Drugs: doses, MOA, etc Flashcards

1
Q

fentanyl dosing

A

1-2mcg/kg low dose; awake patients

2-20mcg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

fentanyl MOA

A

binds to opioid receptors of the presynaptic and postsynaptic sites in the CNS and peripherally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

major advantages of fentanyl

A
  • no direct myocardial depression
  • no histamine release
  • suppresses stress response to surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

fentanyl side effects

A
  • respiratory depression
  • increased ICP
  • reflex coughing
  • decreases HR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Propofol dosing

A

2-2.5mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

propofol MOA

A

GABA receptor agonist (enhances inhibition), hyperpolarizes cell membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

propofol common side effects

A
  • decreases HR, BP, RR, CMRO2, CBF, and ICP
  • injection site pain
  • inhibits platelet aggregation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

advantages of propofol

A
  • fast on/off with minimal residual effects
  • antiemetic
  • antipruritic
  • anticonvulsant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ketamine dosing

A

1-2mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ketamine MOA

A

NMDA receptor antagonist; inhibits glutamate; inhibits catecholamine uptake in postganglionic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ketamine side effects

A

“increases everything”: ICP, BP, HR, O2 demands

-emergence delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

advantages of using ketamine

A
  • bronchodilating properties

- maintains spontaneous ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what 2 drugs are often administered with ketamine

A

glycopyrrolate and benzo for secretions and emergence delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Etomidate dose

A

0.3mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Etomidate MOA

A

mimics inhibitory effects of GABA by increasing the receptors affinity to GABA; depresses the reticular activating system; opens Cl channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

avoid etomidate with what patients

A

seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

major disadvantages of etomidate

A
  • emetic

- adrenocortical suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

advantage of etomidate

A

good hemodynamic profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dexmedetomidine dosing

A

loading dose: 0.5-1mcg/kg over 10min

infusion: 0.2-1.4mcg/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dexmedetomidine MOA

A

alpha 2 agonist: hyperpolarizes cell w/ efflux of K, reduced NE release, decreased cAMP by inhibiting adenylyl cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Side effects of precedex bolus

A

bradycardia and HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Midazolam dosing

A

1-2mg IV

0.3-0.5mg/kg PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

midazolam MOA

A

causes increased binding of GABA to its receptor-> opening of Cl channel-> hyperpolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cardioprotectant feature of versed

A

prolongs adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
unique feature of versed
imidazole ring makes its lipid-soluble at pH >4
26
Lidocaine dosing
1-1.5mg/kg max w/o epi: 4.5mg/kg max w/ epi: 7mg/kg
27
rocuronium dosing
ED95: 0.3mg/kg | Intubating dose: 0.6mg/kg
28
non-depolarizing MOA
competes with Ach at nicotinic receptor alpha subunits, prevents the opening of Na ion channel, which prevents depolarization
29
depolarizing MOA
binds to alpha subunits on nicotinic receptor causing depolarization
30
roc metabolism
hepatic > renal
31
succinylcholine dosing
1-1.5mg/kg
32
succinylcholine metabolism
plasma cholinesterases
33
Cisatracurium dosing
ED95: 0.05mg/kg | Intubating dose: 0.2mg/kg
34
cisatracurium metabolism
Hoffman elimination
35
cisatracurium benefits over atracurium
less histamine release and less laudanosine formation
36
vec dosing
ED95: 0.05mg/kg | intubating dose: 0.1mg/kg
37
Neostigmine MOA
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
38
Neostigmine dose
0.04-0.07mg/kg
39
What anticholinergic is used with Neostigmine
gylcopyrrolate
40
what drug is neostigmine often used for reversal
vec ( and roc i think)
41
Edrophonium MOA
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
42
edrophonium dose
0.5-1mg/kg
43
anticholinergic given with edrophonium
atropine
44
edrophonium used to reverse what relaxant
atracurium
45
Sugammadex MOA
encapsulates steroidal NMB
46
Sugammadex dose
2-4mg/kg
47
dose of sugammadex to use if you have 0/4 twitches to immediately reverse in an emergency
16mg/kg
48
sugammadex is incompatible with what drugs
- verapamil - ondansetron - ranitidine
49
sugammadex metabolism
excreted unchanged by the kidneys
50
gylcopyrrolate MOA
anticholinergic; competes with Ach for muscarinic receptors
51
glycopyrrolate dose
0.015mg/kg
52
Atropine MOA
anticholinergic; competes with Ach for muscarinic receptors
53
atropine dose
0.03mg/kg
54
Phenylephrine drug class/ MOA
synthetic noncatecholamine | mostly alpha 1 by direct effect
55
phenylephrine effect on HR
decreases it
56
Epinephrine MOA
endogenous catecholamine. alpha and beta effects (dose-dependent) most potent alpha stimulant
57
Epi dosing
low: 1-2mcg/min (beta 2) moderate: 4mcg/min (beta 1) large: 10-20mcg/min (beta and alpha 1)
58
concentration of code dose epi
1:10,000 = 0.1mg/mL | 1 vial= 1mg
59
phenylephrine dosing
40-200mcg IV bolus
60
hydralazine MOA
vasodilator: interferes with Ca2+ ion transport. Hyperpolarizes smooth muscle; activates guanylate cyclase
61
hydralazine vasodilates arterial, venous, or both? How does this effect the HR?
arterial, increases it
62
hydralazine dose
10-20mg
63
hydralazine onset
10-20min ** dont immediately redose if you arent seeing effects
64
esmolol MOA
selective beta 1 antagonist, slows sinus rate, rate of conduction, and inotropy
65
esmolol dosing
0.5mg/kg IV over 60 seconds
66
esmolol metabolism
plasma esterase
67
beta-blocker overdose treatment
atropine 7mcg/kg | glucagon 1-10mg
68
metoprolol MOA
selective beta 1 antagonist
69
metoprolol dosing
HR > 80: 5mg HR 60-80: 2-5mg HR <60 or SBP < 100: hold
70
benefit of metoprolol
less likely to cause AE in pts with obstructive airway disease, PVD, diabetes
71
which is longer acting esmolol or metoprolol
metoprolol
72
Phenergan MOA
H1 blocker; anticholinergic effect- inhibition of dopamine and muscarinic receptors
73
Phenergan dosing
6.25mg- 12.5 mg IV
74
Phenergan side effects
sedation, lowers seizure threshold, hypotension
75
dont give phenergan to ___
seizure patients
76
metoclopramide (reglan) MOA
dopamine blockade in CTZ, cholinergic stimulus in GI
77
metoclopramide (reglan) dosing
10-20mg IV
78
metoclopramide primary effect
increases gut motility
79
metoclopramide contraindications
parkinsons and intestinal obstruction
80
Zofran MOA
5HT3 receptor antagonist, blocks peripheral receptors on intestinal vagal afferents and central receptors in the CTZ
81
Zofran dose
4-8mg
82
Dexamethasone MOA
inhibits prostaglandin synthesis centrally and controls endorphin release
83
Decadron dosing
4-12mg
84
Vancomycin antibiotic class
glycopeptide
85
vancomycin MOA
inhibits cell wall synthesis
86
vanc covers
gram +
87
cefazolin class
beta lactam- cephalosporin
88
cefazolin dose
2-3 grams
89
cefazolin covers
gram +; strep/staph
90
Metronidazole (Flagyl) interacts with
warfarin
91
Flagyl covers
gram -
92
Heparin MOA
potentiates action of antithrombin III
93
Heparin dose
300units/kg (for CV)
94
Albuterol MOA
beta 2 agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
95
Ephedrine MOA
direct effect on alpha and beta. Indirect effect causes release of NE
96
Ephedrine dose
5-10mg repeat up to 50mg
97
Ephedrine effect on HR
increases it