dsd Flashcards

1
Q

What is management described as?

A

An art, both science and art, a science, neither art nor science

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2
Q

How is engineering defined?

A

Refers to the activity combining technical knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate worker power, materials, machinery and money

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3
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a function of an engineer?

A

Physical education

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4
Q

What function of an engineer involves learning about nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories?

A

Research

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5
Q

What function of an engineer turns a product concept into a finished physical term?

A

Manufacturing

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6
Q

What function of an engineer tests new products or parts for workability?

A

Testing

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7
Q

What function of an engineer involves being in charge of production personnel?

A

Manufacturing

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8
Q

What function of an engineer is related to managing construction personnel?

A

Construction

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9
Q

Which function assists customers to meet their needs requiring technical expertise?

A

Consulting

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10
Q

What role involves working as a consultant for individuals or organizations?

A

Consulting

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11
Q

What function allows an engineer to work in government regulating activities?

A

Government

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12
Q

What function involves teaching engineering courses?

A

Teaching

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13
Q

What function involves managing groups of people performing specific tasks?

A

Management

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14
Q

Engineers can become good managers only through _______.

A

[Experience, taking a master’s degree in management, effective career planning, trainings]

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15
Q

If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what should you do?

A

Develop new talents, acquire new values, broaden your point of view, all of the above

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16
Q

What is a common problem engineers face when entering management?

A

Learning to trust others

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17
Q

What planning activity is undertaken at the middle management level?

A

Intermediate planning

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18
Q

Strategic planning is undertaken at which management level?

A

Top management level

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19
Q

What management function anticipates problems and determines actions to achieve goals?

A

Planning

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20
Q

What refers to establishing interrelationships to achieve company goals?

A

Organizing

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21
Q

What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?

A

Staffing

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22
Q

What management function involves orienting personnel and channeling resources?

A

Directing

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23
Q

What action is taken when actual performance deviates from the original plan?

A

Controlling

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24
Q

What management function encourages others to follow an example with commitment?

A

Leading

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25
Q

What principal function of lower management instills commitment in the workforce?

A

Motivating

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26
Q

What is the collection of tools and techniques used to produce predefined outputs?

A

Project management

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27
Q

Which is NOT an element of the project management process?

A

Search and development

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28
Q

What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?

A

Leadership

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29
Q

What model provides effective means of monitoring a project at each stage?

A

Life cycle model

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30
Q

What project life cycle model is most relevant for information technology projects?

A

Waterfall model

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31
Q

In project management, R & D stands for _______.

A

[Research and development]

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32
Q

In project management, O & M stands for _______.

A

[Operation and maintenance]

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33
Q

A project manager must be very good in which skills?

A

Communication skills, human relationship skills, leadership skills, all of the above

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34
Q

Project integration management involves which processes?

A

Project plan development, project plan execution, integrated change control

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35
Q

Which process does project quality management NOT involve?

A

Quality feature

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36
Q

What organizational structure specializes in specific functional areas?

A

Functional organization

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37
Q

What type of organization assigns each project to a single organizational unit?

A

Product organization

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38
Q

What organizational structure balances the use of human resources and skills?

A

Matrix organization

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39
Q

In which organization can the ‘dual boss’ phenomenon occur?

A

Matrix organization

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40
Q

What is an advantage of a matrix organization?

A

Adaptation to changing environment

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41
Q

What is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?

A

Conflicts between project and functional managers

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42
Q

What is an advantage of a projectized organization?

A

Single point for customer contact

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43
Q

What is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?

A

Uncertain technical direction

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44
Q

What is an advantage of a functional organization?

A

Career continuity and growth of technical personnel

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45
Q

What is a disadvantage of a functional organization?

A

Weaker customer interface

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46
Q

In what type of organization is the project manager responsible for project completion?

A

Projectized organization

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47
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor in selecting an organizational structure?

A

Customer relation

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48
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring successful project completion?

A

Project manager

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49
Q

Who is responsible for running a department efficiently?

A

Functional manager

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50
Q

What does CPM stand for in network techniques?

A

Critical path method

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51
Q

What does PERT stand for in network techniques?

A

Program evaluation review technique

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52
Q

What network model uses only one time factor per activity?

A

Critical path method

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53
Q

What network model uses three time estimates for each activity?

A

Program evaluation review technique

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54
Q

What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM in project management?

A

They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling project

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55
Q

Which of the following is NOT a measure of effectiveness of a safety program?

A

HAZOP

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56
Q

How do toxicants enter organisms?

A

Ingestion, injection, inhalation, all of the above

57
Q

The lowest value on the response vs dose curve is called _______.

A

[Threshold limit value]

58
Q

Identification, evaluation and control are phases of _______.

A

[Safety program]

59
Q

What is fire defined as?

A

Rapid oxidation of ignited fuel

60
Q

What is a rapid increase in volume and release of energy called?

61
Q

What is the lowest temperature that vapors of a material will ignite?

A

Flash point

62
Q

What type of explosion occurs within a vessel or building?

A

Confined explosion

63
Q

What causes overpressure?

A

Both ambient heat and valve failures

64
Q

Which statement about material handling is wrong?

A

Environmental risk assessments should not be available

65
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring workers have a safe working environment?

66
Q

What does PHA stand for?

A

Process hazard analysis

67
Q

Which of the following is NOT a guide word of HAZOP?

68
Q

What does HAZAN study involve?

A

All of the above

69
Q

What is the process of adding inert gas to a combustible mixture called?

70
Q

What determines whether exposure to a chemical increases adverse health effects?

A

Hazard identification

71
Q

What does hazard define?

A

The probability of suffering harm or loss

72
Q

What occurs when a tank containing liquid above its boiling point ruptures?

A

Boiling-liquid expanding-vapor explosion

73
Q

What is the speed of the reaction front in deflagration?

A

Less than the speed of sound

74
Q

What does MIE depend on?

A

All of the above

75
Q

What explosion results from sudden failure of a vessel containing high-pressure gas?

A

Mechanical explosion

76
Q

What are the essential elements for fire?

A

Fuel, oxidizer, ignition source

77
Q

What is toxicity equivalence factor?

A

Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another structurally related chemical chosen as a reference

78
Q

What does OSHA ensure for employees?

A

Safe workplace

79
Q

What does ED stand for?

A

Effective dose

80
Q

Eco-toxicology is based on the _______ of chemicals.

A

[Toxicological]

81
Q

During which phase are existing control measures studied?

A

Evaluation

82
Q

What establishes the relationship between contaminants and the receptor?

A

Risk characterization

83
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hazardous waste?

84
Q

What is known as the results from long-term exposure to lower doses of a chemical?

A

Chronic toxicity

85
Q

What chemical is responsible for acute lung disease from the Bhopal gas tragedy?

A

Methylisocyanate

86
Q

Heavy metals like arsenic and cadmium affect the _______.

A

[Nervous system]

87
Q

What represents a contact between a chemical agent and an object?

88
Q

Under the OSH Act, employees are responsible for providing _______.

A

[Safe workplace]

89
Q

What was the purpose of OSHA?

A

Reduce hazards

90
Q

How is sensitivity analyzed in risk estimation?

A

By critical assumptions

91
Q

Metals come under which class of fire?

92
Q

An incident is called hazardous when it _______.

A

[Has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems]

93
Q

What is the purpose of ventilation in a hazardous environment?

A

To dilute toxic vapors with air

94
Q

How is sensitivity analysed in risk estimation?

A

By critical assumptions

This refers to evaluating the impact of key assumptions on risk outcomes.

95
Q

Metals come under which class of fire?

A

class D

Class D fires involve combustible metals.

96
Q

An incident can be called hazardous only when?

A

stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems

This emphasizes the need for potential harm for classification as hazardous.

97
Q

The purpose of ventilation is to dilute the _______ with air to prevent explosion and to confine the _______ mixtures.

A

toxic vapors; flammable

Proper ventilation is crucial for safety in environments with hazardous chemicals.

98
Q

Each chemical family should be separated from all other chemical families by an approved non-combustible partition or by distance of _______ ft.

A

Twenty

This is a standard safety measure in chemical storage.

99
Q

While storing chemicals in store rooms the care must be taken for the leaks, spills and _______.

A

drips

Monitoring for drips is essential to prevent contamination and hazards.

100
Q

Prevent chemicals from running down sink, flow or _______.

A

storm water drains

This is important to prevent environmental contamination.

101
Q

An inerting system is required to maintain an inert atmosphere in the _______ above the liquid.

A

vapour space

Inerting systems help prevent reactions that could lead to explosions.

102
Q

Vacuum purging is a common procedure for which of the following?

A

Storage vessels

Vacuum purging is used to remove gases and vapors from storage.

103
Q

Probability of the event that might occur X severity of the event if it occurs = _______.

A

Risk

This formula is fundamental in risk assessment.

104
Q

Check list for Job Safety Analysis (JSA) consists of _______.

A

Men, machine, work area, tools

This is crucial for ensuring safety in the workplace.

105
Q

Which of the following does not constitute the foundation of ethics?

A

courtesy

The foundation of ethics includes honesty, justice, and integrity.

106
Q

What is defined as a legally binding agreement or premise to exchange goods and services?

A

contract

A contract outlines the terms agreed upon by the parties involved.

107
Q

What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values that are morally desirable in engineering practice and research?

A

engineering ethics

Engineering ethics addresses moral issues in the engineering profession.

108
Q

What refers to situations in which moral reasons come into conflict, or in which the application of moral values is problematic?

A

moral dilemmas

Moral dilemmas challenge individuals to weigh conflicting ethical principles.

109
Q

What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the profession, and as represented by a professional society?

A

code of ethics

The code of ethics guides professional conduct in engineering.

110
Q

A contract can be terminated with which of the following reasons?

A

all of the above

Reasons include death of a party, failure of consideration, and mutual agreement.

111
Q

What refers to a statement of fact made by one party to the other before the contract is made?

A

a representation

This can influence the decision to enter into a contract.

112
Q

What refers to a fundamental obligation under the contract which goes to the root of the contract?

A

condition

Conditions are essential for the contract’s enforceability.

113
Q

What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person of his property, emotional well-being or reputation?

A

tort

Tort law addresses civil wrongs and provides remedies.

114
Q

It is copying of one’s written research without acknowledging the author.

A

plagiarism

Plagiarism is a serious ethical violation in academia.

115
Q

It is also known as the Toxic Substances and Hazardous Nuclear Wastes Control Act of 1990 is also known as _______.

A

RA 6969

This act regulates hazardous substances in the Philippines.

116
Q

Meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect to the other to give something or to render.

A

contract

This is a fundamental concept in contract law.

117
Q

Initial step in the formation of a contract.

A

offer

An offer is a proposal to enter into a contract.

118
Q

The person who uses an invention for profit without the permission of the inventor is known as _______.

A

infringer

Infringers violate intellectual property rights.

119
Q

What government agency supervises the Bureau of Patents, Trademarks and Technology transfer?

A

DTI

The Department of Trade and Industry oversees intellectual property matters.

120
Q

What is an Order or Writ to secure the attendance of witnesses in connection with any administrative case before the Board of Chemical Engineering?

A

subpoena

A subpoena compels witnesses to testify.

121
Q

What is the existing integrated and accredited national organization of registered Chemical Engineers?

A

Philippine Institution of Chemical Engineers, Inc.

This organization represents the profession in the Philippines.

122
Q

This document may be issued by the Board of Chemical Engineering to a person for advanced studies and major accomplishments in research in chemical engineering.

A

certificate of recognition

Recognition certificates acknowledge professional achievements.

123
Q

An industrial plant may be considered as _______.

A

any entity that utilizes unit processes and unit operations

This definition encompasses various types of industrial facilities.

124
Q

An integrated national professional organization that is duly accredited and recognized by the corresponding Board and the PRC is referred to as _______.

A

Accredited Professional Organization

Such organizations are vital for professional standards.

125
Q

Which of the following is not included in the powers and duties of the Board of Chemical Engineering?

A

issue warrant of arrest for violators of RA 9297

The Board focuses on regulation and oversight rather than law enforcement.

126
Q

The Board of Chemical Engineering shall complete the correction of examination papers within _______ days from the last day of examination.

A

20

Timely correction ensures fairness in the examination process.

127
Q

It refers to that field of chemistry dealing with the synthesis, processing and use of chemicals that reduce the risks to humans and the environment.

A

Green Chemistry

Green chemistry aims to minimize harmful impacts on health and the environment.

128
Q

Vibration and radiations come under _______.

A

physical hazards

Physical hazards pose risks to safety and health.

129
Q

The warning sign below represents _______.

A

risk of fire

Warning signs are crucial for safety awareness.

130
Q

The shape of warning sign is _______.

A

triangular

Triangular signs typically indicate warnings or hazards.

131
Q

Prohibition signs are made in _______ shape.

A

circular

Circular signs indicate prohibitions.

132
Q

Which type of hard hat would provide the most protection from electrical hazards?

A

class E

Class E hard hats are designed for electrical protection.

133
Q

The type of eye protection that should be used to guard against dust particles is:

A

Goggles

Goggles provide a secure fit and protect against dust and debris.

134
Q

The class of hard hat that provides no voltage protection is:

A

Class C

Class C hard hats are not rated for electrical protection.

135
Q

Which of the following is not a hazard symbol pictogram?

A

Question Mark

Hazard symbols are standardized for safety communication.

136
Q

Class C fire extinguishers are for:

A

Electrical fire

Class C extinguishers are specifically designed for electrical fires.

137
Q

PASS stands for _______.

A

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

This acronym is used for fire extinguisher operation.

138
Q

The color used in construction safety signs usually is _______.

A

Orange

Orange is commonly used for caution in construction zones.

139
Q

Which one if right for fire extinguisher inspection?

A

All of the above

Regular inspections ensure fire extinguishers are functional and safe.