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Neuropharmacology > Drugs only > Flashcards

Drugs only Flashcards

1
Q

Procaine

A
  1. Local anesthetic
  2. Prototype drug
  3. Ester = metabolism in blood
  4. Shortest duration of action
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2
Q

Lidocaine

A
  1. Local anesthetic
  2. Most commonly used LA
  3. Amide = metabolism in liver
  4. Also antiarrhythmic
  5. Epinephrine prevents washout (vasoconstriction)
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3
Q

Procainamide

A
  1. Local anesthetic
  2. Similar to procaine
  3. Longer duration of action
  4. Amide = metabolism in liver
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4
Q

Benzocaine

A
  1. Local anesthetic
  2. Longest duration of action
    = highly lipophilic
  3. Ester = metabolism in blood
  4. Do NOT use in cats
    =methemoglobinemia
  5. PABA risk
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5
Q

Acetylpromazine

A

Major tranquilizer

  1. Phenothiazine group
  2. Most common sedative used
  3. Works well with Ketamine
  4. Immobalin = Acetylpromazine & Etorphine
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6
Q

Droperidol

A

Major tranquilizer

  1. Butyrophenone group
  2. Most potent antiemetic = blocks apomorphine
  3. Prevents motion sickness
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7
Q

Reserpine

A

Major tranquilizer

  1. Unique drug
  2. Blocks reuptake of D, NE & S
  3. Used in research to cause sympathectomy
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8
Q

Diazepam

A

Minor tranquilizer

  1. Benzodiazepine group
  2. Known as Valium
  3. First choice for status epilepticus
  4. Good for use in cats
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9
Q

Midazolan

A

Minor tranquilizer

  1. Benzodiazepine group
  2. Similar to diazepam
  3. Used in small animal medicine
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10
Q

Flumazenil

A

Minor tranquilizer

1. Diazepam antagonist = blocks receptor

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11
Q

Guaifenesin

A

Minor tranquilizer

  1. Benzodiazepine group
  2. Used in equine field medicine
  3. Important analgesic activity
  4. Risk = overdose looks like underdose
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12
Q

Xylazine

A 
Minor tranquilizer
1. Benzodiazepine group
2. Unique mechanism of action
Alpha2-adrenergic receptor agonist 
3. Important analgesic activity
4. Good emetic in felines 
5. Do NOT use in trauma cases
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13
Q

Chloral hydrate

A

Minor tranquilizer

  1. Unique drug combined with 3 alcohol
  2. General CNS depressant
  3. NO skeletal muscle relaxation
  4. Used in horses
  5. Risk for arrhythmias
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14
Q

Ethanol

A

Alcohol

  1. Potentiates GABA receptor activity
  2. Can relax sow to nurse
  3. Risk for acidosis
  4. Impractical treatment for methanol and ethylene glycol toxicity
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15
Q

Methanol

A

Alcohol

  1. Toxicity risk
  2. Formaldehyde is a metabolite
  3. Damages retina
  4. Treatment = antizole
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16
Q

Ethylene glycol

A

Alcohol

  1. Non-toxic BUT toxic metabolites
  2. Oxalic acid = precipitates Ca in kidneys
  3. Treatment = Disulfiram (antabuse)
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17
Q

Theophylline & Theobromine

A

Stimulant

  1. Methylxanthines
  2. Antagonist at adenosine A2 receptors
  3. Increases activity in the CORTEX
  4. Used to treat asthma and increase GFR
  5. Risk for arrhythmias & tachycardia
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18
Q

Doxopram

A

Stimulant
1. Increases activity in the MEDULLA
2. Used as a short term respiratory stimulant
= analeptic drug

19
Q

Strychnine

A

Stimulant

  1. Alkaloid toxin
  2. Inhibits Renshaw cells = glycine neurons
  3. Releases motor neurons from tonic inhibition
  4. Extensor rigidity seizures
  5. Three fold action
  6. Treat seizures with diazepam
20
Q

Cocaine

A

Stimulant

  1. LA with vasoconstrictor properties
  2. Metabolism in the plasma
  3. Inhibits monoamine REUPTAKE
  4. Inhibits Sodium channels
21
Q

Diazepam

A

Anticonvulsant

  1. Best choice for
    a. Status epilepticus
    b. Seizures in felines
  2. Increases Cl- channel opening FREQUENCY
  3. Metabolized too fast for use in dogs
22
Q

Phenytoin

A 
Anticonvulsant
1. NOT a general anticonvulsant 
= preventive only
2. Good for dogs not responding to phenobarbital
3. Zero-order = needs loading dose
4. Inhibits Sodium channels = less APs
23
Q

Phenobarbital

A

Anticonvulsant & Barbiturate

  1. Most commonly use preventative
  2. Controlled substance
  3. Increases Cl- channel opening DURATION
  4. Dramatic increase in liver enzymes
24
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Anticonvulsant

  1. NO CNS depression risk
  2. Important analgesic action = neuropathic pain
  3. Action at A1-adenosine receptor
25
Q

Potassium bromide

A

Anticonvulsant

  1. Causes hyperpolarization of neurons
    a. Br- moves faster through channels than Cl-
  2. Risk for vomiting
  3. Treat overdose with NaCl
26
Q

Phenobarbitol (anesthesia)

A

Barbiturate

  1. LEAST lipid soluble = LONG acting
  2. Makes livers heavy = enzymes
  3. Need to dose animals on time!
  4. Termination of action
    a. Redistribution
    b. Metabolism
    c. Excretion
  5. Can be used orally
27
Q

Thiopental

A

Barbiturate

  1. MOST lipid soluble = ULTRA-short acting
  2. Termination of action
    a. Redistribution only!
  3. Second dose lasts much longer than the first
  4. Apnea on IV injection
  5. Risk for hypotension
  6. Unique = does NOT need to be continuously administered
  7. Tolerance can be an issue
28
Q

Ketamine

A

Dissociative

  1. Very short acting
  2. Stings on IM injection
  3. Lots of salivation = needs atropine
  4. Important analgesic effect
29
Q

Phencyclidine

A

Dissociative

  1. Human illegal drug PCP
  2. Very long acting
30
Q

Propofol

A

Dissociative

  1. Oil emulsion at room temperature
  2. Rapid entrance and emergence
  3. Enhances GABA activity indirectly
  4. Transient apnea
  5. Decreased BP & CO = opposite of ketamine
  6. NO analgesia
31
Q

Pentobarbitol

A

Barbiturate

  1. Intermed lipid solubility = SHORT acting
  2. Termination of action
    a. Redistribution
    b. Metabolism
32
Q

Halothane

A

Inhalant Anesthetic

  1. Second in potency to Methoxyflurane
  2. 25% metabolism = Br- HEPATOtoxicity
  3. Increases intracranial pressure
  4. Risk for arrhythmias
  5. Risk for malignant hyperthermia
  6. NO longer used
33
Q

Methoxyflurane

A

Inhalant Anesthetic

  1. Most blood soluble = least lipid soluble
  2. Most potent = lowest MAC value
  3. Slow induction requires NO2
  4. 50% metabolism = F- RENAL toxicity
34
Q

Isoflurane

A

Inhalant Anesthetic

  1. Best muscle relaxant
  2. NOT metabolized = low toxicity
  3. Best choice for critically ill patients
    a. Anticonvulsant
    b. Less increase in intracranial pressure
    c. Less respiratory depression than halothane
    d. Less risk for arrhythmias than halothane
35
Q

Sevoflurane

A

Inhalant Anesthetic

  1. LOWEST potency
  2. Metabolized but little tissue solubility
    a. Enough drug cannot get to the liver
  3. Rapid induction
  4. Requires a preservative
  5. NO risk for arrhythmias
36
Q

Nitrous oxide

A

Inhalant Anesthetic

  1. Used for second gas vacuum effect
  2. Extremely LOW blood and tissue solubility
  3. Mild analgesia
  4. Cannot be used for anesthesia alone = hypoxia
37
Q

Morphine

A

Opioid Analgesic

  1. Prototype drug
  2. NON-selective
  3. Cheapest
  4. Risk for histamine release
  5. Short duration of action
  6. Weak base = NOT good orally
38
Q

Oxymorphone

A

Opioid Analgesic

  1. 10X more potent than morphine
  2. NON-selective
  3. Radiology favorite
    a. Less respiratory depression
    b. More sedation
39
Q

Fentanyl

A

Opioid Analgesic

  1. High potency = 100X morphine
  2. Selective for Mu receptor
  3. Neuroleptanalgesia = Innovar-Vet
    a. Fentanyl & droperidol
40
Q

Pentazocaine

A

Opioid Analgesic

  1. FULL Kappa & PARTIAL Mu & Sigma = dysphoria
  2. 0.3X morphine
  3. Equine colic
41
Q

Butorphanol

A

Opioid Analgesic

  1. Similar to pentazocaine = F. Kappa & P. Mu
  2. More potent = 4-7X morphine
  3. LESS efficacious! = contradictory
  4. Used to reverse morphine resp depression
    a. Preserves analgesic effect
42
Q

Nalorphine

A

Opioid Analgesic

  1. PARTIAL Kappa & competitive antagonist Mu
  2. Reverse opioid respiratory depression
    a. Only at low doses
43
Q

Naloxone

A

Opioid Analgesic

  1. Pure opioid antagonist!
  2. Can reverse effects of both partial & full agonists
44
Q

Tramadol

A

Opioid Analgesic
1. Unique Mu agonist
2. Best for neuropathic pain
3 NO respiratory depression!

Neuropharmacology (2 decks)

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