Dysrthythmias and conduction problems Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving an ECG. The nurse notes that leads I, II, and III differ from one another on the cardiac rhythm strip. Why is this?
    A) The view of the electrical current changes in relation to the lead placement.
    B) Conduction of the heart differs with lead placement.
    C) Electrocardiogram (ECG) equipment has malfunctioned.
    D) The circadian rhythm has changed.
A
Ans:  A
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-4
Cognitive Level:  Analysis
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  2
Page and Header:  722, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: Each lead offers a different reference point to view the electrical activity of the heart. The lead displays the configuration of electrical activity of the heart.

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2
Q
2.  The nurse is analyzing a rhythm strip. What does the nurse look at to identify the resting state of the heart?
A)  P wave
B)  T wave
C)  U wave
D)  QRS complex
A
Ans:  B
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-4
Cognitive Level:  Analysis
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  1
Page and Header:  723, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: The T wave represents ventricular muscle depolarization, also referred to as the resting state.

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3
Q
3.  The staff educator is teaching a class on conduction problems in the heart. The educator explains that in an adult patient who has damage to the electrical conduction of the ventricles of the heart, the nurse would expect to see changes in what?
A)  P wave
B)  T wave
C)  QRS complex
D)  U wave
A
Ans:  C
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-4
Cognitive Level:  Analysis
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Teaching/Learning
Objective:  3
Page and Header:  723, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: The QRS complex represents the depolarization of the ventricles and, as such, the electrical activity of that ventricle.

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4
Q
  1. An adult patient with third-degree AV block is admitted to your unit and placed on continuous cardiac monitoring. What rhythm characteristics will the EKG show?
    A) PP interval and RR interval are irregular
    B) PP interval equal to RR interval
    C) Fewer QRS complexes than P waves
    D) PR interval constant
A
Ans:  C
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-4
Cognitive Level:  Analysis
Difficulty:  Difficult
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  4
Page and Header:  739, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: In third-degree AV block, no atrial impulse is conducted through the AV node into the ventricles. As a result, there are impulses stimulating the atria and impulses stimulating the ventricles. Therefore, there are more P waves than QRS complexes due to the difference in the natural pacemaker (nodes) rates of the heart.

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5
Q
5.  You are writing a plan of care for a patient with a cardiac dysrhythmia. What would be the most appropriate goal for the patient?
A)  Maintain nutritional intake
B)  Maintain fluid intake
C)  Maintain cardiac output
D)  Maintain social contacts
A
Ans:  C
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-4
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Communication and Documentation
Objective:  5
Page and Header:  740, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: For patient safety, the most appropriate goal is to maintain cardiac output to prevent worsening complications as a result of decreased cardiac output.

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6
Q
  1. Your patient has returned from the operating room after having a permanent pacemaker implantation. Which potential complication should you assess for in a postoperative patient with permanent pacemaker implantation?
    A) Decreased urinary output
    B) Bleeding at the generator-implantation site
    C) Decreased respiratory rate
    D) Decreased pulse rate
A
Ans:  B
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-3
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  7
Page and Header:  749, Adjunctive Modalities and Management

Feedback: Bleeding, hematomas, local infections, perforation of the myocardium, and tachycardia are complications of pacemaker implantations.

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7
Q
  1. Each permanent pacemaker has a universal code to provide a means of safe communication about its function. A patient you are caring for has a permanent pacemaker implanted with the identification code beginning with VVI. What does this indicates?
    A) Ventricular paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited
    B) Atrial paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited
    C) Ventricular sensed, ventricular paced, inhibited
    D) Atrial sensed, atrial paced, inhibited
A
Ans:  A
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-4
Cognitive Level:  Analysis
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  6
Page and Header:  744, Adjunctive Modalities and Management

Feedback: The identification of VVI indicates ventricular paced, ventricular sensed, inhibited.

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8
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for an adult patient who is in ventricular fibrillation. When defibrillating the patient, what must the nurse do?
    A) Maintain good contact between paddles and patient skin
    B) Use ultrasound gel as a conducting agent
    C) Call “all clear” once before discharging the defibrillator
    D) Ensure the defibrillator is in the sync mode
A
Ans:  A
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-3
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  8
Page and Header:  742, Adjunctive Modalities and Management

Feedback: When defibrillating an adult patient, the nurse should maintain good contact between the paddles and the patient’s skin to prevent arcing, apply an appropriate conducting agent between the skin and the paddles, and ensure the defibrillator is in the nonsync mode. “All clear” should be called three times before discharging the paddles.

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9
Q
  1. A patient who has undergone an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) procedure asks the nurse about the purpose of this device. What would be the nurse’s best response?
    A) “To detect and treat ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia”
    B) “To detect and treat bradycardia”
    C) “To detect and treat atrial fibrillation”
    D) “To shock your heart if you have a heart attack at home”
A
Ans:  A
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-4
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Teaching/Learning
Objective:  9
Page and Header:  747, Adjunctive Modalities and Management

Feedback: The ICD is a device that detects and terminates life-threatening episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation.

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10
Q
  1. The nurse is aware that cryoablation therapy involves
    A) peeling away the area of endocardium responsible for the dysrhythmia.
    B) using electrical shocks directly to the endocarduim to eliminate the source of dysrhythmia.
    C) using high-frequency sound waves to eliminate the source of dysrhythmia.
    D) using a probe cooled to a temperature of -60°C (-76°F) to eliminate the source of dysrhythmia.
A
Ans:  D
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-4
Cognitive Level:  Comprehension
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  10
Page and Header:  753, Adjunctive Modalities and Management

Feedback: Cryoablation therapy involves using the cooled probe to create a small scar on the endocarduim to eliminate the source of the dysrythmias. Endocardium resection involves peeling away a specified area of the endocardium. Electrical ablation involves using shocks to eliminate the area causing the dysrythmias. Radio frequency ablation uses high-frequency sound waves to destroy the area causing the dysrythmias.

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11
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a patient who has had an acute MI. The patient is receiving lidocaine IV. What is the most relevant factor to administration of this medication?
    A) Decrease in arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) when measured with a pulse oximeter
    B) Increase in systemic blood pressure
    C) Presence of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on cardiac monitor
    D) Increase in intracranial pressure (ICP)
A

ANS: C

Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-2
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  4
Page and Header:  734, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: Lidocaine (xylocaine) may be used in the patient with acute MI. Patients with acute MI who did not receive thrombolytics and had more than 10 PVCs per hour and those who did receive thrombolytics and had more than 25 PVCS per hour were found to be at the greatest risk for sudden cardiac death. SaO2, blood pressure, and ICP are important factors but aren’t as significant as PVCs in this situation.

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12
Q
  1. The nursing instructor is talking with her clinical group about cardiac conduction surgery. What would be the criteria for a patient to have this surgery?
    A) Sinus bradycardia not responsive to other treatments
    B) Functional rhythms not responsive to other treatments
    C) Atrial and ventricular tachycardias not responsive to other treatments
    D) Ventricular fibrillation not responsive to other treatments
A
Ans:  C
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-4
Cognitive Level:  Comprehension
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Teaching/Learning
Objective:  10
Page and Header:  752, Adjunctive Modalities and Management

Feedback: Cardiac conduction surgery is considered in patients who do not respond to medications and antitachycardia pacing.

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13
Q
13.  A nurse is caring for a patient who is exhibiting ventricular tachycardia with an irregular rhythm. Which dysrhythmia should the nurse suspect as the cause of the ventricular tachycardia?
A)  Atrial fibrillation
B)  Atrial flutter
C)  Premature ventricular complex
D)  Sinus bradycardia
A
Ans:  A
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-4
Cognitive Level:  Analysis
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  3
Page and Header:  729, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: Atrial fibrillation should be suspected as the cause of a ventricular tachycardia with an irregular rhythm, and it should be treated appropriately.

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14
Q
14.  A patient converts from normal sinus rhythm at 80 beats per minute to atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response at 166 beats per minute. Blood pressure is 162/74. Respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute with normal chest expansion and clear lungs bilaterally. IV heparin and cardizem are given. The nurse caring for the patient understands that the goal of treatment is what?
A)  Decrease SA node conduction
B)  Control ventricular rate
C)  Improve oxygenation
D)  Maintain anticoagulation
A
Ans:  B
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-1
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  5
Page and Header:  731, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: Treatment for atrial fibrillation is to terminate the rhythm or to control ventricular rate. A rapid ventricular response reduces the time for ventricular filling, resulting in a smaller stroke volume. Control of rhythm is the initial treatment of choice, followed by anticoagulation with heparin and then coumadin.

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15
Q
15.  You are caring for a patient who converted to ventricular fibrillation (VF). The patient was defibrillated at 200 joules, 300 joules, and 360 joules, respectively. The patient remains in VF. According to national standards, you are aware that what medication should be used?
A)  Epinephrine 1 mg IV push
B)  Lidocaine 100 mg IV push
C)  Amiodarone 300 mg IV push
D)  Sodium bicarbonate 1 amp IV push
A
Ans:  A
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-1
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  8
Page and Header:  736, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: Epinephrine should be administered as soon as possible after the second rhythm check (immediately before or after the second defibrillation) and then every 3 to 5 minutes to make it easier to convert the dysrythmia to a normal sinus rhythm with defribrillation. Epinephrine may also increase cerebral and coronary artery blood flow. Antiarrhythmic medications such as amiodarone and licocaine are given if ventricular dysrhythmia persists.

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16
Q
  1. The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a patient with a newly inserted permanent pacemaker. What would be important for the nurse to teach this patient?
    A) Start lifting the arm above the shoulder right away to prevent shoulder restriction
    B) Avoid cooking with a microwave oven
    C) Avoid exposure to high-voltage electrical generators
    D) Avoid walking through store and library antitheft devices
A
Ans:  C
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-3
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Teaching/Learning
Objective:  6
Page and Header:  746, Adjunctive Modalities and Management

Feedback: High-output electrical generators can reprogram pacemakers and should be avoided. Recent pacemaker technology allows patients to safely use most household electronic appliances and devices (eg, microwave ovens). The affected arm should not be raised above the shoulder for 1 week following placement of the pacemaker. Antitheft alarms may be triggered so patients should be taught to walk through them quickly and avoid standing in or near these devices. These alarms generally do not interfere with pacemaker function.

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17
Q
  1. A patient is brought to the emergency department who is experiencing symptomatic sinus bradycardia. The nurse caring for this patient is aware the medication of choice for treatment of this dysrhythmia is the administration of atropine. What guidelines will the nurse follow when administering atropine?
    A) Administer atropine 0.5 mg rapidly as an IV bolus every 3 to 5 minutes to a maximum total dose of 3 mg
    B) Administer atropine 0.5 mg slowly as an IV bolus every minute to a maximum total dose of 3 mg
    C) Administer atropine 1.0 mg rapidly as an IV bolus every 3 to 5 minutes to a maximum total dose of 3 mg
    D) Administer atropine 1.0 mg slowly as an IV bolus every minute to a maximum total dose of 3 mg
A
Ans:  A
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-2
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Difficult
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  4
Page and Header:  726, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: Atropine 0.5 mg given rapidly as an intravenous (IV) bolus every 3 to 5 minutes to a maximum total dose of 3 mg is the medication of choice in treating symptomatic sinus bradycardia. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect.

18
Q
  1. A patient you are caring for has had an ECG ordered. What do you need to do prior to electrode placement?
    A) Clean the skin with providone-iodine solution prior to applying the electrodes
    B) Ensure that the area for electrode placement is dry
    C) Apply tincture of benzoin to the electrode sites and wait for it to become “tacky”
    D) Abrade the skin by rubbing the electrode sites briskly with a rough surface such as a clean dry gauze/washcloth
A
Ans:  D
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-1
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Easy
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  2
Page and Header:  721, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: An ECG is obtained by slightly abrading the skin with a clean dry gauze pad and placing electrodes on the body at specific areas. The abrading of skin will enhance signal transmission.

19
Q
19.  The nurse is caring for a patient with a tachydysrhythmia. The nurse would teach and prepare the patient for which of the following procedures?
A)  Catheter ablation therapy
B)  Transubcutaneous pacemaker
C)  Cardioversion
D)  Implantable cardiac device
A
Ans:  A
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-1
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Teaching/Learning
Objective:  10
Page and Header:  733, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: Catheter ablation therapy uses radiofrequency energy to ablate or burn accessory pathways or ectopic sites in the atria, AV node, or ventricles that cause tachyarrhythmias

20
Q
  1. You are an emergency-department nurse caring for a patient who has gone into cardiac arrest. You are performing external defibrillation. Which of the following is a vital step in the procedure?
    A) Gel pads are placed anterior over the apex and posterior for better conduction
    B) No one is to be touching the patient at the time shock is delivered
    C) Continue to ventilate the patient via endotracheal tube during the procedure
    D) Second shock cannot be administered for 1 minute to allow recharging
A
Ans:  B
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  A-2
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Moderate
Integrated Process:  Nursing Process
Objective:  8
Page and Header:  742, Adjunctive Modalities and Management

Feedback: In external defibrillation, both paddles may be placed on the front of the chest, which is the standard paddle placement. Whether using pads, or paddles, the nurse must observe two safety measures. First, maintain good contact between the pads or paddles and the patient’s skin to prevent leaking. Second, ensure that no one is in contact with the patient or with anything that is touching the patient when the defibrillator is discharged, to minimize the chance that electrical current will be conducted to anyone other than the patient. Ventilation should be stopped during defibrillation.

21
Q
  1. A group of new nurses is going to work on the telemetry unit. They are taking a class on ECGs and arrhythmias. What would the staff educator tell this class about ST segments?
    A) The part of an ECG that reflects repolarization of the ventricles
    B) The part of an ECG used to calculate ventricular rate and rhythm
    C) The part of an ECG that reflects the time from ventricular depolarization through repolarization
    D) The part of an ECG that reflects the end of the QRS complex to the beginning of the T wave
A
Ans:  D
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  A-1
Cognitive Level:  Analysis
Difficulty:  Difficult
Integrated Process:  Teaching/Learning
Objective:  1
Page and Header:  724, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: ST segment is the part of an ECG that reflects the end of the QRS complex to the beginning of the T wave. The part of an ECG that reflects repolarization of the ventricles is the T wave. The part of an ECG used to calculate ventricular rate and rhythm is the RR interval. The part of an ECG that reflects the time from ventricular depolarization through repolarization is the QT interval.

22
Q
  1. You work on a unit that provides care to patients who have had either a pacemaker or an implantable cardioverter defibrillator placed. A student nurse asks what the criteria are to determine which device the patient has implanted. What should be your response?
    A) “Patients with CAD and an elevated ejection fraction receive the ICD.”
    B) “Patients with an arrhythmia and a reduced afterload receive the ICD.”
    C) “Patients with arrhythmia and an increased afterload receive the ICD.”
    D) “Patients with CAD and a reduced ejection fraction receive the ICD.”
A
Ans:  D
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-4
Cognitive Level:  Application
Difficulty:  Difficult
Integrated Process:  Teaching/Learning
Objective:  9
Page and Header:  747, Adjunctive Modalities and Management

Feedback: Pacemaker technology also may be used in an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (eg, in patients with coronary artery disease and a reduced ejection fraction).

23
Q
  1. There are new nurses on the telemetry unit who have been paired with preceptors for their first 8 weeks on the unit. One new nurse asks her preceptor to explain depolarization. What would be the best answer by the preceptor?
    A) “Depolarization is the mechanical contraction of the heart muscles.”
    B) “Depolarization is the electrical stimulation of the heart muscles.”
    C) “Depolarization is the electrical relaxation of the heart muscles.”
    D) “Depolarization is the mechanical relaxation of the heart muscles.”
A
Ans:  B
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  D-4
Cognitive Level:  Analysis
Difficulty:  Difficult
Integrated Process:  Teaching/Learning
Objective:  1
Page and Header:  721, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: The electrical stimulation is called depolarization, and the mechanical contraction is called systole. Electrical relaxation is called repolarization, and mechanical relaxation is called diastole. This makes options A, C, and D incorrect.

24
Q
  1. While learning about the cardiovascular system in the prenursing anatomy and physiology class, the students are studying positive chronotropy. What is this?
    A) The force of myocardial contraction
    B) The constriction of peripheral blood vessels
    C) Conduction through the AV node
    D) Stimulation of the sympathetic system that increases heart rate
A
Ans:  D
Chapter:  27
Client Needs:  A-1
Cognitive Level:  Analysis
Difficulty:  Difficult
Integrated Process:  Teaching/Learning
Objective:  1
Page and Header:  721, Dysrhythmias

Feedback: The heart rate is influenced by the autonomic nervous system, which consists of sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers. Sympathetic nerve fibers (also referred to as adrenergic fibers) are attached to the heart and arteries as well as several other areas in the body. Stimulation of the sympathetic system increases heart rate (positive chronotropy), conduction through the AV node (positive dromotropy), and the force of myocardial contraction (positive inotropy). Sympathetic stimulation also constricts peripheral blood vessels, therefore increasing blood pressure. Parasympathetic nerve fibers are also attached to the heart and arteries. Parasympathetic stimulation reduces the heart rate (negative chronotropy), AV conduction (negative dromotropy), and the force of atrial myocardial contraction. The decreased sympathetic stimulation results in dilation of arteries, thereby lowering blood pressure.

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``` 25. You are caring for a patient with refractory atrial fibrillation. What would be the treatment of choice for this patient? A) Ablation therapy B) The maze procedure C) ICD implantation D) Pacemaker implantation ```
``` Ans: B Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-4 Cognitive Level: Application Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Caring Objective: 2 Page and Header: 752, Adjunctive Modalities and Management ``` Feedback: The maze procedure is an open-heart surgical procedure for refractory atrial fibrillation. The other options are incorrect because they would not be done on a patient with refractory atrial fibrillation.
26
``` 26. Ablation therapy is used for recurrent atrial dysrhythmias. It is also used to correct what? A) Postexcitation syndromes B) Pre-excitiation syndromes C) C Ventricular conduction errors D) Bradycardias ```
``` Ans: B Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-3 Cognitive Level: Comprehension Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning Objective: 10 Page and Header: 753, Adjunctive Modalities and Management ``` Feedback: Ablation is also indicated to eliminate accessory AV pathways or bypass tracts that exist in the hearts of patients with pre-excitation syndromes such as Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. Ablation therapy is not used for postexcitation syndromes, ventricular conduction errors, or bradycardias.
27
``` 27. Where does bradycardia originate? A) AV node B) Bundle of HIS C) SA node D) Purkinje fibers ```
``` Ans: C Chapter: 27 Client Needs: A-1 Cognitive Level: Knowledge Difficulty: Easy Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning Objective: 3 Page and Header: 721, Dysrhythmias ``` Feedback: An impulse that originates in the sinoatrial (SA) node and at a slow rate is called sinus bradycardia. Bradycardia does not originate in the AV node, the Bundle of HIS, or the Purkinje fibers.
28
``` 28. You are caring for a patient on telemetry. The patient's ECG shows a shortened PR interval, slurring of the initial QRS deflection, and prolonged QRS duration. What does this ECG show? A) Sick sinus syndrome B) Dying heart syndrome C) Lupus-like syndrome D) Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome ```
``` Ans: D Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-4 Cognitive Level: Analysis Difficulty: Difficult Integrated Process: Caring Objective: 3 Page and Header: 753, Adjunctive Modalities and Management ``` Feedback: In WPW syndrome there is a shortened PR interval, slurring (called a delta wave) of the initial QRS deflection, and prolonged QRS duration. Therefore options A, B, and C are incorrect.
29
29. A patient is undergoing pre-operative teaching before his cardiac surgery. The nurse explains that a temporary pacemaker will be placed later that day, and it will be removed after the surgery. The patient asks the nurse what will happen if the pacemaker quits functioning. What is the nurse's best response? A) “Monitoring for pacemaker malfunctioning and battery failure is something the nurse caring for you does.” B) “Monitoring for pacemaker malfunctioning and battery failure is something the technician down the hall does.” C) “Monitoring for pacemaker malfunctioning and battery failure is what the secretary at the nurse's station does.” D) “Monitoring for pacemaker malfunctioning and battery failure is something the physician caring for you does when he makes rounds every day.”
``` Ans: A Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-3 Cognitive Level: Application Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation Objective: 7 Page and Header: 749, Adjunctive Modalities and Management ``` Feedback: Monitoring for pacemaker malfunctioning and battery failure is a nursing responsibility. Options B, C, and D are incorrect answers to the patient's question.
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``` 30. The nurse caring for a patient in third-degree AV block knows that atropine is not indicated for this patient. What might be the treatment of choice for this patient? A) Implanted pacemaker B) Trancutaneous pacemaker C) ICD D) Asynchronous defibrillator ```
``` Ans: B Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-3 Cognitive Level: Comprehension Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Nursing Process Objective: 4 Page and Header: 739, Dysrhythmias ``` Feedback: The initial treatment of choice is an IV bolus of atropine, although it is not effective in second-degree AV block, type II, or third-degree AV block. If the patient does not respond to atropine, has advanced AV block, or has had an acute MI, temporary transcutaneous pacing may be started.
31
``` 31. You are caring for a patient who has a dysrhythmic event. You would do a physical assessment to confirm data obtained from the health history and to look for signs of diminished cardiac output. What would you especially assess for? A) Decreased blood pressure B) Increased pulse rate C) Changes in LOC D) Delusions ```
``` Ans: C Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-4 Cognitive Level: Application Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Caring Objective: 5 Page and Header: 739, Dysrhythmias ``` Feedback: The nurse conducts a physical assessment to confirm the data obtained from the history and to observe for signs of diminished cardiac output during the dysrhythmic event, especially changes in level of consciousness. The blood pressure and pulse rate are always part of a physical assessment. You would not assess for delusions in these patients.
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``` 32. A patient is brought to the emergency department by the paramedics. The patient is in cardiac arrest. The patient is revived and placed in a state of mild hypothermia before being transferred to the cardiac intensive care unit. The nurse caring for this patient knows to monitor this patient for what? (Mark all that apply.) A) Acute cardiac syndrome B) Neuromuscular paralysis C) Myoclonus D) Shivering E) Excited sinus rhythm ```
``` Ans: B, C, D Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-4 Cognitive Level: Application Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Caring Objective: 5 Page and Header: 736, Dysrhythmias Feedback: The nurse caring for a patient with hypothermia (passive or induced) needs to monitor for appropriate level of cooling, sedation, and neuromuscular paralysis to prevent seizures; myoclonus; and shivering. Just because a patient is hypothermic does not mean you monitor him for acute cardiac syndrome. Excited sinus rhythm is a distracter for this question. ```
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``` 33. You are caring for a patient who has had a biventricular pacemaker implanted. What type of therapy is this called? A) Resynchronization B) Defibrillation C) Desynchronization D) Ablation ```
``` Ans: A Chapter: 27 Client Needs: A-1 Cognitive Level: Comprehension Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning Objective: 6 Page and Header: 743, Adjunctive Modalities and Management ``` Feedback: Biventricular (both ventricles) pacing, also called resynchronization therapy, may be used to treat advanced heart failure that does not respond to medication. This type of pacing therapy is not called defibrillation, desynchronization, or ablation therapy.
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``` 34. The nursing instructor is teaching the junior nursing class about the management of patients with dysrhythmias and conduction problems. When teaching about the postoperative care of a patient with an implantable pacemaker, what assessment would be a priority? A) Temperature B) Pulse C) Blood pressure D) Respiratory rate ```
``` Ans: B Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-3 Cognitive Level: Analysis Difficulty: Difficult Integrated Process: Caring Objective: 6 Page and Header: 749, Adjunctive Modalities and Management ``` Feedback: For patients with pacemakers, check pulse daily. Report immediately any sudden slowing or increasing of the pulse rate. This may indicate pacemaker malfunction. Temperature, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important to assess, but the pulse is the priority assessment.
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35. You work in a cardiology clinic, and you are assessing a patient who had a pacemaker implanted 6 weeks ago. What would be important for you to assess this patient for? A) Ineffective intake related to fear of having to much blood B) Inadequate exercise related to fear of pacemaker failure C) Inadequate support system related to living alone D) Ineffective coping with the implantation
``` Ans: D Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-4 Cognitive Level: Application Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Nursing Process Objective: 7 Page and Header: 749, Adjunctive Modalities and Management ``` Feedback: The patient is also assessed for anxiety, depression, or anger, which may be symptoms of ineffective coping with the implantation
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36. You are caring for a patient who has had and ICD implanted. The patient has developed VT. What should you note? A) ECG to compare time of onset of VT and onset of device's shock B) ECG so physician can see what type of dysrhythmia the patient has C) Time of shock and result of shock D) Patient's activity at time of dysrhythmia
``` Ans: A Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-3 Cognitive Level: Application Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Caring Objective: 7 Page and Header: 749, Adjunctive Modalities and Management ``` Feedback: If the patient has an ICD implanted and develops VT (ventricular fibrillation), the ECG should be recorded to note the time between the onset of the dysrhythmia and the onset of the device's shock or antitachycardia pacing. You would not record the patient's activity at the time of the shock.
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37. The staff educator is teaching a CPR class. What is an important aspect of defibrillating that the educator stresses to their class? A) Use a conducting sheet between the paddles and the skin B) Use a conducting medium between the multifunction paddles and the skin C) Always use a squeeze on gel between the paddles and the skin D) You can use any gel or paste between the paddles and the skin
``` Ans: B Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-4 Cognitive Level: Application Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning Objective: 8 Page and Header: 742, Adjunctive Modalities and Management ``` Feedback: Use multifunction conductor pads or paddles with a conducting medium between the paddles and the skin (the conducting medium is available as a sheet, gel, or paste). Do not use gels or pastes with poor electrical conductivity. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect.
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``` 38. During a CPR, class a student in the class asks what the difference is between cardioversion and defibrillation. What would be the nurse's best response? A) “Cardioversion is done on a beating heart, defibrillation is not.” B) “The difference is the timing of the delivery of the electric current.” C) “Defibrillation is synchronized with the electrical activity of the heart, cardioversion is not.” D) “Cardioversion is always attempted before defibrillation because it is not as dangerous.” ```
``` Ans: B Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-4 Cognitive Level: Analysis Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning Objective: 9 Page and Header: 741, Adjunctive Modalities and Management ``` Feedback: One major difference between cardioversion and defibrillation is the timing of the delivery of electrical current. In cardioversion, the delivery of the electrical current is synchronized with the patient's electrical events; in defibrillation, the delivery of the current is immediate and unsynchronized. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect.
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39. A patient is admitted to your unit for an electrophysiology (EP) study. Why is an electrophysiology study performed? A) Abliterate the area causing the dysrhythmia B) Freeze hypersensitive cells C) Diagnose the dysrhythmia D) Determine the nursing plan of care
``` Ans: C Chapter: 27 Client Needs: A-1 Cognitive Level: Comprehension Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning Objective: 10 Page and Header: 722, Dysrhythmias ``` Feedback: A patient may undergo an electrophysiology (EP) study in which electrodes are placed inside the heart to obtain an intracardiac ECG. This is used not only to diagnose the dysrhythmia but also to determine the most effective treatment plan. However, because an EP study is invasive, it is performed in the hospital and may require that the patient be admitted.
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40. A patient calls his cardiologist's office and talks to the nurse. He is concerned because he feels he is being defibrillated too often. The nurse tells the patient to come in to the office to be evaluated because the nurse knows that the most frequent complication of ICD therapy is what? A) Infection B) Failure to capture C) Premature battery depletion D) Oversensing of atrial and sinus tachycardias with a rapid ventricular rate response
``` Ans: D Chapter: 27 Client Needs: D-4 Cognitive Level: Comprehension Difficulty: Moderate Integrated Process: Nursing Process Objective: 9 Page and Header: 748, Adjunctive Modalities and Management ``` Feedback: Inappropriate delivery of ICD therapy, usually due to oversensing of atrial and sinus tachycardias with a rapid ventricular rate response, is the most frequent complication.