Drugs, Chemicals & Health Flashcards

1
Q

What are the known regulatory protein targets involved in drug action? What is the exception? i.e. not a regulatory protein.

A
1 Carriers/ transporters
2 Enzymes 
3 Ion channels 
4 Receptors 
The exception: DNA
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2
Q

Describe carriers/transporters

A
  • sit in cell lipid membranes
  • carry molecules into the cell because the permeating molecules are often insufficiently lipid soluble to penetrate lipid membranes on their own
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3
Q

Give examples of a transporter/carrier aided reaction

A
  • ions and many organic molecules across the renal tubule, the intestinal epithelium and the blood-brain barrier
  • the transport of Na+ and Ca2+ out of cells, and the uptake of neurotransmitter precursors (such as choline) or of neurotransmitters themselves (such as noradrenaline, 5-hydroxytryptamine [5-HT], glutamate and peptides) by nerve terminals
  • transport of drug molecules and their metabolites across cell membranes and epithelial barriers
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4
Q

Describe enzymes

A
  • used for reaction or inhibition, mostly inhibition using substrate equivalent that acts as a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme
  • regulate protein concentrations and producing bioactive products
  • Drugs may also act as false substrates, where the drug molecule undergoes chemical transformation to form an abnormal product that subverts the normal metabolic pathway
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5
Q

Give examples of enzyme aided reaction

A
  • competitive inhibitor: captopril, acting on angiotensin-converting enzyme
  • false substrate: anticancer drug fluorouracil, which replaces uracil as an intermediate in purine biosynthesis but cannot be converted into thymidylate, thus blocking DNA synthesis and preventing cell division.
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6
Q

Describe ion channels

A
  • gateways in cell membranes, which selectively allow the passage of particular ions
  • induced to open or close by a variety of mechanisms.
  • 2 important types are ligand-gated channels and voltage-gated channels.
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7
Q

Describe LG and VG channels

A
  • LG open only when one or more agonist molecules are bound since agonist binding is needed to activate them.
  • VG channels are gated by changes in the trans-membrane potential rather than by agonist binding.
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8
Q

How do drugs affect ion channel function?

A
  • by binding to the channel protein itself via the ligand-binding site (of LG channels), or to other parts of the channel molecule
  • or they may affect channel function by an indirect interaction, involving a G-protein and other intermediaries
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9
Q

Use of drugs on ion channels

A
  • local anesthetics affects VG sodium channels by plugging the channel physically, therefore blocking ion permeation.
  • systems where drugs target ion channels: Nerves, brain, kidney and the cardiovascular system
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10
Q
  1. A competitive antagonist does which of the following?
    a) shifts the dose response curve to the right
    b) shifts the dose response curve in a parallel fashion
    c) has no effect on the maximum response
    d) all of the above
A

d.
A competitive antagonist is a receptor antagonist that binds to a receptor but does not activate the receptor. The antagonist will compete with available agonist for receptor binding sites on the same receptor. Sufficient antagonist will displace the agonist from the binding sites, resulting in a lower frequency of receptor activation.

Presence of a competitive antagonist will shift an agonism dose-response curve to the right

A competitive antagonist can be reversible competitive antagonist or irreversible competitive antagonist.

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11
Q
A G-protein coupled receptor has the following trans membrane
domains:
a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 7
A

d.
(GPLR), constitute a large protein family of receptors that sense molecules outside the cell and activate inside signal transduction pathways and, ultimately, cellular responses. They are called transmembrane receptors because they pass through the cell membrane, and they are called seven-transmembrane receptors because they pass through the cell membrane seven times.
There are two principal signal transduction pathways involving the G protein-coupled receptors: the cAMP signal pathway and the phosphatidylinositol signal pathway.[6] When a ligand binds to the GPCR it causes a conformational change in the GPCR, which allows it to act as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF). The GPCR can then activate an associated G-protein by exchanging its bound GDP for a GTP. The G-protein’s α subunit, together with the bound GTP, can then dissociate from the β and γ subunits to further affect intracellular signaling proteins or target functional proteins directly depending on the α subunit type

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12
Q

A ligand gated ion channel responds to a ligand in:

a) milliseconds
b) minutes
c) hours
d) days

A

a. milli seconds
Ligand-gated ion channels (LGICs) are a group of transmembrane ion channel proteins which open to allow ions such as Na+, K+, Ca2+, or Cl- to pass through the membrane in response to the binding of a chemical messenger (i.e. a ligand),[1] such as a neurotransmitter

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13
Q

The potency of a drug is best estimated on a concentration response curve when the response is:

a) 25% of maximum
b) 50% of maximum
c) 75 % of maximum
d) 100% of maximum

A

b. 50%
potency is a measure of drug activity expressed in terms of the amount required to produce an effect of given intensity. A highly potent drug (e.g., morphine, alprazolam, chlorpromazine) evokes a larger response at low concentrations, while a drug of lower potency (ibuprofen, acetylsalicylic acid) evokes a small response at low concentrations. It is proportional to affinity and efficacy.

Affinity is the ability of the drug to bind to a receptor. Efficacy is the relationship between receptor occupancy and the ability to initiate a response at the molecular, cellular, tissue or system level. The response is equal to the effect, or (E), and depends on both the drug binding and the drug-bound receptor then producing a response; thus, potency depends on both affinity and efficacy.

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14
Q

G-protein coupled receptors are linked via their G-proteins to enzymes which produce 2nd messengers in the cell. Which of these is such an enzyme?

a) monoamine oxidase
b) catechol -O-methyl transferase
c) adenylate cyclase
d) Cyclic AMP

A

c.

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15
Q

The vast majority of targets for drugs are: (circle CORRECT option)

a) lipids
b) ions
c) proteins
d) DNA

A

c. protein

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16
Q

A drug is 80% ionized at pH 7.4, and 20% ionized at pH 2, this means that it will be predominately absorbed via: (circle CORRECT option)

a) the mouth
b) the stomach
c) the intestine
d) the stomach and intestine equally

A

b. the stomach
In the stomach, drugs that are weak acids (such as aspirin) will be present mainly in their non-ionic form, and weak bases will be in their ionic form. Since non-ionic species diffuse more readily through cell membranes, weak acids will have a higher absorption in the highly acidic stomach.

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17
Q

Which of the following body compartments is the smallest in terms of drug distribution? (circle CORRECT option)

a) plasma
b) intercellular fluid
c) transcellular fluid
d) interstitial fluid

A

c.

Vd= A/C (amount of drug divided by concentration)

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18
Q

Oxidation is an enzymic reaction which occurs: (circle CORRECT option)

a) prior to Phase I metabolism
b) as part of Phase II metabolism
c) as part of Phase I metabolism
d) as part of entero-hepatic circulation

A

c. phase 1
Drug metabolism is divided into three phases. In phase I, enzymes such as cytochrome P450 oxidases introduce reactive or polar groups into xenobiotics. These modified compounds are then conjugated to polar compounds in phase II reactions. These reactions are catalysed by transferase enzymes such as glutathione S-transferases. Finally, in phase III, the conjugated xenobiotics may be further processed, before being recognised by efflux transporters and pumped out of cells.

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19
Q

Certain antidepressants can act at which of the following cellular target sites to increase synaptic catecholamine concentrations:

a)  adrenoreceptor
b) nicotinic receptor
c) acetylcholinesterase
d) uptake 1 transport

A

d.

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20
Q
Noradrenaline \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cardiac pacemaker cells via the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
receptor:
a) activates, a1
b) activates, b1
c) inhibits, b1
d) activates, M3
A

b.

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21
Q

b1-adrenoceptor agonists are most useful in the treatment of:

a) heart failure
b) diabetes
c) incontinence
d) none of the above

A

a.

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22
Q

Give an example of down regulation

A

Cellular decrease in number of receptors to the molecule

Ie increased number of cytochrome P450 enzymes in liver cells when xenobiotic molecules such as dioxin are administered

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23
Q

Which of the following IS NOT an opioid peptide?

a) endorphin
b) enkephalin
c) dynorphin
d) morphine

A

d.morphine.
Opioid peptides are short sequences of amino acids that bind to opioid receptors in the brain; opiates and opioids mimic the effect of these peptides. Opioid peptides may be produced by the body itself, for example endorphins. The effects of these peptides vary, but they all resemble opiates.

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24
Q

Which of the following statements about antiepileptic drugs is INCORRECT?
a) carbamazepine blocks voltage-dependent Na+ channels
b) phenytoin blocks voltage-dependent Na+ channels
c) carbamazepine is an inducer of hepatic enzymes
d) phenobarbital increase the effects of the excitatory neurotransmitter
glutamate

A

d.

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25
Q

The vinca alkaloids are anticancer drugs that prevent tubulin polymerisation, this results in: (circle CORRECT option)

a) cells being trapped in anaphase
b) failure to leave prophase
c) failure to enter anaphase
d) cells being trapped in metaphase

A
d.
Vinca alkaloids are used in the treatment of cancer. They are a class of cell-cycle-specific cytotoxic drugs that work by inhibiting the ability of cancer cells to divide: Acting upon tubulin, they prevent it from forming into microtubules, a necessary component for cellular division.
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26
Q

One key target for anticancer drugs Is: (circle CORRECT option)

a) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
b) DNA polymerase
c) thymidine Kinase
d) the 30S ribosome

A

b.

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27
Q

Drugs which inhibit proteases are most likely to be used against: (circle CORRECT option)

a) gram negative bacteria
b) influenza Viruses
c) human Immunodeficiency Virus
d) chronic myeloid leukaemia cancer

A

c.

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28
Q

Which of the following statements about dopamine is CORRECT?
a) it is present at high concentrations within the regions of the limbic
system
b) its reduction within the nigrostriatal pathway is associated with
schizophernia
c) it can only have excitatory effects within the central nervous system
d) its hyperactivity in the nigrostriatal pathway is associated with
Parkinson’s disease

A

a.

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29
Q

Which of the following is blocked by a local anaesthetic?

a) calcium channels
b) potassium channels
c) sodium channels
d) opioid receptors

A

c.
All local anesthetics are membrane stabilizing drugs; they reversibly decrease the rate of depolarization and repolarization of excitable membranes (like nociceptors). Though many other drugs also have membrane stabilizing properties, not all are used as local anesthetics (propranolol, for example). Local anesthetic drugs act mainly by inhibiting sodium influx through sodium-specific ion channels in the neuronal cell membrane, in particular the so-called voltage-gated sodium channels. When the influx of sodium is interrupted, an action potential cannot arise and signal conduction is inhibited.

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30
Q

Some people especially in Asia have a genetic intolerance to alcohol.
Which of these enzymes is deficient in these people?
a) alcohol dehydrogenase
b) acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
c) monoamine oxidase
d) catechol-O-methyltransferase

A

b.

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31
Q

The neurotransmitter mainly associated with drug dependence is:

a) acetylcholine
b) 5HT
c) noradrenaline
d) dopamine

A

d.

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32
Q

The active ingredient of stimulant plant Khat is:

a) cocaine
b) heroin
c) opium
d) cathinone

A

d.

cathine and cathinone

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33
Q
Which one of these is least commonly associated with administration of
opioid drugs:
a) constipation
b) nausea
c) respiratory depression
d) paralysis
A

d.

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34
Q

Which of the following statements about gamma-aminobutyric acid
GABA) is CORRECT?
a) it is a major excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system
b) it is formed from aspartate by the enzyme glutamic acid decarboxylase
c) it activates GABAB receptors which are found mainly at postsynaptic sites
d) it activates GABAA receptors which leads to Cl- influx
[End

A

d.

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35
Q
  1. Explain what the terms affinity and efficacy mean in pharmacology.
A

@

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36
Q

Using a brief sketch, show the basic pharmacokinetic phases of drug entry into
the body.

A

@

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37
Q

Opioids are the most effective analgesic drugs. Describe how they work and
what their major limitations are in long term treatment of chronic pain.

A

@

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38
Q

Compare the mechanism of action of cocaine and amphetamine.

A

@

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39
Q

Describe the components of the Biopsychosocial model of addiction.

A

@

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40
Q

How does an indirectly acting sympatho-mimetic work at a cellular level? List two examples of an indirectly acting sympatho-mimetic

A

@

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41
Q

Briefly describe how cholinesterase inhibition would affect the function of the respiratory system (airways).

A

@

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42
Q

Briefly describe how you would pharmacologically (i.e. with drugs) counter
or reverse the effects of exposure to an organophosphate poison (eg. Dyflos).

A

@

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43
Q

Describe briefly the evidence which supports the 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) hypothesis of schizophrenia.

A

@

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44
Q

Describe briefly the mechanisms of action and adverse effects of drugs used to treat nausea and vomiting.

A

@

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45
Q

Using brief notes compare and contrast the mechanisms of resistance to anticancer drugs and antiviral drugs.

A

@

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46
Q

Give a brief definition of complementary medicine

A

@

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47
Q

Describe the mechanisms of action and main side effects of THREE major
classes of antidepressant drugs.

A

@

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48
Q

Specify the mechanisms of action and main side effects of THREE major
classes of antiepileptic drugs.

A

@

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49
Q

Briefly describe the main criteria used to classify an endogenous substance
as a central nervous system neurotransmitter.

A

@

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50
Q

Regulation of the concentration of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft is important for normal brain function. Discuss how this is achieved and how drugs commonly used to treat neurological and psychological illness act upon these mechanisms.

A

@

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51
Q

List one potential clinical use for an antagonist of the i) muscarinic receptor and ii) b1 adrenoceptor. Explain how they achieve their therapeutic effect in both instances and list one example of a selective drug for each of these receptors

A

@

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52
Q

Draw a representative schematic illustration demonstrating the main anatomical and pharmacological differences between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve pathways, using the heart as your innervating target organ. Include the major transmitters produced at each neuron and the main class of receptors for those transmitters. Include receptor subtypes where appropriate.

A

@

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53
Q

Specify the main use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID) and describe the differences between non selective cyclo-oxygenase (COX) inhibitors and selective cyclo-oxygenase inhibitors.

A

@

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54
Q

Bacteria are described as “target rich environments” for drug therapy. Is this comment justified? Give examples of major antibacterial drug classes and their mechanisms of action to illustrate your answer.

A

@

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55
Q

Describe the early (immediate) and late phases of an asthma attack and the mechanisms of action of THREE drugs used to treat asthma.

A

@

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56
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the pharmacokinetic phase of a drug?

a. Absorbtion
b. Receptor site
c. Metabolism
d. Elimination

A

b. Receptor site

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57
Q
Which of the following factors may have an effect on drug absorption?
I. Rout of administration
II. Metabolic degradation
III. Inactivation by stomach acids
IV. Blood flow to absorption sitea
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I and IV only
d. I,II,III, and IV
d. I,II,III, and IV
A

d. I,II,III, and IV

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58
Q
Which of the following routs of drug aadministration help to reduce the firtst-pass effect?
I. Oral administration
II. Injection
III.Sublingual tablets
IV. Rectal administration
a. I and III only
b. II and IV only
c. II,III, and IV only
d. I,II, and IV only
A

c. II,III, and IV only

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59
Q

The mechanism of drug action by which drug molecule causes its effect in the body is known as the:

a. Pharmacodynamic phase
b. Elimination phase
c. Pharmacokinetic phase
d. Administration phase

A

a. Pharmacodynamic phase

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60
Q
Given the following information, which drug is more potent?
Drug........... ED50
A ................10mg
B .................5mg
C .................1mg
D .................15mg
a. Drug A
b. Drug B
c. Drug C
d. Drug D
A

c. Drug C

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61
Q

The drug albuterol binds to its corresponding receptor in order to initiate response of bronchodilation. By definition, albuterol is known as a:

a. Agonist
b. Antiagonist
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

A

a. Agonist

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62
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

Body’s effect on the drug

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63
Q

Ion Trapping or Ph Partitioning

A

Ionization of drugs is Ph dependant, drug molecules will acumulate on the side of the membrane where the ph most favors ionization. Acidic drugs accumulate on the alkaline side and basic drugs accumulate on the acidic.

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64
Q

4 Factors of Pharmacokinetics

A
  1. Absorption
  2. Distribution
  3. Metabolism
  4. Excretion
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65
Q

Absorption effected by

A

Rate of dissolution, Surface Area available for drug absorption, blood flow to where drug is absorbed, lipid solubility, ph partitioning

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66
Q

First Pass Effect

A

Concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation.

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67
Q

Pharamcodynamics

A

drug’s effect on the body

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68
Q

Simple occupancy theory

A

1) intensity of a response is proportional to the number of receptors occupied by the drug
2) maximal response occurs when all drug-receptors are occupied by the drug

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69
Q

Agonist

A

molecules that activate receptors

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70
Q

Antagonist

A

molecules that block receptors

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71
Q

non-competetive antagonist

A

binds irreversibly to receptors, and therefore reduces the total number of receptors available for activation by agonist

Look at [] of agonist v. non comp antagonist - the one that has more [] will win

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72
Q

competetive antagonist

A

typically binds reversibly to receptors. Only will block if higher concentration than the compound is trying to block.

Look at [] and Affinity –> Analogy holiday shopping and aggression for parking spot

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73
Q

Partial agonist

A

agonist with moderate intrinsic activity. Can act as antagonists and agonists.

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74
Q

Loading dose

A

large initial dose given to establish a therapeutic drug level

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75
Q

Drug Receptors - 4 primary

A
  1. Cell membrane - embedded enzymes [fast]
  2. Ligand gated ion channels [fast]
  3. G-protien-coupled receptor systems [fast]
  4. Transcription factors [slow]
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76
Q

Tachyphylaxis

A

Tolerance that develops acutely with only a few doses of a drug

77
Q

Synergy

A

when two drugs interact to produce an effect that is greater than the algebraic summation (1+1=3)

78
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

-Studies the biochemical and physiological effects of a drug in order to exert its therapeutic or toxic effects
-Deals with the interaction at the cellular level between the drug and cellular components (such as proteins or the receptor itself)
Bottom line: studies what the drug does to the body

79
Q

First Pass Effect

A

Refers to fact that some oral drugs are metabolized by the liver BEFORE passing into circulation
Route of transit:
Drug by mouth → into stomach →through portal vein → liver →broken down (to varying degrees) → circulation

80
Q

Factors that influence Distribution

A

Uptake of a drug by tissues is determined by tissue blood flow and the tissue’s capacity to accept the drug
Factors that enhance drug uptake:
-Increased lipid solubility
-Unbound protein fraction of the drug

81
Q

Volume of Distribution (Vd)

A

Vd is a THEORETICAL pharmacokinetic parameter that quantifies the extent of drug distribution within the body
The Vd of a drug in the body stems from the presumption that the body behaves as a single compartment, into which the drug is evenly distributed
Vd is considered “apparent”
-Vd is calculated; the dose of drug injected intravenously is divided by the resulting plasma concentration of drug before elimination starts
Vd = total amount of drug in body (in mg) plasma drug concentration (in mg/L)
-If a drug is extensively distributed, the blood concentration will be lower, which equates to a larger volume of distribution

82
Q

Metabolism

A

Goal: to convert substances into water soluble forms (for excretion) as well as convert into pharmacologically active or inactive forms (biotransformation)
Liver is primary organ for metabolism
3 types of metabolism:
Active drug to less active/inactive metabolites
Active drug to active metabolites
Inactive drug to active drug (prodrug)

83
Q

Sites of Metabolism

A
  1. Liver
  2. Lung
  3. Kidney
  4. Intestine
  5. Placenta
  6. Adrenals
  7. Skin
84
Q

The four basic pathways of metabolism:

A

Oxidation
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Conjugation (glucuronidation)

85
Q

Cytochrome P450 Enzyme System

A

The mixed function oxidase system (involves both oxidation and reduction)
Responsible for metabolism of most drugs
Lipid solubility (non-ionization) of a drug favors passage across the cell membranes
Will also increase Vd (bc penetrates out of circulation and into peripheral compartment)
Individual differences in microsomal enzyme systems is genetically determined

86
Q

Clearance

A
Amount of drug cleared from plasma per unit time; depends on:
Renal excretion
Metabolism in the liver
Metabolism by other organs
Combination of these events
87
Q
Factors altering clearance
Body Weight
Body Surface Area (BSA)- (chemo drugs)
Hepatic Extraction Ratio
Refers to first pass
Enterohepatic recirculation
Renal Function
Hepatic Function
Decreased Cardiac Output
A
Body Weight
Body Surface Area (BSA)- (chemo drugs)
Hepatic Extraction Ratio
Refers to first pass
Enterohepatic recirculation
Renal Function
Hepatic Function
Decreased Cardiac Output
88
Q

Renal excretion of drugs is dependent upon

A
  1. Glomerular Filtration
  2. Proximal Tubular Secretion
  3. Distal Tubular Reabsorption
89
Q

AFFINITY

A

the ability of a drug to bind at a receptor site to form a stable complex
Determines the potency of the drug

90
Q

INTRINSIC ACTIVITY

A

the ability of the drug- receptor complex to initiate a pharmacologic effect
Determines the efficacy of a drug

91
Q

Transmembrane Ligand-Gated Ion Channels

A

Responsible for the regulation of the flow of ions across cell membranes.
Very rapid response
Neurotransmission, cardiac conduction and muscle contraction

92
Q

Transmembrane G Protein-Coupled Receptors

A

Activate second messengers inside cell

Responses last longer

93
Q

Enzyme-Linked Receptors

A

Longer duration of response (min-hrs)
Activation and multiplication of response
Ex. Insulin receptor

94
Q

Full Agonist

A

Binds to a receptor and produces a maximal biologic that mimics the response of an endogenous ligand
Strong affinity and good efficacy

95
Q

Inverse Agonist

A

Reverse the constitutive activity of receptors and exert the opposite pharmacologic effect of receptor agonists

96
Q

Competitive: Antagonist

A

Most frequent; antagonist will compete with an agonist for receptor sites.
Drug with highest concentration (agonist or antagonist) determines action at site; binding to receptor site is reversible
Can be overcome

97
Q

Non-competitive: Antagonist

A

Binding to receptor site is irreversible; agonist is blocked from exerting an effect
Cannot be overcome by more agonist

98
Q

Graded Dose-Response Curve

A

As the concentration of drug increases the magnitude of its pharmacologic effect also increases.
Graded effect: response is continuous and gradual.
Can determine: Potency and Efficacy

99
Q

Potency

A

Amount of drug necessary to produce an effect of a given magnitude

100
Q

Which of these receptor families is normally associated with the action of hormones such as testosterone and oestrogen?

a) type 1-ion channels
b) type 2-G-protein linked
c) type 3-kinase linked
d) type 4-nuclear

A

d.

101
Q

The concentration of a drug that produces a 50% response is an indication of the drugs:

a) efficacy
b) potency
c) selectivity
d) safety

A

b.

102
Q

Reducing blood pressure by lowering the collective resistance of peripheral vascular beds would be best achieved by drugs which block which of the following:

a) β2 adrenoceptors
b) β1 adrenoceptors
c) α2 adrenoceptors
d) α1 adrenoceptors

A

d.

103
Q

Which of the following statements concerning neurotransmitter dynamics is most correct?

a) all neurotransmitters must be stored in vesicles prior to release
b) only enough transmitter is released to bind all of its postsynaptic receptors
c) calcium influx is required to initiate vesicular fusion to membranes
d) released transmitters act only at postsynaptic receptors

A

c.

104
Q

A drug which blocks monamine oxidase would:

a) enhance synaptic noradrenaline concentrations
b) block reuptake of noradrenaline via uptake 1
c) prevent the re-synthesis of noradrenaline
d) block noradrenaline binding at adrenergic receptors

A

a.

105
Q

A drug is 20% ionized at pH 7.4, and 80% ionized at pH 2, this means that it will be predominately absorbed via:

a) the mouth
b) the stomach
c) the intestine
d) the stomach and intestine equally

A

c.

106
Q

Bioavailability is determined by:

a) gastrointestinal drug metabolism
b) renal excretion
c) liver metabolism
d) lung metabolism

A

c.

107
Q

Conjugation reactions occur:

a) prior to Phase I metabolism
b) as part of Phase II metabolism
c) as part of Phase I metabolism
d) as part of entero-hepatic circulation

A

b.

108
Q

Paracetamol overdose can lead serious damage of the following organ:

a) brain
b) heart
c) liver
d) lung

A

c.

109
Q

Cocaine’s major target for its psychostimulant effects is

a) monoamine oxidase
b) dopamine receptor
c) noradrenaline transporter
d) dopamine transporter

A

d.

110
Q

Which of the following effects of drug exposure is usually associated with the development of dependence to the drug?

a) adverse side effects
b) sensitisation
c) tolerance
d) infection

A

c.

111
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the respiratory tract is CORRECT?

a) it is innervated by the sympathetic nerves which mediate broncho-constriction
b) it is innervated by the parasympathetic nerves which mediate broncho-dilation
c) it is innervated by the sympathetic nerves which mediate mucus secretion
d) it is innervated by the parasympathetic nerves which mediate mucus secretion

A

d.

112
Q

Which of the following is not a mediator of an asthma attack?

a) leukotrienes
b) neutrophils
c) prostaglandins
d) glucocorticoids

A

d.

113
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the pharmacological
action of salbutamol is CORRECT?
a) it is a non-selective adrenoceptor antagonist
b) it is a β1-adrenoceptor antagonist
c) it is a β1-adrenoceptor agonist
d) it is a β2-adrenoceptor agonist

A

d.

114
Q

The Taxanes are anticancer drugs that stabilize tubulin polymerisation, this results in:

a) block of metaphase–anaphase transition
b) failure to leave prophase
c) failure to align chromosomes on the anaphase plate
d) cells being trapped in anaphase

A

a.

115
Q

One key mechanism of action for anticancer drugs is:

a) cell wall synthesis inhibition
b) protease inhibition
c) cross-linking of DNA
d) increased mismatch repair

A

c.

116
Q

Drugs which inhibit tyrosine kinases are most likely to be used against:

a) gram positive bacteria
b) influenza viruses
c) Human immunodeficiency virus
d) chronic myeloid leukaemia cancer

A

d.

117
Q

Dermatitis is most often associated with the use of:

a) St. Johns Wort
b) Ginko Biloba
c) echinacea
d) aromatherapy

A

d.

118
Q

The main site of action of a local anaesthetic is on:

a) calcium channels
b) potassium channels
c) sodium channels
d) opioid receptors

A

c.

119
Q

Which of the following statements about drugs that act as selective inhibitors of monoamine oxidase type A is CORRECT?

a) they increase 5-HT receptor activity in the central nervous system
b) their pharmacological action is mainly restricted within the periphery
c) they are used to treat patients suffering from Schizophrenia
d) they decrease the presynaptic cellular levels of dopamine

A

a.

120
Q

Which of the following statements about functions of noradrenaline
in the central nervous system (CNS) is INCORRECT?
a) activation of CNS postsynaptic 2 adrenoceptors by noradrenaline decrease blood pressure
b) activation of CNS noradrenaline pathways can produce behavioural arousal
c) noradrenaline is not involved in manic behaviour
d) all of the above

A

c.

121
Q

Bronchoconstriction can be caused by:

a) activating adrenoceptors in the alveoli
b) blocking muscarinic receptors in the alveoli
c) decreased formation of cyclic AMP in the alveoli
d) blocking histamine receptors in the alveoli

A

c.

122
Q

Which of the following substances is NOT a regulator of acid secretion by parietal cells?

a) gastrin
b) histamine
c) acetylcholine
d) dopamine

A

d.

123
Q

Which one of the following drugs can be used to treat symptoms of nausea and vomiting?

a) dopamine (D2) receptor agonists
b) histamine (H1) receptor antagonists
c) histamine (H2) receptor agonists
d) dopamine (D1) receptor agonists

A

b.

124
Q

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of antipsychotic drugs?

a) sedation
b) hypotension
c) dry mouth
d) all of the above

A

d.

125
Q

G-protein coupled receptors depend on 2nd messengers to elicit their effects on cell function. Name 3 of these messengers and explain their role in this process.

A

a

126
Q

Describe the difference in the terms “affinity” and “efficacy” when they are applied to drugs. [3 marks

A

a

127
Q

What are the key factors that influence drug absorption across biological membranes?

A

a

128
Q

List two important organ structures that are innervated via β2 adrenoceptors. In addition, briefly describe the functional (physiological) role that β2 adrenoceptor activation plays in those organs related to homeostasis (e.g. fight or flight response). [3 marks

A

a

129
Q

Describe the dynamics of acetylcholine production, storage, release and inactivation at the synapse. Use a diagram to assist your answer if you wish. Also, name one type of drug that can prevent acetylcholine mediating its effect there.

A

a

130
Q

Match the following drug with its target site of action by clearly drawing a line across from the drug to the correctly matching target site in the adjacent column. Actions/ uses of the drug are provided as a clue. [3 marks]
Bethanechol (prokinetic) acetylcholinesterase
Cocaine (stimulant) β1 adrenoceptor
Neostigmine (antiglaucoma) uptake 1 transporter
Atenolol (antihypertensive) muscarinic receptor

A

a

131
Q

Describe briefly why drugs that block histamine (H2) or muscarinic (M1) receptors are used to treat duodenal or gastric ulcers

A

a

132
Q

What is the cell-kill fraction and why does this represent a problem in cancer therapy?

A

a

133
Q

12

9. With brief notes compare and contrast natural and synthetic medicines.

A

a

134
Q

Describe briefly why we use drugs that affect brain 5-HT levels or 5-HT receptors to treat major brain disorders.

A

a

135
Q

What is the active ingredient of Khat and what is its relevance to western drug use? [3

A

a

136
Q

Using brief notes compare and contrast the mechanisms of resistance to anticancer drugs and antiviral drugs

A

a

137
Q

Compare and contrast the use of complementary therapies by asthmatics and people with depression

A

a

138
Q

Explain why dopamine receptor antagonists should not be used to treat Parkinson’s disease patients

A

a

139
Q

With brief notes discuss the common reasons for failure of drug candidates during clinical trials.

A

a

140
Q

Discuss the physiological role that adrenaline plays in facilitating the fight or flight response, with reference to any two key organ systems that are influenced by adrenaline. Include in your answer the pharmacological basis of adrenaline’s actions (i.e. the receptors involved and cellular responses).

A

a

141
Q

Drugs act by interfering or inhibiting natural processes which are required for normal physiological function but which may have been disrupted by disease. Four classes of regulatory proteins are the targets for these drugs. What are they and what do they do?

A

a

142
Q

Some anti-viral drugs and some anti-cancer drugs share a common mechanism. Explain what this mechanism is, why it is important to both viral and cancer chemotherapy and give one example of such a therapy. If possible, also name a drug that has been used as both anti-viral and anti-cancer therapy.

A

a

143
Q

Aspirin is one of the most commonly used non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID) for many different pain conditions as well as fever. Aspirin can also cause duodenal or gastric ulcer, platelet disorders and renal function impairment. Explain why these side effects occur and suggest an alternative NSAID with reduced side effects.

A

a

144
Q

Why do we need to make better drugs? Give two examples of ways we develop better drugs and compare their strengths and limitations.

A

a

145
Q

Some patients diagnosed with depression are prescribed non-selective inhibitors of monoamine oxidase (MAO-I) and advised to avoid foods containing tyramine while taking this medicine. Explain why MAO-I are prescribed as antidepressants and the reason for the dietary restriction. Suggest another drug class of antidepressants with lesser chance for interacting adversely with tyramine containing foods

A

a

146
Q

The peripheral nervous system encompasses which of the following?

a) autonomic and somatic divisions
b) sensory and autonomic divisions
c) somatic and sensory divisions
d) motor and sensory divisions

A

d.

147
Q

The common receptor type in both autonomic divisions is:

a) adrenergic
b) nicotinic
c) muscarinic
d) dopaminergic

A

b.

148
Q

Which of the following organ systems does
not typically receive dual innervation from both autonomic divisions?
a)lung
b)vascular system
c)heart
d)bladder

A

b.

149
Q
Which of the following would
not be considered an indirectly-acting sympathomimetic?
a)pseudoephedrine
b)cocaine
c)adrenaline
d)amphetamine
A

c.

150
Q
Which one of these receptor families is normally associated with the action
of inflammatory mediators
such as cytokines?
a)type 1 ion channels
b)type 2 G-protein linked receptors
c)type 3 kinase linked receptors
d)type 4 nuclear receptors
A

c.

151
Q

The maximum response to a drug is an indication of:

a) potency
b) safety
c) selectivity
d) efficacy

A

d.

152
Q

The main site of action of opioid analgesic drugs is:

a) gamma receptors
b) mu receptors
c) sigma receptors
d) beta receptors

A

b.

153
Q

A drug which blocks monamine oxidase would:

a) enhance synaptic noradrenaline concentrations
b) block reuptake of noradrenaline via uptake 1
c) prevent the re-synthesis of noradrenaline
d) block noradrenaline binding at adrenergic receptors

A

a

154
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the respiratory tract is CORRECT?

a) it is innervated by the parasympathetic nerves which mediate bronchodilation
b) leukotriene receptor antagonists are used to reverse airway obstruction
c) it is innervated by the sympathetic nerves which mediate mucus secretion
d) prostaglandin receptor agonists are used to reverse airway obstruction

A

b

155
Q
The neurotransmitter
mainly associated with drug dependence is:
a)acetylcholine
b)5HT
c)noradrenaline
d)dopamine
A

d

156
Q
Which of the following substances is a
regulator of acid secretion by parietal cells?
a)GABA
b)5-HT
c)acetylcholine
d)dopamine
A

c

157
Q

A G-protein coupled receptor has the following trans membrane domains:

a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 7

A

d

158
Q

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of antipsychotic drugs?

a) sedation
b) hypotension
c) dry mouth
d) all of the above

A

d.

159
Q
A number of different drug groups can reduce symptoms of nausea and vomiting
after cancer chemotherapy. Those with the highest efficacy act as antagonists at
which of the following
receptors?
a)nicotine receptors
b)muscarinic receptors
c)histamine (H2) receptors
d)dopamine (H2) receptors
A

d.

160
Q

A drug is 50% ionized at pH 7.4, and 50% ionized at pH 2. This means that it will be predominately absorbed via:

a) the mouth
b) the stomach
c) the intestine
d) the stomach and intestine equally

A

d.

161
Q

Liver metabolism is a key determinant of:

a) volume of distribution
b) bioavailability
c) enterohepatic recirculation
d) absorbtion half life

A

b

162
Q

Cytochrome P450 is the key enzyme in:

a) phase I metabolism
b) phase II metabolism
c) drug export
d) enteric drug absorption

A

a

163
Q

Cisplatin anticancer drugs act mostly by:

a) block of metaphase–anaphase transition
b) tyrosine kinase inhibition
c) dihydrofolate reductase inhibition
d) guanosine cross-linking

A

d

164
Q

Hair loss is a side effect of many
anticancer drugs because:
a)they interfere with keratin synthesis
b)metal based anticancer compounds accumulate in the hair follicle
c)epidermal growth factor is critical for hair growth
d)hair follicles are sites of rapid cell division

A

d

165
Q

Drugs which inhibit neuraminidase are most likely to be used against:

a) gram positive bacteria
b) influenza viruses
c) human immunodeficiency virus
d) chronic myeloid leukaemia cancer

A

b

166
Q

The major usage of complementary medicine by the general public is for:

a) general health maintenance
b) nervous disorders
c) skin disorders
d) gastrointestinal disorders

A

a

167
Q

Local anaesthetics block:

a) calcium channels
b) potassium channels
c) sodium channels
d) dopamine receptors

A

c

168
Q
Dermatitis is most often associated with
the use of:
a)St. Johns Wort
b)Ginko Biloba
c)echinacea
d)aromatherapy
A

d

169
Q

Explain what is meant by the pharmacological term partial agonist. Use a
concentration response curve to illustrate your answer.

A

?

170
Q

Explain why some individuals in Asian populations have a severe adverse effect
when they drink alcohol.

A

?

171
Q

Describe the effects of activation of the sympathetic nervous system on the
following organ physiological responses:
[3 marks]
(i)the lungs
(ii)the heart
In each case include the target organ transmitters involved and the types of receptors involved.

A

?

172
Q

Describe the effects on the lungs arising from exposure to an organophosphate
poison, with reference to its mechanism of action.

A

?

173
Q

With a simple illustration, draw the autonomic innervation which projects to the
adrenal medulla. Include relevant transmitters and receptors in your answer.

A

?

174
Q

Using a brief sketch, show the basic
pharmacokinetic phases of drug entry into
the body
.

A

??

175
Q

Patients diagnosed with depression are prescribed indirectly-acting sympathomimetics such as uptake 1 inhibitors.
Briefly explain how these drugs
work and name TWO potential adverse effects which result
.

A

?

176
Q

In the 1920’s and 30’s, the major illnesses in hospital wards were pneumonia and meningitis. In the 80’s and 90’s, cancer and heart disease dominated. What is the reason for this change, and what factors could limit or reverse these advances?

A

?

177
Q

With a brief sketch illustrate the major sites where anti-cancer drugs act.

A

?

178
Q

Compare and contrast the use of complementary therapies by pregnant women
and healthy people.

A

?

179
Q

In drug discovery, what factors other than drug affinity and specificity must be considered?

A

?

180
Q

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID) are used for many different pain
conditions as well as fever. Some of these drugs cause platelet disorders and
gastric ulcer. Explain why these side effects occur

A

?

181
Q

With brief notes outline some reasons that people choose herbal remedies over
conventional therapeutics.

A

?

182
Q

What is the role of the Therapeutic Goods Administration in regulating herbal
medicines in Australia?

A

?

183
Q

What are the effects if an adrenoceptor antagonist is given to an Asthma patient?

A

?

184
Q

Using a detailed and labeled diagram of the adrenergic synapse, outline the cellular and molecular mechanism of action of cocaine. Include in your answer a reference to changes in neurotransmitter dynamics
arising from this drug.

A

?

185
Q

Inhibitors of Tyrosine Kinase receptors represent the largest group of small
molecule drugs recently licensed to treat cancer. Why are these drugs important in
treating cancer? What are their limitations and do they have any advantage over other anti-cancer drugs in terms of drug resistance?

A

?

186
Q

Describe the pharmacodynamic effects of amphetamines, their mechanisms of
action, and explain how this relates to their chemical structure.

A

?

187
Q

Describe why drug effects within the central nervous system are far more complex
than on the autonomic nervous system by
focussing on antidepressant and antipsychotic drugs.
Explain mechanisms of action and main side effects of these drugs.

A

?

188
Q

Compare and contrast rational drug design and combinatorial chemistry as methods of drug discovery.

A

?

189
Q

Production of gastric acid is finely regulated both by neurons and by hormones.
Describe effects of drugs that act as an agonist at histamine (H2) and muscarinic (M1) receptors on gastric acid production. Can these drugs be used to treat duodenal or
gastric ulcers? Explain your answer.

A

?