Drugs for TB Flashcards

1
Q

What is the percentage of individuals infected with M. tuberculosis that will have containment of the disease?

A

More than 90%

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2
Q

Enumerate at least 4 challenges in treating Mycobacteria.

A

Any four of the following: Grow slowly, resistance to drugs, dormancy, lipid-rich cell wall, intracellular pathogens

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3
Q

Why are antibiotics that are most active against rapidly growing cells relatively ineffective against Mycobacteria?

A

Mycobacteria grow slowly

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4
Q

Why is the lipid-rich cell wall of Mycobacteria a challenge in treatment?

A

It is impermeable to many agents.

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5
Q

What is the approximate number of drug-resistant mutants per Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacillus?

A

1 in 10^6

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6
Q

What are the implications of the fact that some second-line drugs for TB are commonly used antibiotics for URTI and UTI?

A

Overuse of these antibiotics could lead to the development of resistance in M. tuberculosis.

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7
Q

Why is the use of multiple drugs in combination more effective than single-drug therapy for TB?

A

The probability of a bacillus being resistant to multiple drugs is much lower than the probability of it being resistant to a single drug.

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8
Q

What is the probability of a Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacillus being resistant to both isoniazid and rifampicin?

A

1 in 10^12

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9
Q

For how long should isoniazid and rifampicin be administered to cure 95-98% of pulmonary TB caused by susceptible strains?

A

9 months

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10
Q

What is the effect of adding pyrazinamide to isoniazid and rifampicin therapy for the first 2 months?

A

It shortens the treatment duration to 6 months.

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11
Q

What is the effect of adding ethambutol to the standard isoniazid and rifampicin regimen?

A

It does not shorten treatment but increases coverage for resistance.

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12
Q

Which TB subpopulation is targeted by streptomycin?

A

TB subpopulations inside cavities

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13
Q

Why is pyrazinamide effective against TB subpopulations in closed lesions and inside macrophages?

A

PZA prefers an acidic milieu, which is found in closed lesions and macrophages.

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14
Q

What is the drug of choice for treating TB?

A

Isoniazid

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15
Q

Isoniazid is structurally similar to what vitamin?

A

Pyridoxine

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16
Q

Against what type of M. tuberculosis bacilli is isoniazid bactericidal?

A

Actively/rapidly growing bacilli

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17
Q

What enzyme activates isoniazid?

A

KatG (mycobacterial catalase-peroxidase)

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18
Q

Mutations in which two genes are associated with isoniazid resistance?

A

InhA and KatG

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19
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by activated isoniazid?

A

Enoyl-acyl carrier protein reductase (InhA)

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20
Q

What advice is given to patients regarding food intake when taking isoniazid?

A

Take isoniazid at least 30 minutes before food.

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21
Q

How is the metabolism of isoniazid genetically determined?

A

By the rate of acetylation by liver N-acetyl transferase. There are fast and slow acetylators.

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22
Q

What is the typical daily dose of isoniazid?

A

5 mg/kg/day

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23
Q

What supplement is recommended for patients taking isoniazid, and why?

A

Pyridoxine (25-50 mg/day), to prevent peripheral neuropathy due to relative pyridoxine deficiency

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24
Q

What is the most severe side effect of isoniazid?

A

Hepatitis

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25
List three groups of individuals who are at increased risk of developing isoniazid-induced hepatitis.
Any three of the following: Elderly, alcoholic drinkers, pregnant and postpartum individuals, patients taking rifampicin
26
What are the symptoms of isoniazid-induced hepatitis?
Loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, jaundice, RUQ pain
27
What percentage of patients develop isoniazid-induced hepatitis?
0.01
28
What is the cause of isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy?
Relative pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) deficiency
29
List five conditions that predispose patients to isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy.
Any five of the following: Slow acetylators, malnutrition, alcoholism, diabetes, AIDS, uremia
30
How is isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy reversed?
By administration of pyridoxine (10 mg/day)
31
What is the characteristic finding in urine, sweat, and tears of patients taking rifampicin?
Orange color
32
What is the mechanism of action of rifampicin?
Binds to the β-subunit of bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and inhibits RNA synthesis.
33
Mutations in which gene are responsible for rifampicin resistance?
rpoB
34
What type of cells does rifampicin readily penetrate?
Most tissues and phagocytic cells
35
What is the half-life of rifampicin?
3.5 hours
36
What is the effect of rifampicin on cytochrome P450 enzymes?
Potent inducer
37
What is the recommended daily dose of rifampicin?
10 mg/kg/day
38
What type of mycobacterial infections is rifampicin effective against?
Atypical mycobacterial infections
39
What effect does rifampicin have on serum levels of other drugs?
Lowers serum levels
40
Why is it necessary to adjust the dose of other medications when they are used concurrently with rifampicin?
Rifampicin induces cytochrome P450, which increases the metabolism and clearance of other drugs.
41
What is pyrazinamide a relative of?
Nicotinamide
42
At what pH is pyrazinamide most active?
Acidic pH 5.5
43
What enzyme converts pyrazinamide to its active form?
Pyrazinamidase (PncA)
44
What is the active form of pyrazinamide?
Pyrazinoic acid
45
What enzyme is inhibited by the active form of pyrazinamide?
Fatty acid synthetase I (FAT I)
46
What is the half-life of pyrazinamide?
8-11 hours
47
What is the recommended daily dose of pyrazinamide?
25 mg/kg/day
48
What is the role of pyrazinamide in shortening the duration of TB therapy?
It is a sterilizing agent used during the first 2 months of therapy that targets residual intracellular organisms.
49
What is the most common adverse reaction associated with pyrazinamide?
Hepatotoxicity
50
What other adverse reactions are associated with pyrazinamide?
Nausea, vomiting, drug fever, hyperuricemia
51
Is hyperuricemia a reason to stop pyrazinamide treatment?
No, it is not usually a reason to halt treatment.
52
What is the mechanism of action of ethambutol?
Inhibits mycobacterial arabinosyl transferases
53
What operon encodes the arabinosyl transferases inhibited by ethambutol?
embCAB operon
54
What is the bactericidal or bacteriostatic nature of ethambutol?
Bacteriostatic
55
What is the half-life of ethambutol?
4 hours
56
What is the recommended daily dose of ethambutol?
15-25 mg/kg/day
57
What is the most common serious adverse reaction associated with ethambutol?
Retrobulbar neuritis
58
What visual disturbances are associated with ethambutol-induced retrobulbar neuritis?
Loss of visual acuity and red-green color blindness
59
In what population is ethambutol relatively contraindicated?
Very young children
60
Streptomycin interferes with the translation of mRNA transcripts in *M. tuberculosis* by binding to what ribosomal protein?
S12