Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Drugs Not in Lange > Drugs Not in Lange > Flashcards

Drugs Not in Lange Flashcards

1
Q

Pegvisomant

A
  • growth hormone (GH) receptor antagonist

- treatment for acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Conivaptan

A

-ADH inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tolvaptan

A

-ADH inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lispro

A
  • insulin

- rapid acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aspart

A
  • insulin

- rapid acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Glulisine

A
  • insulin

- rapid acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

NPH

A
  • insulin
  • intermediate acting
  • combination of insulin (neg. charge) w/ protamine (pos. charge) such that neither is present in uncomplexed form
  • action is highly unpredictable and clinical use is waning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pramlintide

A
  • amylin analog
  • treats DM1 and DM2
  • decreases gastric emptying
  • decreases glucagon
  • toxicities: hypoglycemia, nausea, diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Triiodothyronine

A
  • thyroxine replacement
  • treatment of hypothyroidism and myxedema
  • toxicity: tachycardia, heat intolerance, tremors, arrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ristocetin

A
  • activates vWF to bind to GpIb

- useful for diagnosis: normal platelet aggregation response is not seen in von Willebrand disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Eculizumab

A
  • monoclonal antibody that is a first-in-class terminal complement inhibitor
  • treats paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cladribine (2-CDA)

A
  • an adenosine analog (inhibits adenosine deaminase)

- treatment for hairy cell leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tenecteplase

A
  • TNK-tPA
  • thrombolytic
  • directly or indirectly aid conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which cleaves thrombin and fibrin clots
  • increase PT and PTT
  • no change in platelet count
  • treatment in early MI, early ischemic stroke, direct thrombolysis of severe PE
  • adverse effect: bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Adriamycin

A
  • similar to doxorubicin and daunorubicin
  • antitumor antibiotic
  • generates free radicals
  • intercalates in DNA –> breaks in DNA –> dec. replication
  • treatment for solid tumors, leukemias, lymphomas
  • toxicity: cardiotoxic (dilated cardiomyopathy), myelosuppresion, alopecia, toxic to tissues following extravasion
  • Dexrazoxane (iron chelating agent) is used to prevent cardiotoxicty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Irinotecan

A
  • inhibit topoisomerase I and prevent DNA unwinding and replication
  • treatment for colon cancer
  • toxicity: severe myelosuppression, diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Topotecan

A
  • inhibit topoisomerase I and prevent DNA unwinding and replication
  • treatment for ovarian cancer and small cell lung cancer (SCLC)
  • toxicity: severe myelosuppression, diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vemurafenib

A
  • small molecule inhibitor of forms of the B-Raf kinase with the V600E mutation
  • treatment for metastatic melanoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bevacizumab

A
  • monoclonal antibody against VEGF
  • inhibits angiogenesis
  • treatment for solid tumors (colorectal cancer, renal cell carcinoma)
  • toxicity: hemorrhage and impaired wound healing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ketorolac

A

-NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Febuxostat

A
  • non-purine inhibitor of xanthine oxidase
  • treatment for gout
  • less side effects than allopurinol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Nimodipine

A

-calcium channel blocker that helps reduce brain damage after a bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cabergoline

A
  • dopamine agonist

- treatment for prolactinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Curare

A
  • alkaloid poison extracted from plants
  • competes with ACh for receptors on the motor end plate
  • decreases size of end plate potential (EPP)
  • maximal doses produce paralysis of respiratory muscles and death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hemicholinium

A
  • blocks reuptake of choline into presynaptic terminal

- depletes ACh stores from presynaptic terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Yohimbine
-alpha-2 antagonist
26
Cyclopentolate
- muscarinic antagonist - used in pediatric eye exams - produces mydriasis and cycloplegia (reduced accommodation) - short acting
27
Darifenacin
- muscarinic antagonist - genitourinary - reduces urgency in mild cystitis and reduces bladder spasms
28
Solifenacin
- muscarinic antagonist - genitourinary - reduces urgency in mild cystitis and reduces bladder spasms
29
Tolterodine
- muscarinic antagonist - genitourinary - reduces urgency in mild cystitis and reduces bladder spasms
30
Trospium
- muscarinic antagonist - genitourinary - reduces urgency in mild cystitis and reduces bladder spasms
31
Glycopyrrolate
- muscarinic antagonist - gastrointestinal, respiratory - parenteral: preoperative use to reduce airway secretions - oral: treats drooling, peptic ulcer
32
Hemicholinium
-blocks choline transport into the presynaptic cleft
33
Vesamicol
-prevents vesicle formation for acetylcholine (ACh)
34
Metyrosine
-blocks tyrosine hydroxylase from converting tyrosine to DOPA
35
alpha-methyldopa
- alpha-2 agonist (sympatholytic) - treats HTN in pregnancy - safe in pregnancy - Toxicity: Direct Coombs positive hemolytic anemia, SLE-like syndrome
36
Fomepizole
- inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase | - an antidote for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning
37
Mexilente
Class IB antiarrhythmic
38
Teriparatide
- PTH analog - given in pulsatile fashion to treat osteoporosis - decreases hip fracture rate by 53% - duration of therapy not to exceed 2 yrs, must use bisphosphonate after stopping PTH to maintain BMD
39
Denosumab
- RANK-L inhibitor that inhibits osteoclast activity | - treatment for osteoporosis
40
Aldesleukin
- recombinant IL-2 - stimulates T cells - treats renal cell carcinoma and metastatic melanoma
41
Sargramostim
- GM-CSF analog | - recovery of bone marrow
42
Filgrasstim
- G-CSF analog | - recovery of bone marrow
43
Epoetin alfa
- recombinant erythropoietin | - treat anemia (especially in renal failure)
44
Oprelvekin
- IL-11 derivative | - used to treat thrombocytopenia
45
IFN-alpha
-used to treat hep B and C; kaposi sarcoma, hairy cell leukemia, condyloma acuminatum, renal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma
46
IFN-beta
-used to treat MS
47
IFN-gamma
-used to treat chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
48
Basiliximab
- monoclonal antibody - blocks IL-2R - used in kidney transplant rejection prophylaxis - toxicity: edema, hypertension, tremor
49
Muromonab
- monoclonal antibody - binds to CD3 on surface of T cells - interferes with T cell signal transduction - used in transplants
50
Daclizumab
- binds to CD25, which is IL-2 receptor on activated T cells - blocks IL-2 signaling - similar to Sirolimus
51
Alemtuzumab
- target is CD52 - used in CLL - on binding of CD52, alemtuzumab initiates a direct cytotoxic effect through complement fixation and antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity
52
Bevacizumab
- target is VEGF | - used in colorectal cancer and renal cell carcinoma
53
Cetuximab
- target is EGFR | - treats stage IV colorectal cancer, head and neck cancer
54
Natalizumab
- target is alpha-4-integrin (necessary for leukocyte adhesion) - prevents leukocyte adhesion - treatment for MS and Crohn disease - risk of PML in patients with JC virus
55
Denosumab
- target is RANKL - treatment of osteoporosis - inhibits osteoclast maturation (mimics osteoprotegrin)
56
Omalizumab
- target is IgE - treatment of severe allergic asthma (very expensive) - prevents IgE binding to Fc-epsilon-R1
57
Palivizumab
- target is RSV F protein | - RSV prophylaxis for high-risk infants
58
Pimecrolimus
- similar to sirolimus - used topically - inhibits calcineurin - binds FK506 bindings protein (FKBP) - blocks T cell activation by preventing IL-2 transcription - rejection prophylaxis - increases risk of diabetes and neurotoxicity
59
Pramipexole
- dopamine agonist - non-ergot (does not cause peripheral vasoconstriction or inc. BP) - preferred over Bromocriptine, which is an ergot dopamine agonist
60
Ropinirole
- dopamine agonist - non-ergot (does not cause peripheral vasoconstriction or inc. BP) - preferred over Bromocriptine, which is an ergot dopamine agonist
61
Entacapone
- COMT inhibitor - prevents dopamine breakdown - prevents L-dopa degradation - often given in conjunction with L-dopa and Carbidopa - increase dopamine availability
62
Tolcapone
- COMT inhibitor - prevents dopamine breakdown - prevents L-dopa degradation - often given in conjunction with L-dopa and Carbidopa - increase dopamine availability

Drugs Not in Lange (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions