

Pushing the dump switch on the pressurization panel in the cockpit

Answer 10

will depressurize the cabin to a maximum of 12,400 ft. cabin altitude, and deactivates the recirculation fans and the ECS packs

Question 11

During normal operation, the conditioned air consists of

Answer 11

52 percent fresh air and 48 percent recirculation air

Question 12

Which of the following components regulate the air flow to the ECS packs

Answer 12

the Flow Control Valve

Question 13

During cruise below 37,000 ft. the normal differential pressure is limited to

Answer 13

7.8 PSID

Question 14

The CPCS calculates a target cabin altitude for each of the following CPCS flight modes

Answer 14

ground, taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, and abort

Question 15

The positive pressure relief valve (safety valve) opens independently whenever the differential pressure exceeds

Answer 15

8.6 PSID

Question 16

The cabin pressure control system consists of the following main components

Answer 16

one cabin pressure controller, one cabin outflow valve, one negative relief valve, one positive pressure relief valve, and one static port

Question 17

The emergency ram air valve is commanded open

Answer 17

I Pack1 and Pack2 are commanded/failed OFF, and the altitude is less than 25,000 ft.

Question 18

During a normal APU shutdown what services are available

Answer 18

no services are available

Question 19

Pushing the emergency stop button on the APU panel causes what

Answer 19

APU to stop immediately

Question 20

What causes the APU to automatically shut down on the ground

Answer 20

All of the above

• Overspeed, FADEC critical fault
• APU fire, EGT over temp, sensor failure
• APU high oil temp, APU low oil pressure

Question 21

What is the maximum altitude for starting the APU

Answer 21

30,000 ft.

Question 22

What is the max altitude for conditioning air operation from the APU

Answer 22

15,000 ft.

Question 23

What actions trip the autopilot

Answer 23

All of the above

• manual trim or quick disc switches activated, column shakers are activated
• the fly by wire system in direct mode, aileron and elevator system disconnects
• a column and control wheel force monitor sensor trips

Question 24

Pressing the NAV button the FMA annunciator displays

Answer 24

LNAV, LOC

Question 25

The guidance panel provides what functions

Answer 25

All of the above - lateral and vertical guidance control - AFCS management control - two independent A and B channels

Question 26

Pressing the centre of the ALT selector knob does what

Answer 26

Provides the selected ALT in METERS to be displayed on the PFD

Question 27

Pressing the back up trim switch with the autopilot engaged

Answer 27

the autopilot disconnects

Question 28

Can you reconnect the IDG in flight

Answer 28

no

Question 29

When IDG1 and IDG2 are selected off

Answer 29

the generator is de-energized and the line contactor is open

Question 30

What does the AVAIL lamp on the overhead electrical panel mean

Answer 30

the external power is connected and all quality requirements are satisfied

Question 31

If the APU is available and one engine generator fails, the failed generator is replaced by

Answer 31

the APU generator

Question 32

The STBY AC BUS is normally powered by the ESS AC BUS. It will be powered by the inverter,

Answer 32

when the aircraft is powered by batteries only

Question 33

Each thrust reverser half has

Answer 33

2 hydraulic actuators

Question 34

How many ignitors are energized for each engine start

Answer 34

one on ground and two in flight

Question 35

What controls the Fuel Metering Unit

Answer 35

the FADEC

Question 36

What type of engine is the General Electric CF34-8E

Answer 36

High-Bypass two spool turbofan

Question 37

During normal engine start

Answer 37

the FADEC opens and closes the starter control valve automatically

Question 38

Pushing the test button on the fire extinguisher panel in the cockpit will

Answer 38

test the engine and APU fire detection as well as the cargo smoke detection system

Question 39

When smoke is detected in the forward lavatory

Answer 39

all statements are correct - an alarm will sound and the red alarm indicator will illuminate - an EICAS warning LAV SMOKE will be displayed in the cockpit - the flashing amber lights on both the attendant light indicator panels will be activated

Question 40

Pulling down an Engine fire handle in the cockpit will

Answer 40

shutoff the fuel system, hydraulic fluids, and the bleed air system of the respective engine

Question 41

In the event of an APU fire on ground

Answer 41

the APU will shut down after 10 seconds, if there is no commanded shut down through the APU emergency stop switch

Question 42

The lavatory fire extinguisher is

Answer 42

activated automatically when a certain temp has been reached

Question 43

The HS-ACE responds to

Answer 43

trim commands from the backup trim, pilot trim, Co-pilot trim, and FCM trim inputs

Question 44

What is the correct sequence of slats/flaps extension and retraction

Answer 44

slats extend first, while flaps retract first

Question 45

The elevator thrust compensation (ETC) function, stabilizing the aircraft around the pitch axis, will be available

Answer 45

in normal mode only, as it is computed in the FCM unit

Question 46

The two aileron PCUs per side operate the aileron surface,

Answer 46

in an active/active configuration

Question 47

Hydraulic system 3 powers which elevator PCU

Answer 47

Right outboard

Question 48

A single trim command fro yaw and pitch is limited to

Answer 48

3 seconds

Question 49

Following a jammed control column (pitch), when the elev disc handle is pulled,

Answer 49

the unrestricted control column controls its own side elevator

Question 50

The flight control system can operate in normal or direct mode. Which of the following statements concerning the two different modes is true

Answer 50

in direct mode, FCM commands are removed from the control loop

Question 51

Which of the following systems are NOT driven by fly-by-wire technology

Answer 51

the ailerons only; all other systems are driven by fly by wire technology

Question 52

In case of a single electric motor failure within the flap PDU how will the system operate

Answer 52

the flap/slat system will operate at low rate speed

Question 53

How many minutes of cockpit audio can the DVDR record

Answer 53

120 minutes

Question 54

what is the primary means of radio tuning

Answer 54

MCDU

Question 55

What powers the IESS in case of electrical emergency

Answer 55

RAT or Batteries

Question 56

During normal operation, air data readouts on the captains PDF are from which ADS

Answer 56

ADS 1

Question 57

the IESS can display which of the following

Answer 57

all of the above - Attitude, Altitude, and IAS - Mach, VMO/MMO, slip indication, VS - ILS, barometric pressure, Altitude in meters

Question 58

The PTU transfers hydraulic power from system 1 to system 2 to guarantee normal operation of which system

Answer 58

landing gear

Question 59

how many electric hydraulic pumps are used for each system

Answer 59

system 1 and 2 have one electric hydraulic pump each, system 3 has two electric hydraulic pumps

Question 60

the EMBRAER 170 hydraulic system operates at what nominal pressure

Answer 60

3000 psi

Question 61

What does SECTOR SCAN on the weather radar do

Answer 61

reduces the sweep angle to -30 degrees and increases the sweep rate to 24spm

Question 62

the Air data system comprises of what components

Answer 62

4 ADSP's, 2 TAT probes, 3 ADA's, and the Baro set on the GP

Question 63

Which IRS is the primary source for the captain PFD

Answer 63

IRS 1

Question 64

When will a Fuel imbalance caution message be displayed on the EICAS

Answer 64

whenever a lateral fuel imbalance exceeding 360 kg (800 lbs) exists.

Question 65

What is the purpose of the wing surge tanks

Answer 65

The surge tanks collect the fuel during wing-down or uncoordinated flight maneuvers

Question 66

With the engines running, through which pumps are the engines and the APU fed

Answer 66

the primary ejector pumps

Question 67

the DC fuel pump,

Answer 67

is located in the right wing tank and can be used in fight and on the ground

Question 68

to correct lateral imbalances using the crossfeed function, the pilot must

Answer 68

select the XFEED switch to the LOW1 or LOW2 position, while the two AC Aux pump switches must remain in AUTO

Question 69

Which electric hydraulic pumps are automatically switched on for take-off or landing

Answer 69

system 1 and 2

Question 70

Hydraulic system 3 powers which flight controls

Answer 70

Rudder, right elevator and both ailerons

Question 71

If only a single power source is available and both windshields are operative, which windshield system is powered

Answer 71

Left

Question 72

With the Ice detection mode selector knob set to AUTO and the T/O DATASET "REF A/I" set to OFF,

Answer 72

the wing A/I system is inhibited until 1700' ALG or 2 min after liftoff

Question 73

Following automatic activation and when icing conditions are no longer sensed, how long will the wing and engine anti-ice systems remain active

Answer 73

5 minutes

Question 74

When the ADSP and TAT probe heaters powered

Answer 74

Whenever the engines are running

Question 75

With the ice detection mode selector knob to ON, when will the engine A/I systems operate

Answer 75

whenever the engines are running

Question 76

During normal operation, the landing gear system is

Answer 76

electronically controlled and hydraulically operated

Question 77

Towing is NOT allowed when

Answer 77

all of the above - the steering motor is pressurized - when operation is in active mode - if any of the brakes are pressurized

Question 78

In the event of a failure in the PSEM electronics, the landing gear should be extended by means of

Answer 78

the electrical override switch

Question 79

Which BCM protections are still available during auto-brake control

Answer 79

Anti-skid control, touchdown protection, locked wheel protection

Question 80

In the event of a failure of both electronic and the electrical override system, the landing gear should be extended by means of

Answer 80

the alternate gear extension lever

Question 81

Where is the crew oxygen pressure indication

Answer 81

on the status synoptic page on MFD

Question 82

Above what cabin altitude will the passenger oxygen system deploy automatically

Answer 82

14,000 ft.

Question 83

How can you activate the microphone in one of the pilots oxygen masks

Answer 83

open the door of the stowage box or press the Test/Reset button

Question 84

Where is the flight crew oxygen cylinder stored

Answer 84

in the forward cargo compartment

Question 85

If activated the chemical oxygen dispensing units supply oxygen for a passenger for a period of approx.

Answer 85

12 minutes

Question 86

TCF (terrain clearance floor) function is based on airplane present position, radio altitude, and

Answer 86

distance to the nearest runway on database

Question 87

The system which provides information and alerting to detect a potentially hazardous terrain situation in order to prevent CFIT is

Answer 87

EGPWS

Question 88

EICAS message that requires immediate crew awareness and a subsequent corrective action is

Answer 88

CAUTION

Question 89

EICAS messages are sometimes inhibited to prevent it from being a nuisance. K2b coded messages are inhibited

Answer 89

on takeoff roll

Question 90

EICAS STATUS messages are displayed in

Answer 90

white