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E175 Limitations > E170 System CBT questions > Flashcards

E170 System CBT questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the certified ceiling of the ERJ 170

A

41000 feet

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2
Q

In a turn, what requires the largest clearance

A

Tail

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3
Q

In case of total power loss,

A

DC power provide Emergency lighting

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4
Q

Above what cabin altitude will the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT signs automatically illuminate

A

14,000 feet

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5
Q

How many service doors provide access for service access

A

2

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6
Q

What is the max thrust of one engine

A

14,200 lbs

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7
Q

where is the EICAS display brightness control knob located

A

On the left hand glare shield light control panel

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8
Q

The warning message CABIN ALT HI together with a red cabin altitude indication will be displayed whenever the cabin altitude exceeds

A

9700 ft.

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9
Q

Cabin zone temperature control

A

can be transferred from the cockpit control panel to the flight attendant control panel

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10
Q

Pushing the dump switch on the pressurization panel in the cockpit

A

will depressurize the cabin to a maximum of 12,400 ft. cabin altitude, and deactivates the recirculation fans and the ECS packs

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11
Q

During normal operation, the conditioned air consists of

A

52 percent fresh air and 48 percent recirculation air

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12
Q

Which of the following components regulate the air flow to the ECS packs

A

the Flow Control Valve

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13
Q

During cruise below 37,000 ft. the normal differential pressure is limited to

A

7.8 PSID

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14
Q

The CPCS calculates a target cabin altitude for each of the following CPCS flight modes

A

ground, taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, and abort

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15
Q

The positive pressure relief valve (safety valve) opens independently whenever the differential pressure exceeds

A

8.6 PSID

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16
Q

The cabin pressure control system consists of the following main components

A

one cabin pressure controller, one cabin outflow valve, one negative relief valve, one positive pressure relief valve, and one static port

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17
Q

The emergency ram air valve is commanded open

A

I Pack1 and Pack2 are commanded/failed OFF, and the altitude is less than 25,000 ft.

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18
Q

During a normal APU shutdown what services are available

A

no services are available

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19
Q

Pushing the emergency stop button on the APU panel causes what

A

APU to stop immediately

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20
Q

What causes the APU to automatically shut down on the ground

A

All of the above

  • Overspeed, FADEC critical fault
  • APU fire, EGT over temp, sensor failure
  • APU high oil temp, APU low oil pressure
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21
Q

What is the maximum altitude for starting the APU

A

30,000 ft.

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22
Q

What is the max altitude for conditioning air operation from the APU

A

15,000 ft.

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23
Q

What actions trip the autopilot

A

All of the above

  • manual trim or quick disc switches activated, column shakers are activated
  • the fly by wire system in direct mode, aileron and elevator system disconnects
  • a column and control wheel force monitor sensor trips
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24
Q

Pressing the NAV button the FMA annunciator displays

A

LNAV, LOC

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25
Q

The guidance panel provides what functions

A

All of the above

  • lateral and vertical guidance control
  • AFCS management control
  • two independent A and B channels
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26
Q

Pressing the centre of the ALT selector knob does what

A

Provides the selected ALT in METERS to be displayed on the PFD

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27
Q

Pressing the back up trim switch with the autopilot engaged

A

the autopilot disconnects

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28
Q

Can you reconnect the IDG in flight

A

no

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29
Q

When IDG1 and IDG2 are selected off

A

the generator is de-energized and the line contactor is open

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30
Q

What does the AVAIL lamp on the overhead electrical panel mean

A

the external power is connected and all quality requirements are satisfied

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31
Q

If the APU is available and one engine generator fails, the failed generator is replaced by

A

the APU generator

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32
Q

The STBY AC BUS is normally powered by the ESS AC BUS. It will be powered by the inverter,

A

when the aircraft is powered by batteries only

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33
Q

Each thrust reverser half has

A

2 hydraulic actuators

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34
Q

How many ignitors are energized for each engine start

A

one on ground and two in flight

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35
Q

What controls the Fuel Metering Unit

A

the FADEC

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36
Q

What type of engine is the General Electric CF34-8E

A

High-Bypass two spool turbofan

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37
Q

During normal engine start

A

the FADEC opens and closes the starter control valve automatically

38
Q

Pushing the test button on the fire extinguisher panel in the cockpit will

A

test the engine and APU fire detection as well as the cargo smoke detection system

39
Q

When smoke is detected in the forward lavatory

A

all statements are correct

  • an alarm will sound and the red alarm indicator will illuminate
  • an EICAS warning LAV SMOKE will be displayed in the cockpit
  • the flashing amber lights on both the attendant light indicator panels will be activated
40
Q

Pulling down an Engine fire handle in the cockpit will

A

shutoff the fuel system, hydraulic fluids, and the bleed air system of the respective engine

41
Q

In the event of an APU fire on ground

A

the APU will shut down after 10 seconds, if there is no commanded shut down through the APU emergency stop switch

42
Q

The lavatory fire extinguisher is

A

activated automatically when a certain temp has been reached

43
Q

The HS-ACE responds to

A

trim commands from the backup trim, pilot trim, Co-pilot trim, and FCM trim inputs

44
Q

What is the correct sequence of slats/flaps extension and retraction

A

slats extend first, while flaps retract first

45
Q

The elevator thrust compensation (ETC) function, stabilizing the aircraft around the pitch axis, will be available

A

in normal mode only, as it is computed in the FCM unit

46
Q

The two aileron PCUs per side operate the aileron surface,

A

in an active/active configuration

47
Q

Hydraulic system 3 powers which elevator PCU

A

Right outboard

48
Q

A single trim command fro yaw and pitch is limited to

A

3 seconds

49
Q

Following a jammed control column (pitch), when the elev disc handle is pulled,

A

the unrestricted control column controls its own side elevator

50
Q

The flight control system can operate in normal or direct mode. Which of the following statements concerning the two different modes is true

A

in direct mode, FCM commands are removed from the control loop

51
Q

Which of the following systems are NOT driven by fly-by-wire technology

A

the ailerons only; all other systems are driven by fly by wire technology

52
Q

In case of a single electric motor failure within the flap PDU how will the system operate

A

the flap/slat system will operate at low rate speed

53
Q

How many minutes of cockpit audio can the DVDR record

A

120 minutes

54
Q

what is the primary means of radio tuning

A

MCDU

55
Q

What powers the IESS in case of electrical emergency

A

RAT or Batteries

56
Q

During normal operation, air data readouts on the captains PDF are from which ADS

A

ADS 1

57
Q

the IESS can display which of the following

A

all of the above

  • Attitude, Altitude, and IAS
  • Mach, VMO/MMO, slip indication, VS
  • ILS, barometric pressure, Altitude in meters
58
Q

The PTU transfers hydraulic power from system 1 to system 2 to guarantee normal operation of which system

A

landing gear

59
Q

how many electric hydraulic pumps are used for each system

A

system 1 and 2 have one electric hydraulic pump each, system 3 has two electric hydraulic pumps

60
Q

the EMBRAER 170 hydraulic system operates at what nominal pressure

A

3000 psi

61
Q

What does SECTOR SCAN on the weather radar do

A

reduces the sweep angle to -30 degrees and increases the sweep rate to 24spm

62
Q

the Air data system comprises of what components

A

4 ADSP’s, 2 TAT probes, 3 ADA’s, and the Baro set on the GP

63
Q

Which IRS is the primary source for the captain PFD

A

IRS 1

64
Q

When will a Fuel imbalance caution message be displayed on the EICAS

A

whenever a lateral fuel imbalance exceeding 360 kg (800 lbs) exists.

65
Q

What is the purpose of the wing surge tanks

A

The surge tanks collect the fuel during wing-down or uncoordinated flight maneuvers

66
Q

With the engines running, through which pumps are the engines and the APU fed

A

the primary ejector pumps

67
Q

the DC fuel pump,

A

is located in the right wing tank and can be used in fight and on the ground

68
Q

to correct lateral imbalances using the crossfeed function, the pilot must

A

select the XFEED switch to the LOW1 or LOW2 position, while the two AC Aux pump switches must remain in AUTO

69
Q

Which electric hydraulic pumps are automatically switched on for take-off or landing

A

system 1 and 2

70
Q

Hydraulic system 3 powers which flight controls

A

Rudder, right elevator and both ailerons

71
Q

If only a single power source is available and both windshields are operative, which windshield system is powered

A

Left

72
Q

With the Ice detection mode selector knob set to AUTO and the T/O DATASET “REF A/I” set to OFF,

A

the wing A/I system is inhibited until 1700’ ALG or 2 min after liftoff

73
Q

Following automatic activation and when icing conditions are no longer sensed, how long will the wing and engine anti-ice systems remain active

A

5 minutes

74
Q

When the ADSP and TAT probe heaters powered

A

Whenever the engines are running

75
Q

With the ice detection mode selector knob to ON, when will the engine A/I systems operate

A

whenever the engines are running

76
Q

During normal operation, the landing gear system is

A

electronically controlled and hydraulically operated

77
Q

Towing is NOT allowed when

A

all of the above

  • the steering motor is pressurized
  • when operation is in active mode
  • if any of the brakes are pressurized
78
Q

In the event of a failure in the PSEM electronics, the landing gear should be extended by means of

A

the electrical override switch

79
Q

Which BCM protections are still available during auto-brake control

A

Anti-skid control, touchdown protection, locked wheel protection

80
Q

In the event of a failure of both electronic and the electrical override system, the landing gear should be extended by means of

A

the alternate gear extension lever

81
Q

Where is the crew oxygen pressure indication

A

on the status synoptic page on MFD

82
Q

Above what cabin altitude will the passenger oxygen system deploy automatically

A

14,000 ft.

83
Q

How can you activate the microphone in one of the pilots oxygen masks

A

open the door of the stowage box or press the Test/Reset button

84
Q

Where is the flight crew oxygen cylinder stored

A

in the forward cargo compartment

85
Q

If activated the chemical oxygen dispensing units supply oxygen for a passenger for a period of approx.

A

12 minutes

86
Q

TCF (terrain clearance floor) function is based on airplane present position, radio altitude, and

A

distance to the nearest runway on database

87
Q

The system which provides information and alerting to detect a potentially hazardous terrain situation in order to prevent CFIT is

A

EGPWS

88
Q

EICAS message that requires immediate crew awareness and a subsequent corrective action is

A

CAUTION

89
Q

EICAS messages are sometimes inhibited to prevent it from being a nuisance. K2b coded messages are inhibited

A

on takeoff roll

90
Q

EICAS STATUS messages are displayed in

A

white

E175 Limitations (3 decks)

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