Drugs- Anticonvulsants (Kinder) Flashcards

1
Q

what is the definition of epilepsy

A

a) Definition: occurrence of at least two unprovoked seizures separated by 24 hours.
b) Results from disturbed electrical activity in the brain.
i) Neuronal hyperexcitability and hypersynchrony.

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2
Q

partial focal seizures

x3

A

simple partial

complex partial

secondarily generalized seizure

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3
Q

simple partial seizures

A

(1) Minimal spread of abnormal discharge; normal consciousness; preserved awareness.

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4
Q

complex partial seizure

the 4 a’s

A

(1) Localized onset but discharge becomes widespread; almost always involves limbic system.
(2) Patient may have automatisms (lip smacking, swallowing, fumbling, scratching), memory loss, or aberrant behavior.

A's
aura
alteration of consciousness 
automatisms
amnesia

mostly in temporal lobe

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5
Q

what are secondary generalized seizures

A

(1) Partial seizure immediately precedes a generalized tonic-clonic seizure.

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6
Q

what are the 5 main types of generalized seizures

A

generalized tonic clonic (grand mal) seizure

absence

myoclonic -(1) Brief, shock-like muscle contractions; occur in wide variety of seizures.

atonic -(1) Sudden loss of postural tone: head drop, fall to floor, slumping.
(2) Many patients wear helmets to prevent head injury.

status epilepticus

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7
Q

ii) Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure

A

(1) Sudden, sharp tonic contraction followed by rigidity and clonic movements.
(2) Patient may cry/moan, lose sphincter control, bite tongue, or develop cyanosis.
(3) After seizure, patient may have altered consciousness, drowsiness, or confusion (postictal).

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8
Q

absence seizure

A

(1) Sudden onset and abrupt cessation; altered consciousness; a blank stare.
(2) Occurs in young children through adolescence.

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9
Q

what are the goals of therapy in epilepsy

A

control seizures, avoid medication side effects, and help restore quality of life. AED treatments suppress seizures but do not cure or prevent epilepsy.

monotherapy preferred

The patient should be warned not to stop taking an AED abruptly and not to allow a prescription to run out or to expire.

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10
Q

what epilepsy drugs are considered the older, 1st generation AED’s

A

phenobarbital
phenytoin
carbamazepine
valproate

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11
Q

which antiepileptics are highly protein bound

A

phenytoin

tiagabine

valproic acid

competes with other drugs for protein binding sites; must consider patients albumin level when interpreting therapeutic levels.

other highly protein bound drugs (e.g., sulfonamides) may displace phenytoin from binding sites increasing free drug.

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12
Q

phenytoin

MOA

A

a) MOA: blocks sustained high frequency firing of action potentials due to preferential binding to and prolongation of the inactivated state of the Na+ channel (effect also seen with carbamazepine, lamotrigine, valproate). Also decreases synaptic release of glutamate and enhances release of GABA.

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13
Q

what are important considerations when giving phenytoin

A

don’t give IM - precipitates

highly protein bound

metabolism via CYP2C9-

i) Narrow therapeutic index – difference between effective and toxic doses is small.

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14
Q

ADR’s of phenytoin

A

gingival hyperplasia
hirsutism
diplopia, nystagmus
ataxia

long term use–> worsening facial features, peripheral neuropathy , osteomalacia

cardiac–> hypotension, bradycardia, arrythmia

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15
Q

how does phenytoin interact with other drugs

A

competes for metabolism through CYP2C9 & 2C19 (e.g., warfarin primarily metabolized via 2C9, interaction may lead to increased INR/increased risk of bleeding).

Phenytoin is also a potent CYP inducer (e.g., CYP3A4 increasing metabolism of oral contraceptives, increasing risk of unplanned pregnancy).

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16
Q

Carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine

MOA

A

a) MOA: actions on Na+ channels result in inhibition of high frequency repetitive firing. Also acts presynaptically to decrease synaptic release of glutamate.

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17
Q

DDI’s of carbamazepine

A

CYP inducer
increased metabolism of other drugs: primidone, phenytoin, ethosuximide, oral contraceptives, valproic acid

also induces its own metabolism
iii)t1/2 36 hours observed in subjects after an initial single dose, decreases to as little as 8-12 hours in subjects receiving continuous therapy. It is possible for patients to achieve therapeutic concentrations but have levels fall even with continued dosing and good compliance. Considerable dose adjustments expected during first weeks of therapy.

ii) Valproic acid may also inhibit carbamazepine clearance resulting in increased levels.

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18
Q

ADR’s of carbamazepine

A

diplopia, ataxia
GI upset
drowsy

hyponatremia

Blood dyscrasia- anemia, agranulocytosis, leukopenia

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19
Q

which group of individuals are at higher risk of developing carbamazepine-induced Stevens Johnson syndrome

A

iii) Carbamazepine can cause rash and rare, but serious, reactions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome. The FDA reported Asian patients that carry the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B*1502 allele have a 10X higher incidence of carbamazepine-induced Stevens Johnson syndrome compared to other ethnic groups.

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20
Q

phenobarbital MOA

A

barbituate

a) MOA: binds allosteric site on GABA receptor, enhances GABA mediated current by prolonging openings of the Cl- channels. Can also decrease excitatory responses through effect on glutamate release.

long half life 53-140 hrs

CYP inducer

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21
Q

Gabapentin and Pregabalin

A

a) MOA: analogs of GABA; despite resemblance, these agents do not act directly on GABA receptor; modify synaptic or non-synaptic release of GABA. However, main action: bind α2δ subunit of voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels, decrease Ca2+ entry, decrease synaptic release of glutamate.

ADR - sedation

22
Q

Lamotrigine

A

Na channel inactivation

a) MOA: like phenytoin, suppresses sustained rapid firing of neurons and produces a voltage- and use-dependent inactivation of Na+ channels. Also inhibits voltage-gated Ca2+ channels which would account for its efficacy in primary generalized seizures in childhood, including absence attacks.

23
Q

ADR’s of lamotrigine

A

SJS
rash

dizzy
headache
diplopia
ataxia
nausea
24
Q

DDI’s of lamotrigine

A

d) DDIs: lamotrigine concentrations may decrease with concurrent use of oral contraceptives (estrogen component), lamotrigine may also lead to contraceptive failure (progestin-only “mini-pill”).

25
Q

Levetiracetam (Keppra) MOA

A

a) MOA: binds selectively to the synaptic vesicular protein SV2A (function protein not well understood).

Modifies synaptic release of glutamate and GABA through action on vesicular function.

b) Therapeutic use: adjunct, partial seizures in adults and children; primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures; myoclonic seizures of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.
c) ADRs: somnolence, asthenia, ataxia, dizziness.
i) Less common, more serious mood and behavioral changes; psychotic reactions rare.

26
Q

Tiagabine

A

a) MOA: “rationally designed” to inhibit GABA uptake in both neurons and glia. Inhibits transporter isoform 1 (GAT-1) increases extracellular GABA levels.

27
Q

Topiramate MOA

A

a) MOA: blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels; increases frequency of Cl- channel opening by binding to GABAA receptors; reduces high-voltage Ca2+ currents (L-type channels); and it may act on glutamate/NMDA receptors.

28
Q

Ethosuximide

A

a) MOA: blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels; increases frequency of Cl- channel opening by binding to GABAA receptors; reduces high-voltage Ca2+ currents (L-type channels); and it may act on glutamate/NMDA receptors.
d) Therapeutic use: absence seizures

29
Q

ADR’s of ethosuximide

A

e) ADRs: gastric distress, including pain, nausea, and vomiting (temporary dose reduction may allow for adaptation).

30
Q

DDI of ethosuximide

A

f) DDIs: valproic acid may inhibit metabolism of ethosuximide resulting in higher concentrations.

31
Q

Valproic acid MOA

A

b) MOA: blocks sustained high-frequency repetitive firing of neurons (like phenytoin and carbamazepine); action against partial seizures due to effect on Na+ currents; blockade of NMDA receptor-mediated excitation may also be important; may result in increased levels of GABA in brain, mechanism unclear.

decreases Ca current

does all three MOA

32
Q

ADR”s of valproic acid

A

f) ADRs: nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, heartburn (start drug gradually to avoid these symptoms). GI distress *
i) Fine tremor
* frequently seen at high levels.
ii) Other reversible effects: weight gain* , increase appetite, hair loss.
iii) Idiosyncratic effects: hepatotoxicity
* (50 fatalities in US) and thrombocytopenia ***

(1) Carefully monitor liver function when first initiating valproic acid. Most fatalities occurred within 4 months of initiation.

33
Q

which benzodiazepines are used as anticonvulsants

A

clorazepate

clonazepam (oral)

diazepam *** (valium)

lorazepam (Ativan)

34
Q

benzodiazepine MOA

A

b) MOA: bind to GABAA receptors, enhance GABA-mediated Cl- influx and enhance the generation of inhibitory membrane potentials.

increase frequency

35
Q

what is the clinical significance of diazepams extremely lipophilic profile

A

i) Diazepam is extremely lipophilic; distributes to CNS within seconds when given IV but quickly redistributes to fat, results in a CNS t1/2 of < 1 hour and duration of effect < 30 minutes. A longer-acting AED must be given immediately after diazepam to prevent seizure recurrence.

36
Q

what is the therapeutic use of diazepam and lorazepam

A

status epilepticus; adjunct, myoclonic, partial, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

37
Q

ADR’s of benzo’s

A

e) ADRs: pronounced sedative effect, drowsiness, ataxia, and behavior disorders.

tolerance
dependence

38
Q

Drug of first choice for partial seizures including secondarily generalized

A

carbamazepine

  • or- Lamotrigine- Na channels
  • or- Oxcarbazepine- na channels
  • or- Levetiracetam- modifies release of GABA and glutamate
39
Q

drugs of choice for primary generalized tonic clonic seizures

A

Valproate

  • or- Lamotrigine
  • or- Levetiracetam
40
Q

drugs of choice for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

-or- Valproate

41
Q

drugs of choice for atypical absence, myoclonic, or atonic seizures

A

Valproate

  • or- Lamotrigine
  • or- Levetiracetam
42
Q

teratogenicity of antiepileptic drugs?

A

a) Children born to mothers taking AEDs have an increased risk, perhaps twofold, of congenital malformations (neural tube, congenital heart and urinary tract defects, skeletal abnormalities, and cleft palate).

43
Q

how should you administer phenytoin

A

very slowly

Give slowly b/c of Cardiac effects: hypotension, bradycardia, arrhythmia

44
Q

MOA topiramate and ADR’s

A

Na channel inactivation and increases GABA action

also used in migraines

paresthesias, nervousness, weight loss

45
Q

ADR’s of levetiracetam

A

serious mood and behavioral changes (less common)

46
Q

Drug interactions of phenytoin

A

Protein binding (sulfonamides might cause dissociation from albumin binding site)
Metabolism
Competes for metabolism CYP2C9 (warfarin) & 2C19 – so could inhibit metabolism of warfarin and increase INR
Also results in enzyme induction (oral contraceptives) increases metabolism of oral contraceptives (decreased efficacy)

47
Q

Drug interactions of carbamazepine

A

Enzyme induction (phenytoin, oral contraceptives)

48
Q

drug interactions of valproic acid

A

Enzyme inhibition (carbamazepine)- increased levels of other agents

49
Q

drug interactions of lamotrigine

A

Oral contraceptives may decrease lamotrigine concentrations – unless its progesterone only

50
Q

what is the treatment of status epilepticus

A

Status epilepticus

IV benzodiazepines – enhance GABAa CL flux
Lorazepam (Ativan)- longer duration of action than diazepam (not distributing into fat as fast)
Diazepam

IV phenytoin or fosphenytoin – more long term seizure suppression. Enhances inactivated state of voltage gated Na channels. Cardiac effects limit how fast we can give these agents

IV phenobarbital- enhances GABAa Cl flux- causes increased sedation