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Envoy > E145 Limitations > Flashcards

E145 Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Required Flight Crew

A

Pilot, Co-pilot (Captain, First Officer)

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2
Q

What CFR parts is the EMB certified under?

A

Title 14 CFR Parts 25 and 36

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3
Q

Types of Operations

A

Day and Night

VFR and IFR

Flight in icing conditions

RVSM

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4
Q

Max differential pressure

A

8.1 psi

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5
Q

Auto Mode normal max differential pressure

A

7.8 psi

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6
Q

Maximum negative differential pressure

A

-0.3 psi

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7
Q

Max altitude for operation after an inflight depressurization is _______’ MSL unless MEA or other constraints require a higher altitude.

Max altitude when aircraft is dispatched for unpressurized flight is _______’

A

10,000’ MSL

10,000’

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8
Q

Max Allowable Airspeeds

A
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9
Q

Vmo/Mmo

A

320/.78

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10
Q

Max operating (KIAS 8000-10000’ MSL

Vmo

A

Red line

*increases linearly from 250 kts. at 8000’ to 320 kts. at 10000’

Do not deliberately exceed red line

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11
Q

Max Operating (KIAS) up to 8000’ MSL

Vmo

A

250

*Do not deliberately exceed Vmo/Mmo in any regime of flight

(climb, cruise or descent)

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12
Q

Max turbulence penetration

Vb/Mb

A

250/.63 (whichever is lower)

200 at or below 10000’

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13
Q

Va

A

200 KIAS

*Full application of rudder and ailerons, and maneuvers involving angle of attack near stall, must be confined to speeds below Va

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14
Q

Landing gear

Vloe

Vle

Vlor

A

Vloe: 250

Vle: 250

Vlor: 200

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15
Q

Flap speeds

9

18

22

45

A

9: 250
18: 200
22: 200
45: 145 (momentary excursions due to wind gusts/turbulence allowed up to 155 kts. with no crew or mx action required)

*steady state operation over 145 kts is not allowed and must be entered into the AML.

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16
Q

Max Wiper operating

A

160

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17
Q

Vmcg

A

V1 speeds are always greater than Vmcg

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18
Q

Vmca

A

Vr speeds are always higher than Vmca

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19
Q

Vmcl

A

Vref speeds are always higher than Vmcl

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20
Q

Max operating altitude

A

37000’

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21
Q

Minimum takeoff and landing pressure altitude

A

-1000’

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22
Q

Max takeoff and landing pressure altitude

A

8000’

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23
Q

Minimum takeoff and landing temperture

A

-40 C SAT

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24
Q

Max takeoff and landing temp (-1000’ PA)

A

52 C SAT

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25
Q

Max takeoff and landing temp (8000’ PA)

A

34 C SAT

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26
Q

In the event of a landing below ____ C SAT, the aircraft may not takeoff without further MX inspection

A

-40 C SAT

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27
Q

TAT in cruise flight above 25000’ is limited to ___ C

*momentary deviations up to ___ DO NOT require mx action

A
  • 45 C TAT
  • 50 C TAT
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28
Q

Minimum SAT in flight:

A

-65 C SAT

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29
Q

Icing conditions exist when the OAT is ___ or below AND visible moisture in any form is present. (clouds, fog with vis 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals)

Icing conditions also exist when the OAT is ___ or below when operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.

A

10 C

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30
Q

Icing conditions may exist whenever the Total air temp (TAT) is ___ or below AND visible moisture in any form is present. (clouds, fog with vis 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals.

A

10 C

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31
Q

Min temp for manual anti-icing operation

A

-40 C

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32
Q

Max temp for manual anti-icing operation

A

10 C

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33
Q

Use ____air temp on the ground or for takeoff.

Use ___air temp for operations in flight.

A

Static (SAT)

Total (TAT)

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34
Q

True/False

There is no temp limitation for automatic anti-icing system operation.

A

True

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35
Q

Takeoff is prohibited when frost, snow, ice, or slush is adhering to the ___, ___, ___, ___, or ___.

A

Wings, control surfaces, stabilizers, Pitot static ports, AOA vanes

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36
Q

A ___” frost layer is permitted on the underwing surfaces.

Frost is not permitted on the lower or upper surface of the ___ or the upper surface of the ___.

A

1/8”

Frost is not permitted on the lower or upper surface of the horizontal stabilizer or the upper surface of the wing.

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37
Q

Automated performance anlayst procedures contained in the EMB AOM Vol 1 Performance section must be used when the runway is contaminated.

A runway is contaminated when:

A

MORE than 25% of the required field length, within the width being used is covered by:

More than 1/8” of standing water, slush, wet snow

More than 3/4” dry snow

Compacted snow

Ice

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38
Q

True/False

The APU bleed can be used as a pnuematic source for the anit-icing system.

A

False

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39
Q

Min engagement height for autoflight

A

500’

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40
Q

Min disengagement altitude for autoflight

Instrument approach (APR/NAV mode):

Visual approach (HDG or NAV)

A

MDA/DA/DH

Traffic pattern altiude (1500’ AFL)

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41
Q

True/False

Single engine go-around with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.

A

True

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42
Q

Approach mode selection during localizer capture is allowed only when:

A

Aircraft is inbound

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43
Q

Cat 1 ILS coupled go-around height loss may be ___’

A

95’

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44
Q

Yaw damper is not authorized for:

A

Takeoff to 500’ AFL

Landing

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45
Q

Minimum DH on Cat II approach

A

100’

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46
Q

Cat II ILS coupled go-around height loss may be ___’.

A

50’

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47
Q

Minimum altitude during a coupled CAT II ILS approach.

A

80’

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48
Q

Max tailwind during CAT II Approach

A

10 kts

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49
Q

Max crosswind during CAT II approach

A

15 kts.

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50
Q

Cat II approach and landing must be performed with what flap setting?

All CAT II approaches must be flown coupled to the autopilot to __?

A

22 degrees

DH

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51
Q

EICAS Version 20.5 will not display the green CAT 2 annunciator when the RA is set to 80’. If the approach plate shows RA 80’, round the RA setting up to ___’

A

85’

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52
Q

APU max operation altitude

A

37000’

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53
Q

APU max altitude for start

A

30000’

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54
Q

APU max start EGT

A

884 C

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55
Q

APU max continuous EGT

A

680 C

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56
Q

APU max rotor speed

A

104%

57
Q

APU min start temp

A

-54 C

58
Q

Min battery temp for APU start

There is no min battery temp when starting the APU via___

A

-20 C

External power

59
Q

The APU continuous EGT may be exceeded up to ___ C for ___ min maximum.

A

717 C

5 min

60
Q

APU Cooling period between 3 consecutive start attempts

APU cooling period between 2 series of 3 consecutive attempts

A

1 min off

30 min off

61
Q

The aircraft must not be moved when the AHRS is in the ____ mode until all attitude and heading information presented on the ___ is displayed.

A

Initialization mode

PFD

62
Q

The aircraft may not be operated within the North and South Magnetic Polor cut-out regions of ___ N and ___ S

A

70 degrees N

60 degrees S

63
Q

True/False

Pilots are authorized to deviate from ATC clearances to extent necessary to comply with an EGPWS warning.

A

True

64
Q

Does the EGPWS database, displays, and alerting algorithms account for manmade obstructions?

A

NO

65
Q

When must the Terrain awareness alerting and display be inhibited? (TERR/OVRD)

A
  • FMS in dead reckoning mode
  • Before takeoff or within 15 nm of approach and landing at airport with longest runway less than 3500’
  • Before takeoff or within 15 nm of approach or landing at airport with no published IAP
  • Airort not in Honeywell database
  • GPS 1 and 2 fail
66
Q

Max load on main DC generator

A

400A

67
Q

Max load on APU DC generator

up to 30000:

above 30000:

A

400A

300A

68
Q

Max battery temp

A

70 C

69
Q

Min battery temp for APU start

A

-20 C

70
Q

Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System must be armed when?

EMB 145:

EMB 140:

A

EMB 145: takeoffs using ALT T/O-1

EMB 140: takeoffs using T/O or ALT T/O-1

71
Q

Run each engine for a minimum of ___ at idle or taxi thrust before shutdown.

A

1 min

72
Q

The minimum dispatch oil qty is __ qts before engine start or __ qts after engine start.

A

8 qts before start

7 qts after start

73
Q

EMB 145 engine type

EMB 140 engine type

A

AE3007A1

AE3007A1/3

Rolls-Royce

74
Q

Run the engines at idle or taxi thrust a minimum of __ min for cold engines and __ min for warm engines before applying takeoff thrust.

*An engine is considered cold if it has been shutdown for more than __ min

A

4 min cold engines

2 min warm engines

90 min

75
Q

Prior to increasing N2 above 83%, the engine oil temp must be a minimum of ___ C

In lieu of this minimum oil temp limit, it is acceptable to run the engine for at least __ min and ensure the oil temp is in the ____ green range prior to advancing thrust for takeoff.

A

40 C

8 min, green range

76
Q

Max ITT T/O-1 (145)

T/O RSV (140)

*__ min limit

A

948 C

5 min limit

77
Q

Max ITT T/O-1 and T/O (140)

__ min limit

A

929 C

5 min limit

78
Q

Max ITT ALT T/O-1

__ min limit

A

917 C

5 min limit

79
Q

Max continuous ITT

*For use during OEI operation or emergency only

A

901 C

80
Q

Max ITT engine start

A

800 C

81
Q

Max N1 %

A

100%

82
Q

N2 min and max

A

57% min

102.4% max

83
Q

Oil pressure min and max

A

Green Range

50-110 psi

84
Q

Oil temp min and max

A

Green Range

21-126 C

85
Q

Vibration N1 and N2 Turbine limit

A

Green Range

May be exceeded up to top of amber range for 5 min during takeoff or go-around phases or 10 sec during other flight phases.

86
Q

N1 and N2 vibration during any phase of flight in the amber range up to 1.5 IPS for less than 30 seconds does not require MX action.

True/False

A

True

87
Q

Oil pressure and temp limits may be exceeded during starts if oil temp is below __ C.

Engine must remain at idle until the oil pressure is _____

A

21 C

In the green range

88
Q

Min oil pressure below 88% N2

A

34 psi

89
Q

Min oil pressure N2 at or above 88%: Operations between __ psi and __ psi is permitted during takeoff and go-around phases.

A

34 and 50 psi

90
Q

Engines may operate in the amber range (oil pressure) up to __ psi for __ min in all thrust modes.

A

115 psi

5 min

91
Q

Operations in the amber oil pressure range above __ psi up to __ psi is permitted for up to __ min.

A

115-155 psi

2 min

92
Q

Total time in the amber oil pressure range may not exceed __ min

Any exceedance must be monitored and logged in the ___ by the crew.

A

5 min

Aircraft Maintenance Log

93
Q

Min oil temp for start

A

-40 C

94
Q

Min oil temp for takeoff

If oil temp is less, perform ___

A

40 C

Engine warmup

95
Q

Max continuous starter operation time in flight

Is cool down time required during in-flight start attempt?

A

5 min ON

No

96
Q

Max altitude for flap extension

A

20000 MSL

97
Q

Authorized takeoff flap configurations are:

A

9, 18 (140) or 22 (145)

98
Q

Max airspeed after takeoff during climb without retrimming

A

160 KIAS

99
Q

Flight instruments:

Max/Min limits:

Caution, temporary or idle range

Normal Range

Advisory

A

Red

Amber

Green

Blue

100
Q

Max duration of Integrated Standby Instrument System when operating on batteries.

The max duration of battery power can be extended up to __ min if the __ is turned OFF when not operating in Icing conditions.

A

40 min

45 min, Pitot 3 Sensor Heating Button

101
Q

Can the aircraft be moved during ISIS power-up initialization?

Can you cage attitude in turning flight?

A

No

No

102
Q

GPS approaches must be conducted in the FMS approach mode and GPS integrity monitoring or WAAS coverage must be available at the FAF as indicated to the pilot by the ____ amber annunciator being off and the ___ blue annunciator displayed on the PFD.

A

INTEG

APP

103
Q

Universal FMS software version ____ or ____ (or later approved version) must be installed.

A

603.5 or 1001.1

104
Q

Use of FMS guidance for conducting approaches is prohibited when the FMS is in what mode?

A

Dead reckoning mode

(DR annunciation on PFD)

105
Q

What approaches are prohibited using FMS for guidance?

A

ILS, LDA, SDF, NDB and MLS

Transition segments to an ILS are OK

106
Q

Once fully configured for an approach, can you retrieve messages from the FMS CDU?

A

NO

Local alerts on the PFD will alert the crew to a loss of RAIM or required approach scaling tolerances.

107
Q

If the FMS database is expired, an ____ entry is required.

A

AML

108
Q

Are pilot defined approaches allowed?

Is a Envoy special visual approach procedure considered a pilot defined approach?

A

NO

NO

109
Q

Operating above ___ degrees North latitude and below ____ degrees latitude is prohibited due to unreliable magnetic heading.

A

73 degrees north

60 degrees south

110
Q

If fuel does not contain an icing inhibitor, the temp of fuel leaving FCOC must be above ___C

A

4 C

Refer to E1 (2) FUEL LOW TEMP Procedure

111
Q

XFEED shall be OFF during ____ and ____ during normal operations.

A

takeoff and landing

112
Q

Max fuel imbalance

A

800 lbs

113
Q

Total usable fuel (at 6.7 lb./gal.)

Total unusable fuel

A

11,100 lbs

78 lbs

114
Q

All indicated fuel is _____

If any electric fuel booster pump is inop., the unusable fuel qty. in the associated wing increases by ____ lbs (____ lbs if both wings are affected) and should be added to the total release fuel.

A

Usable

365 lbs (730 lbs)

115
Q

When performing pressure refueling, the total capacity in each tank may be reduced by ____ US gal. maximum.

A

13.2 US gal.

the 11,100 lb total usable fuel includes this calculation

116
Q

Pressure for refueling

A

35-50 psi

117
Q

Min fuel temp

Max fuel temp

A

-40 C

52 C

118
Q

Holding configuration

A

Landing gear UP

Flaps UP

Min airspeed (icing conditions only) 200 KIAS

119
Q

Do not operate the weather radar during…

A

refueling, near fuel spills or people,

STBY position is not considered operating

120
Q

Thrust reversers are intended for use during _______ only. After initiating reverse thrust, a ____ must be made.

A

Rejected takeoff or landing

full stop

121
Q

MAX reverse thrust MUST be used when?

A

Whenever stoping distance is deemed to be critical and its use will prevent runway excursion

When landing on runways with Medium or Poor braking action unless the appropriate landing distance penalty (flip cards) is applied

122
Q

IDLE reverse MAY be used when?

A

Dry runways 7000’ or shorter usable length (LDA)

Non-dry runways where braking action is good

123
Q

Circling approaches are not authorized when the weather is less than

A

3 miles vis

1000’ ceiling

124
Q

Max demonstrated x-wind takeoff and landing

A

30 kts

125
Q

Flaps up load limit

A

+2.5 g

-1 g

126
Q

flaps down load limit

A

+2 g

0 g

127
Q

runway slope for takeoff and landing is limited to

A

+2% to -2%

128
Q

Max takeoff and landing tailwind component

A

10 kts

129
Q

Max takeoff and landing weights may be further limited by:

A

Runway analysis data

Climb limited landing data

runway limited landing data

MEL/CDL requirements

130
Q

EMB 145

C1 coat rod limit

floor limit

C4 limit

A

40 lbs

100 lbs

2646

131
Q

the C4 horizontal net must be installed when the weight is above ____ lbs.

A

2182 lbs

132
Q

EMB 140

C1 coat rod limit

C1 floor limit

C4 limit

A

40 lbs

100 lbs

2646 lbs

133
Q

EMB 140

C2 coat rod limit

C2 Floor limit

C3 upper limit

C3 lower limit

A

20 lbs

30 lbs

40 lbs

60 lbs

134
Q

N2 (%) min and max

A

57-102.4%

135
Q

Thrust reverser use is PROHIBITED for:

A

Power-back operations

Taxi operations

Thrust levers stabilized in any intermediate position between IDLE reverse and MAXIMUM reverse

136
Q

Acceptable Fuels

A

JET A

JET A-1

JP8

137
Q

Starter limits On Ground:

Starting or Dry Motoring:

OR:

First to Fourth Cycles:

Following Cycles:

A

Up to 5 min ON, 5 min OFF

1 min ON, 1 min OFF

1 min ON, 5 min OFF

138
Q

Pre-takeoff Tactile Check required when:

A

Holdover time is exceeded

When visual inspection does not indicate wing contamination and OAT is 5 or below AND:

1) There is visable moisture OR
2) Water is present on the wing OR
3) Difference b/n dewpoint and OAT is 3 degrees or less OR
4) Atmospheric conditions have been conducive to frost formation

Should be done during preflight is possible

Envoy (2 decks)

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