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SGU Pharm deck -term4 > drugs compilation -exam 2 > Flashcards

drugs compilation -exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

atropine

A

anti muscarinic -tertiary -natural

Antidote for cholinergic agonists.!!

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2
Q

scopolamine

A

anti muscarinin
tertiary
natural

• Prevention of motion sickness.
• To block short-term memory: sometimes used in
anaesthetic procedures

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3
Q

homotropium

A

anti muscarnic
tertiary synthetic

• Used as mydriatic for fundoscopy.
• Produce mydriasis with cycloplegia.
• Preferred to atropine because of shorter
duration of action.

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4
Q

tropicamide

A

anti muscarinic
tertiary syntehtic

• Used as mydriatic for fundoscopy.
• Produce mydriasis with cycloplegia.
• Preferred to atropine because of shorter
duration of action.

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5
Q

benzatropine

A

parkinsons
anti muscarinic

Used to treat Parkinson’s disease and the
extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotic drugs.

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6
Q

trihexphenhydramine

A

anit muscarinic

Used to treat Parkinson’s disease and the
extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotic drugs.

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7
Q

irpratropium

A

anti muscarinic

Used as inhalational drugs in the treatment of
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
• Also used as inhalational drugs in asthma

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8
Q

tiotropium

A

anti muscarinic

Used as inhalational drugs in the treatment of
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
• Also used as inhalational drugs in asthma

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9
Q

glycopyrolate

A

anti muscarinic

Used orally to inhibit GI motility.
• Used parenterally to prevent bradycardia during
surgical procedures

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10
Q

tolteradone

A

anti muscarinic

Used for overactive bladder

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11
Q

nicotine

A

ganglion block prolong depolarizer
anti-nictonic >?
cholinergic agnoist

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12
Q

hexamethonium

A

nictonie receptor blocker

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13
Q

mecamylamine

A

nictone receptor blocekr

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14
Q

tubocurarine

A

non depoalrising NMJ blocker

Adjuvant drugs in anaesthesia during surgery to
relax skeletal muscle

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15
Q

succinylcholine

A

depolarizing NMJ blocker

  • Rapid endotracheal intubation.
  • EC
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16
Q

dantrolene

A

block succinylcholine hyperthermia

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17
Q

hemicholinium 3

A

ACh inhibitor of syntheiss

Prevents uptake of choline required for ACh
synthesis.

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18
Q

vesamicol

A

ach storage inhibitor

blocks the ACh-H+ antiporter that is
used to transport ACh into vesicles, thereby
preventing the storage of ACh.

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19
Q

botulinium toxin

A

release inhbitor of ach

Inhibits acetylcholine release.
• Injected locally into muscles for
treatment of several diseases
involving muscle spasms.
• Also approved for cosmetic
treatment of facial wrinkles.
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20
Q

carbachol

A

direct cholinergic agonist

Both muscarinic and nicotinic agonist.
USES
• Miosis during surgery.
• Reduces intraocular pressure after cataract
surgery.
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21
Q

bethanichol

A

direct cholinergic agonist

Muscarinic agonist.
USES
• Postoperative and postpartum urinary retention.
• Atony of the urinary bladder.

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22
Q

methcholine

A

direct cholinergic agonist

• Muscarinic agonist.
USES
• Diagnosis of bronchial airway hyperreactivity in
subjects who do not have clinically apparent
asthma.

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23
Q

ach

A

direct cholinergic agonist

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24
Q

pilocarpine

A

direct actign alkaloids –ach agonist

• Second line agent for open angle glaucoma.
• Management of acute angle-closure glaucoma.
• Treatment of dry mouth due to radiotherapy for
cancer of head and neck.
• Treatment of dry mouth caused by Sjogren’s
Syndrome.

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25
Q

edrophonium

A

indirect ach agonist

Used in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.
Edrophonium IV leads to rapid increase in
muscle strength.
• Used to reverse the neuromuscular block
produced by non-depolarizing muscular
blockers.

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26
Q

physostigmine

A

indirect ach agonist

Treatment of overdoses of anticholinergic
drugs.

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27
Q

pyridostigmine

A

indirect ach agonist

Treatment of myasthenia gravis.

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28
Q

neostigmine

A

indirect ach agonist

Postoperative urinary retention.
• Reversal of effects of non-depolarizing
neuromuscular blockers after surgery.
• Treatment of myasthenia gravis

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29
Q

melathion

A

indirect ach agonist

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30
Q

parathion

A

indirect ach agonist

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31
Q

echothiphate

A

indirect ach agonist

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32
Q

isoproterenol

A

non selective b agonist
direct acting

Isoproterenol may be used in emergencies to
stimulate heart rate in patients with bradycardia
or heart block.

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33
Q

dobutamine

A

selective b1 blocker
direct acting

Management of acute heart failure.
• Management of cardiogenic shock.

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34
Q

albuterol

A

b2 selective blocker
direct acting

Asthma –fast acting

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35
Q

solmeterol

A

b2 slecetive blocker
direct acting

Asthma -slow acting

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36
Q

formoterol

A

b2 slective blocker
direct acting

asthma -slow acting

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37
Q

phenlephrine

A

a1 selective blocker
direct acting
direct acting

• Nasal decongestant . Given orally
or topically.
• Mydriatic.
• Used to increase blood pressure
in hypotension resulting from
vasodilation in septic shock or
anesthesia.
• Used to increase blood pressure
and terminate episodes of
supraventricular tachycardia
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38
Q

clonidine

A

a2 selective blocker
direct acting

Partial 2 agonist.
• Centrally acting antihypertensive.
• Activates central presynaptic 2-adrenoceptors.
• Reduces sympathetic outflow. This reduces
blood pressure.
• Adverse effects: lethargy, sedation, xerostomia

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39
Q

methyldopa

A

a2 selective blocker
direct acting

!!Drug of choice for treatment of hypertension
during pregnancy.!!

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40
Q

brimonidine

A

a2 selective blocker
direct acting

Given ocularly to lower intraocular pressure in
glaucoma.

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41
Q

amphetamine

A

indirect acting
releasing inhibitors

ADHD
• Narcolepsy

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42
Q

mehylphendiate

A

indirect acting
release inhibitors

  • Structural analogue of amphetamine.
  • Used to treat ADHD in children
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43
Q

tyramine

A

indirect acting
release inhibitors

Found in fermented foods
such as ripe cheese and
Chianti wine.
• Normally oxidized by MAO.
• If the patient is taking MAO
inhibitors, it can precipitate
serious vasopressor
episodes
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44
Q

cocaine

A

indirect acting
uptake inhibitors

This results in potentiation and prolongation of
their central and peripheral actions

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45
Q

atomoxetine

A

indirect acting
uptake inhbitors

Indicated for the treatment of ADHD

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46
Q

modafenil

A

uptake inhibtor
indirect acting

• Used for the treatment of narcolepsy

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47
Q

ephdrine /pseudepdrine

A

mixed acting adrenergic agonist

ephdrine –Used as a pressor agent, particularly during
spinal anesthesia.
• Used in myasthenia gravis.

pseud—One of four ephedrine enantiomers.
• Available over the counter as a component of
many decongestant mixtures.

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48
Q

phenoxybenzamine

A

non selective adrenergic blocker

Used in Pheochromocytoma
• Prior to surgical removal of the tumor.
• For chronic management of inoperable
tumors.

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49
Q

phentolamine

A

non selective adrenergic blocker

Pheochromocytoma: control of hypertension
during preoperative preparation and surgical
excision.
• Diagnosis of pheochromocytoma: phentolamine
blocking test.
• Prevention of dermal necrosis after extravasation
of norepinephrine.
•!!!Hypertensive crisis due to stimulant drug
overdose. 1!!

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50
Q

prazosin

A

a1 selective adrenergic blocker

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51
Q

terazosin

A

a1 selective adrenergic blocker

Used for hypertension and BPH.

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52
Q

doxazosin

A

a1 selective adrenergic blocker

Used for hypertension and BPH.

53
Q

tamsulosin

A

a1 selective adrenergic blocker

Tamsulosin is selective for α1A
-receptors.
• Approved for BPH.

54
Q

propranolol

A

non selective b blocker

55
Q

nadolol

A

non selective b blocker

56
Q

timolol

A

non selective b blocker

lowers intraocular proessure

57
Q

atenolol

A

b1 selective blocker

Useful in hypertensive patients with impaired
pulmonary function.
• Useful in diabetic hypertensive patients who are
receiving insulin or oral hypoglycemic agents.

58
Q

metoprolol

A

b1 selective blocker
Useful in hypertensive patients with impaired
pulmonary function.
• Useful in diabetic hypertensive patients who are
receiving insulin or oral hypoglycemic agents.

59
Q

esmolol

A

b1 selective blocker

For rapid control of ventricular rate in patients
with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutte

60
Q

labetolol

A

a/b blocker

Competitive antagonist at  and 1 receptors.
• More potent as a -antagonist than as an αantagonist.
• Used in hypertension.

61
Q

carvidolol

A

a/b blocker

Has antioxidant properties.
• Used in hypertension and CHF

62
Q

pindolol

A

partial b blocker

63
Q

a methyltyrosine

A

inhibitor of NE synthesis

Used for management of malignant
pheochromocytoma.
• Used in preoperative preparation of patients for
resection of pheochromocytoma.

64
Q

reserpine

A

NE storage blocker
Gradual decrease in blood pressure and slowing
of cardiac rate.
• Used in the past to treat hypertensionv

65
Q

tetrabenzine

A

ne storage block reversible

Indicated for the treatment of chorea associated
with Huntington’s Disease.

66
Q

nedocromil

A

histamine release inhibitor

Reduce immunologic mast cell degranulation.
• 2-agonists also appear capable of reducing
histamine release.

67
Q

cromolyn

A

histamine release inhbitor

Reduce immunologic mast cell degranulation.
• 2-agonists also appear capable of reducing
histamine release.

68
Q

chlorpheniramine

A

H1 antagonist -1st gen

somanifacients/motion sickness/allergic ehinitis/ utricaria

69
Q

cyclizine

A

H1 antagonist -1st gen

somanifacients/motion sickness/allergic ehinitis/ utricaria

70
Q

meclazine

A

H1 antagonist -1st gen

somanifacients/motion sickness/allergic ehinitis/ utricaria

71
Q

dimenhydrinate

A

H1 antagonist -1st gen

somanifacients/motion sickness/allergic ehinitis/ utricaria

72
Q

diphenhudramine

A

H1 antagonist -1st gen

somanifacients/motion sickness/allergic ehinitis/ utricaria

73
Q

hydroxyzine

A

H1 antagonist -1st gen

somanifacients/motion sickness/allergic ehinitis/ utricaria

74
Q

promethazine

A

H1 antagonist -1st gen

somanifacients/motion sickness/allergic ehinitis/ utricaria

75
Q

fexofenadine

A

H1 antagonist -2nd gen

76
Q

loratedine

A

H1 antagonist -2nd gen

77
Q

cetirizine

A

H1 antagonist -2nd gen

78
Q

cimitidine

A

H2 antagonist

Peptic ulcers: promote healing of duodenal and
gastric ulcers.
• Acute stress ulcers
• GERD: effective in prevention and treatment of
heart-burn.

79
Q

rantidine

A

H2 antagonist

Peptic ulcers: promote healing of duodenal and
gastric ulcers.
• Acute stress ulcers
• GERD: effective in prevention and treatment of
heart-burn.

80
Q

famotidine

A

H2 antagonist

Peptic ulcers: promote healing of duodenal and
gastric ulcers.
• Acute stress ulcers
• GERD: effective in prevention and treatment of
heart-burn.

81
Q

nizatidine

A

h2 antagonist

Peptic ulcers: promote healing of duodenal and
gastric ulcers.
• Acute stress ulcers
• GERD: effective in prevention and treatment of
heart-burn.

82
Q

sumatriptan

A

5-HT1d/1b agonist

migraine

83
Q

metoclopramide

A

5-HT4 antagonist

Prokinetic agent.
• Its administration results in coordinated
contractions that enhance transit.
• The most common adverse effects are
somnolence, nervousness and dystonic reactions.
• Extrapyramidal effects and tardive dyskinesia,
although rare, may occur.

84
Q

cisapride

A

5-HT-4 agonist
Prokinetic agent.
• Prolongs QT interval.
• Due to serious cardiac adverse effects it is no
longer generally available in the US.
• The drug is available only on a limited basis.

85
Q

cyproheptadine

A

5-ht-2 antagonist

  • Allergic rhinitis
  • Vasomotor rhinitis
  • Management of serotonin syndrome.
86
Q

ondansetron

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonist

Anti-emetic.
• Particularly for the severe nausea and vomiting
that occurs with cancer chemotherapy.

87
Q

egotamine

A

serotonin antagonist

migraine

88
Q

dihydroergotamine

A

serotonin antagonist

migraine

89
Q

bromocriptine

A

serotonin antagonist

hyperprolactinemia

90
Q

cabergoline

A

serotonin antagonist

hyperprolactinemia

91
Q

oxytocin

A

serotonin antagonist ??

postpartum hemmorhage

92
Q

ergonovine

A

serotonin antagonist ??
postpartum hemmorhage
dignosis of variant angina

93
Q

methylergonovine

A

serotonin antagonist ??

postpartum hemmorhage

94
Q

dinoprostone

A

PGE2 eicosanoid

To ripen cervix at or near term.
• Abortifacient.

95
Q

misorpostol

A

PGE1 eicosanoid

Prevention of peptic ulcers in patients taking high
doses of NSAIDs.
• To ripen the cervix at or near term.
• Management of postpartum hemorrhage.
• Abortifacient in combination with the antiprogestin
mifepristone or methotrexate

96
Q

alprostadil

A

PGE1
eicosanoid
(keeps ductus arteriosus patent +impotence)

97
Q

prostacyclin -epoprostenol

A

PGI2
for reducing pulmonary hypertension

To prevent platelet aggregation in dialysis
machines.

98
Q

latanoprost

A

treatment of glaucoma

PGF2a derivative

99
Q

zileuton

A

antagonist for 5-lipoxygenase

100
Q

zafirlukast

A

LTD4 antagonist

101
Q

furosemide

A

loop diuretic

Increased Ca2+ excretion
• Increased Mg2+ excretion
• Decreased renal vascular resistance
• Increased renal blood flow
• Increased prostaglandin synthesis
102
Q

hydrochlorothiazide

A

thiazide diuretic

hypertension/heart failure/hypercalciuria/ diabetes insipidus/prementrual edema

103
Q

chlorthalidone

A

thiazide diuretic

hypertension/heart failure/hypercalciuria/ diabetes insipidus/prementrual edema

104
Q

metolazone

A

thiazide diuretic

hypertension/heart failure/hypercalciuria/ diabetes insipidus/prementrual edema

105
Q

spironolactone

A

k sparing diuretics

Heart failure/hypertension/primary hyperaldosteronism/edema

106
Q

epleronone

A

k sparing diuretics

Heart failure/hypertension/primary hyperaldosteronism/edema

107
Q

amiloride

A

k sparing -inhibitors of Na channels

108
Q

triamterene

A

k sparing -inhibitors of Na channels

109
Q

acetazolamide

A

CA inhibitor

  • Glaucoma
  • Epilepsy (used alone or with other antiepileptics)
  • Mountain sickness prophylaxis
  • Metabolic alkalosis
110
Q

mannitol

A

osmotic diuretics

Increase urine flow in patients with acute renal
failure
• Reduce increased intracranial pressure &
treatment of cerebral edema
• Promote excretion of toxic substances

111
Q

conevaptan

A

ADH antagonist

• Euvolemic and hypervolemic hyponatremia
• SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion)
• Heart failure (only when benefits outweigh risks –
safety not established)

112
Q

donepezil

A

The mainstay of therapy for patients with
Alzheimer disease is the use of centrally acting
acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

113
Q

rivastigmine

A

The mainstay of therapy for patients with
Alzheimer disease is the use of centrally acting
acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

114
Q

galantamine

A

The mainstay of therapy for patients with
Alzheimer disease is the use of centrally acting
acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

115
Q

pralidoxime

A

Pralidoxime can be used as

cholinesterase regenerator –

116
Q

epinephrine

A

Anaphylactic Shock: drug of choice.
• Acute asthmatic attacks.
• Cardiac arrest
• In Local Anesthetics: Epinephrine increases
duration of local anesthesia by producing
vasoconstriction at the site of injection

117
Q

NE

A

Agonist at a1, a2, and b1 receptors
• Little action on b2 receptors

To treat shock because it increases vascular
resistance and therefore increases blood
pressure.

118
Q

dopamine

A

D1>b1>a1

Vasodilation
• Increase in GFR
• Increase in renal blood flow
• Increase in sodium excretion

119
Q

captopril

A

Hypertension (most effective in white and/or young
patients)
+ diuretic = effectiveness similar in non-black and black
patients
• Preserve renal function in patients with either diabetic
or non-diabetic nephropathy
• Effective in treatment of chronic HF
• Standard of care for patients following MI (started 24h
after end of infarction)

120
Q

enalapril

A

Hypertension (most effective in white and/or young
patients)
+ diuretic = effectiveness similar in non-black and black
patients
• Preserve renal function in patients with either diabetic
or non-diabetic nephropathy
• Effective in treatment of chronic HF
• Standard of care for patients following MI (started 24h
after end of infarction)

121
Q

lisinopril

A

Hypertension (most effective in white and/or young
patients)
+ diuretic = effectiveness similar in non-black and black
patients
• Preserve renal function in patients with either diabetic
or non-diabetic nephropathy
• Effective in treatment of chronic HF
• Standard of care for patients following MI (started 24h
after end of infarction)

122
Q

losartan

A

ARBs

123
Q

valsartan

A

ARBs

124
Q

Aliskiren

A

renin inhibtor

125
Q

verapamil

A

CCB (calcium channel blocker)

126
Q

dilitazem

A

CCB

127
Q

Nifedipine

A

CCB- dihydropyridines

128
Q

Amlodipine

A

CCB-dihydropyridines

SGU Pharm deck -term4 (10 decks)

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