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e1 Flashcards

1
Q

Osteoblast and osteoclast activity is highly regulated by vitamin D and ___________.

A

Parathyroid hormone

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2
Q

Osteoblasts ___________ bone.

A

Deposit

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3
Q

What is the common name for osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Brittle bone disease

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4
Q

What may manifest with the appearance of blue sclerae?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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5
Q

Type II osteogenesis imperfecta is lethal in utero due to severe instability of Type I collagen fibers. T/F

A

True

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6
Q

Which congenital disorder of bone develops from an FGFR3 mutation

A

Achondroplasia

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7
Q

Thanatophoric dwarfism is a lethal condition associated with an FGFR3 mutation and is present in 1 out of every ________ live births.

A

20,000

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8
Q

Which condition involves defective osteoclast-mediated bone resorption?

A

Osteopetrosis

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9
Q

The most common pattern of inheritance for osteopetrosis is autosomal _________, which has mild clinical features.

A

Dominant

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10
Q

Which of the following is a group of disorders that produces dense, solid, stone-like bone?

A

Osteopetrosis

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11
Q

Bone mass begins to decline as soon as age _______.

A

25years

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12
Q

Which of the following is the youngest individual to be losing bone mass?

A

A 30-year-old male (3rd decade)

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13
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of secondary (2°) osteoporosis?

A

B.
A. Malnutrition C. Alcohol consumption
B. Menopause D. Hyperparathyroidism

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14
Q

Which of the following is not commonly associated with the development of osteoporosis? (p. 769)

A

C.
A. Corticosteroids C. Animal fats
B. Alcohol D. Malabsorption

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15
Q

Which pathology is not directly associated with advanced osteoporosis?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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16
Q

What acquired disease of bone is most likely to be diagnosed during mid-to-late adulthood?

A

Paget disease

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17
Q

Plain radiographs (x-rays) require a _____ loss of bone mass before osteopenia becomes evident.

A

40%

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18
Q

What condition demonstrates a shaggy mosaic appearance upon biopsy?

A

Paget Disease

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19
Q

The axial skeleton or the ________ is involved in nearly 80% of all cases of Paget disease.

A

Femur

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20
Q

Which of the following is the “adult counterpart” of rickets?

A

Osteomalacia

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21
Q

Vitamin D deficiency is a 43-year-old male is most likely to cause __________.

A

Osteomalacia

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22
Q

The entire skeleton is affected in patients with hyperparathyroidism. T/F

A

True

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23
Q

Fragmented fracture

A

comminuted

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24
Q

Which of the following manifests with pronounced subperiosteal resorption on the radial aspect of the middle phalange?

A

Hyperparathyroidism

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25
Q

Brown tumor is most likely to have originated in a patient with _________.

A

Hyperparathyroidism

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26
Q

Woven bone is present at typical fracture site during the ________ week of healing.

A

2nd - 3rd week

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27
Q

A patient with sickle cell disease is most likely to develop osteomyelitis from __________.

A

Salmonella typhi

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28
Q

Which of the following is the microbial agent associated with most cases of osteomyelitis in adults?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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29
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis most commonly spreads from the lungs to the bone via the __________ system to causes tuberculous osteomyelitis.

A

Hematogenous

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30
Q

In general, if cancer is detected within a bone it is most likely to be __________.

A

Metastasis to bone

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31
Q

The __________ is the area of entrapped necrotic bone in patients with osteomyelitis.

A

Sequestrum

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32
Q

Hematogenous spread of tuberculous osteomyelitis is most likely to cause infection of the long bones or the __________.

A

Vertebral column

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33
Q

Tuberculous osteomyelitis is likely to demonstrate caseous granulomas in the affected bone. T/F

A

True

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34
Q

A 52-year-old male with back pain that fails to improve after 1 month of chiropractic care who also reports unexplained weight loss, should be examined to rule out bone cancer. T/F

A

True

35
Q

The majority of bone tumors develop ______ in life and are asymptomatic.

A

Early

36
Q

A benign, solitary, exophytic tumor on the skull of a 44-year-old male is most likely to be a(n) ___________.

A

osteoma

37
Q

Which of the following is a benign bone tumor? Chondrosarcoma Osteosarcoma Hemangioma Osteoid osteoma

A

Osteoid Osteoma

38
Q

Which of the following bone tumors appears as a round-to-oval mass with a rim of sclerotic bone?

A

Osteoid osteoma

39
Q

Which benign neoplasm of bone causes bone pain that is not relieved by aspirin?

A

Osteoblastoma

40
Q

Which of the following commonly involves the bones of the spinal column and may manifest poorly- localized pain?

A

Osteoblastoma

41
Q

An osteosarcoma is most likely to develop within the bones of the __________ joint.

A

Knee

42
Q

A __________ gene mutation has the most influence on the development of osteosarcoma?

A

TP53

43
Q

Which of the following is a malignant bony neoplasm that is commonly diagnosed near the knee among individuals age 10-20 years?

A

osteosarcoma

44
Q

Cartilage-forming bone tumors are most frequently malignant neoplasms. T/F

A

False

45
Q

The bone tumor shown in the image to the right is most likely a __________. (looks like a mushroom)

A

osteochondroma

46
Q

Which patient is most likely to develop a solitary osteochondroma?

A

A 22 year old male

47
Q

When a chondroma arises within the medulla of the bone it is termed a(n) _________.

A

endochondroma

48
Q

Ollier disease is associated with the development of multiple __________.

A

enchondromas

49
Q

A chondrosarcoma typically manifests as a progressively enlarging mass that is painful. T/F

A

False (small, slow growing)

50
Q

Which is larger, a fibrous cortical defect or a nonossifying fibroma?

A

nonossifying fibroma

51
Q

Fibrous dysplasia is monostotic in _____ of all cases.

A

70%

52
Q

Which form of fibrous dysplasia is most likely to be a progressive disease with severe skeletal complications?

A

Polyostotic

53
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be associated with distortion of the facial bones?

A

Fibrous Dysplasia

54
Q

Ewing sarcoma is a benign bone tumor that develops in the diaphysis of the femur in children between the ages of 10-15 years old. T/F

A

False

55
Q

Most patients with fibrous dysplasia present with precocious puberty. T / F

A

False

56
Q

Ewing sarcoma is most likely to develop within the __________ of 15-year-old male.

A

Femur

57
Q

A giant cell tumor of bone frequently produces pain. T/F

A

True

58
Q

Which of the following does not have well-established malignant potential? (p. 781)
E. Chondrosarcoma G. Giant-cell tumor of bone
F. Ewing sarcoma H. Osteosarcoma

A

Giant cell tumor of bone

59
Q

Most giant-cell tumors of bone are ________ and _________.

A

Solitary, osteolytic

60
Q

A small percent of giant-cell tumor of bone cases metastasize to the _____.

A

lungs

61
Q

Heberden nodes develop in patients with __________.

A

osteoarthritis

62
Q

Subchondral cysts develop in the advanced stages of __________.

A

osteoarthritis

63
Q

Early osteoarthritis is associated changes to the articular cartilage that include reduced _________ and increased water content.

A

proteoglycans

64
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is up to ________ more common among females.

A

5 times

65
Q

Which of the following is most likely to result in synovitis?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

66
Q

Pannus is associated with the destructive changes that occur in patients with __________.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

67
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is most likely to involve which of the following joints?

A

ankles, hands, feet wrist, elbows, knees

68
Q

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is categorized as arthritis that onsets prior to age _____ and lasts for at least ______.

A

16, 6 weeks

69
Q

Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?

A

Psoriatic arthritis (PEAR-P.A, enteropathic, ankylosing, reactive)

70
Q

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are negative for Rheumatoid Factor and HLA-B27. T/F

A

False (absent RF but associated with HLA-B27)

71
Q

Gout involves the accumulation of __________ due to altered _________ metabolism.

A

Uric acid, purine

72
Q

Gout is associated with and accumulation of monosodium urate crystals, which develop secondary abnormal ________ metabolism.

A

Purine

73
Q

Which of the following conditions may result in secondary gout? A. Anemia C. Leukemia
B. Osteoarthritis D. Osteomyelitis

A

Leukemia (and - renal disease, multiple myeloma, diuresis)

74
Q

Your 35-year-old patient has suppurative arthritis.
Which microbe is most likely to be contained within the joint aspiration? (p. 789)
A. Borrelia burgdorferi C. Salmonella typhi
B. Haemophilus influenzae D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

Staphylococcus aureus

75
Q

Following an untreated Borrelia burgdorferi infection, chronic polyarthritis and encephalitis may develop within _______.

A

2 - 3 years

76
Q

A ganglion is commonly located near the tendinous sheaths of the wrist and communicates with the joint space. T/F

A

False (does not communicate)

77
Q

The most common location for soft tissue tumor development is the _________.
A. Thorax C. Lower extremity
B. Upper extremity D. Hand

A

lower extremity

78
Q

Liposarcomas are malignant neoplasms of adipocytes that commonly affect adults in their 50s. T / F

A

True

79
Q

If a soft tissue tumor is located in a ________ structure, it has a more favorable prognosis.

A

superficial

80
Q

Metaplastic bone that commonly develops in the proximal muscles of the extremities following localized trauma is most likely to be ___________.

A

Myositis ossificans

81
Q

Deformities resulting from fibroblastic proliferations, such as Peyronie disease, are considered _____________.

A

Fibromatoses

82
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma is most commonly diagnosed during _________.

A

adolescence

83
Q

A painless abdominal neoplasm with “cigar-shaped nuclei” is most likely to be a ________.

A

Leiomyosarcoma

84
Q

Synovial sarcomas commonly involve an (X;18) translocation and tend to develop _______________.

A

Near the knee

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