Drugs and more drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What receptors does Ephedrine act on?

A

α₁ + β₁+2 Agonist

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2
Q

Is Ephedrine a direct or indirect acting sympathomimetic?

A

1˚ Indirect Pressor for α₁ + β₁ stimulation; Direct β2 stim

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3
Q

Does Ephedrine have any effect on the GI system?

A

Yes. It has been known to lead to a decrease in gastric emptying.

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4
Q

What is the MOA for Ephedrine?

A

causes a release of Norepinephrine…. and ultimately stimulates calcium release by the sarcoplasmic reticulum leading to increased chronotropy/inotropy; in veins leads to constriction

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5
Q

What effects does Ephedrine have on the heart?

A

Increases Ca+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum–> increase chronotropy/inotropy–> increase PVR, which leads to increase afterload and ultimately BP

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6
Q

What effect does Ephedrine have on renal perfusion and uterine blood flow?

A

A decrease in renal perfusion can be noted; no significant alteration is seen in uterine blood flow.

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7
Q

Is the vasopressor effect of Ephedrine primarily due to increased cardiac output or peripheral vasoconstriction?

A

Its vasopressor effect results largely from increased cardiac output and to a lesser extent from peripheral vasoconstriction.

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8
Q

What is tachyphylaxis and how does it relate to Ephedrine?

A

Tachyphylaxis is a decrease in drug effect after its administration that could be due to depletion of neurotransmitter stores. Ephedrine may deplete norepinephrine stores in sympathetic nerve endings, so that tachyphylaxis to cardiac and pressor effects of the drug may develop.

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9
Q

What effect does Ephedrine have on oxygen consumption and metabolic rate?

A

Ephedrine increases oxygen consumption and metabolic rate as a probable result of central stimulation.

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10
Q

How is Ephedrine metabolized?

A

Hepatic/Renal; slowly metabolized in the liver; renal excretion is dependent on urine pH… the more acidic the urine, the quicker the elimination

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11
Q

Ephedrine can be given as IV, IM, or SQ. What is the typical dose range for each of these?

A

IV= 2.5-10mg (peds 0.1mg/kg); SQ or IM= 10-50mg

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12
Q

What is the onset, peak, and duration of IV Ephedrine?

A

O: <1 minute, P: 2-5min, D: 10-60min; IM injection usually starts working within 10-20 min

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13
Q

What receptors do phenylephrine (Neosynephrine) act on?

A

α₁ Agonist; Anti-Hypotensive

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14
Q

What sympathetic adrenergic receptor does Ephedrine bind to and agonize?

A

Gs/q-receptors

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15
Q

What sympathetic adrenergic receptor does phenylephrine bind to and agonize?

A

Gq-receptors.

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16
Q

What is the MOA for phenylephrine?

A

binds to and agonizes sympathetic adrenergic G-q receptors, ultimately stimulating Ca++ release by the sarcoplasmic reticulum. In arteries and veins it leads to vasoconstriction.

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17
Q

What effect does phenylephrine have on chronotropy and inotropy?

A

Does not effect either. Strictly elevates BP without increasing HR or contractility.

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18
Q

Why is there a noted decrease in HR with administration of phenylephrine?

A

Due to reflex bradycardia from the increase in BP. This is useful in tachycardic patients or those with a cardiomyopathy. An increase in blood pressure can be caused by increased cardiac output, increased total peripheral resistance, or both. The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus sense this increase in blood pressure and relay the information to the cardiovascular centres in the brainstem. In order to maintain homeostasis, the cardiovascular centres activate the parasympathetic nervous system. Via the vagus nerve, the parasympathetic nervous system stimulates neurons that release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) at synapses with cardiac muscle cells. Acetylcholine then binds to M2 muscarinic receptors, causing the decrease in heart rate that is referred to as reflex bradycardia.

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19
Q

What happens if phenylephrine is given through an infiltrated IV? What can be given?

A

Severe necrosis to surrounding tissues!! Damage may be prevented or mitigated by infiltrating the tissue with an alpha blocker like phentolamine by subcutaneous injection.

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20
Q

What is the dosage for phenylephrine when given as IV push or as a gtt?

A

IV push: 40-100mcg; 25-200 mcg/min

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21
Q

What is the onset, peak, and duration of phenylephrine?

A

O: <1min, P: 1min, D: 15-30min

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22
Q

What is the basic effect of Hydralazine (Apresoline) and is it direct or indirect acting?

A

a direct-acting smooth muscle relaxant used to treat hypertension by acting as a vasodilator primarily in arteries and arterioles. By relaxing vascular smooth muscle, vasodilators act to decrease peripheral resistance, thereby lowering blood pressure and decreasing afterload.

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23
Q

What is the specific hypothesized MOA of Hydralazine?

A

Precise MOA is not fully understood. Hydralazine increases cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) levels, increasing the activity of protein kinase G (PKG). Active PKG adds an inhibitory phosphate to myosin light-chain kinase (MLCK) – a protein involved in the activation of cross-bridge cycling (i.e. contraction) in smooth muscle. This results in blood vessel relaxation. It dilates arterioles more than veins.
Hydralazine requires the endothelium to provide NO (nitric oxide. ) thus only provides the effects of NO in vivo with functional endothelium. It will not work to vasodilate in vitro in an isolated blood vessel.
Hydralazine, by altering cellular calcium metabolism, interferes with the calcium movements within the vascular smooth muscle that are responsible for initiating or maintaining the contractile state.

24
Q

Why is Hydralazine usually not used as a primary drug for treating hypertension?

A

Hydralazine is not used as a primary drug for treating hypertension because it elicits a reflex sympathetic stimulation of the heart (the baroreceptor reflex). The sympathetic stimulation may increase heart rate and cardiac output, and in patients with coronary artery disease may cause angina pectoris or myocardial infarction. Hydralazine may also increase plasma renin concentration, resulting in fluid retention. In order to prevent these undesirable side-effects, hydralazine is usually prescribed in combination with a beta-blocker (e.g., propranolol) and a diuretic.

25
What effects does Hydralazine have on arterial BP, PVR, HR, SV, and CO?
The peripheral vasodilating effect of Hydralazine results in decreased arterial blood pressure (diastolic more than systolic), decreased peripheral vascular resistance, and an increased heart rate, stroke volume, and cardiac output. The preferential dilatation of arterioles, as compared to veins, minimizes postural hypotension and promotes the increase in cardiac output.
26
If you have a patient with CAD and need to give Hydralazine, what should you give them first?
Give a β agonist (propanalol) to ⬇CO and blunt the reflex tachycardia.
27
Why should you wait approximately 15-30 minutes prior to re-bolusing a patient with Hydralazine?
The average maximal decrease in blood pressure usually occurs 10 to 80 minutes after administration of Hydralazine Hydrochloride Injection. No other pharmacokinetic data on Hydralazine Hydrochloride Injection are available.
28
What are some major contraindications to giving Hydralazine?
Hypersensitivity to hydralazine; coronary artery disease; mitral valvular rheumatic heart disease.
29
What is the typical dose of Hydralazine when giving IM or IV? Onset? Duration?
20-40mg; O: 5-20min, D: 2-24hr; Again.... not much is understood in regards to its pharmacokinetics.
30
How is Hydralazine metabolized?
Hepatic acetylation + Hydroxylation; Renal excretion.
31
What is the most potent alpha receptor activator?
Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
32
What receptors does epinephrine work on?
α1+2 + β₁+2 Agonist; Binds to and agonizes sympathetic adrenergic Gs/i/q-receptors. Direct β then α Stimulation w/ increasing dose
33
What class of drugs does epinephrine belong to?
sympathomimetic; It activates an adrenergic receptive mechanism on effector cells and imitates all actions of the sympathetic nervous system except those on the arteries of the face and sweat glands. Epinephrine acts on both alpha and beta receptors and is the most potent alpha receptor activator.
34
What is the infusion rate for epinephrine?
2-20 mcg/min; 0.5mg IV during CPR
35
What effect does epinephrine have on Chronotropy, Dromotropy, Inotropy? CO? PVR?
increased Chrono/Drmo/InoTpy => increased CO/ O2 Metab; increased PVR/afterload/BP
36
For anaphylaxis, if any BP is present start epinephrine at ______ mcg/kg IVP
1mcg/kg IVP
37
How is epinephrine metabolized?
metabolism by monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO) (family of enzymes found bound to outer membrane of mitochondria that catalyze the oxidation of monoamines) and catechol-O-methyl tranferase (COMT) (involved in the inactivation of catecholamine neurotransmitters---dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine--- the enzyme introduces a methyl group to the catecholamine
38
What is the onset, peak, and duration of epinephrine?
O: 0.5min, P: 3min, D: 10min
39
What is the word to describe how the body processes a drug through: absorption, distribution, biotransformation, and excretion?
pharmacokinetics
40
What word is used to describe the study of how a drug works on the body?
pharmacodynamics
41
NOTE: Vessel rich groups (highly perfused organs) receive a large amount of the cardiac output, and therefore a disproportionate amount of a given drug within the first few minutes. These tissues approach equilibrium with the plasma concentration more quickly than less perfused tissues. However, less well perfused tissues such as fat and skin may have an enormous capacity to absorb lipophilic drugs, resulting in a large reservoir of drug following long infusions.
Vessel rich (brain, heart, kidneys, endocrine gland)= 75% of CO; Muscle= 19% of CO; Fat= 6 % of CO; Vessel poor (bone, ligament, cartilage)= 0%
42
Explain how drug molecules follow the law of mass action.
if plasma concentration exceeds the concentration in tissue, the drug moves into the tissue; if there is more in the tissue, the drug moves back into the plasma
43
Describe bound and unbound drugs and how they relate to "free" drug concentrations and onset.
all molecules in the blood are either free or bound to plasma proteins and lipids; the free concentration equilibrates between organs and tissues; as unbound drug moves into the tissues it is immediately replaced by a previously bound drug molecule; a drug highly bound for tissue, will have a large free drug concentration driving the drug into the tissue; highly protein bound drugs will bind in the blood and have a quicker onset; d\t a higher level of binding in the blood relative to tissue, fewer molecules need to transfer into the tissue to produce an effective free drug concentration
44
What effect does albumin and alpha-1 glycoprotein levels have on drugs?
albumin binds many acidic drugs (barbiturates), whereas alpha-1 glycoprotein binds basic drugs (local anesthetics); if protein levels are low and sites are occupied by other drugs, the the solubility of drugs decrease, increasing tissue uptake.
45
What are some causes of increased or decreased albumin and alpha-1 glycoprotein levels?
kidney disease, liver disease, CHF, and malignancies decrease albumin production; trauma (including surgery), infection, MI, and chronic pain increase AAG levels; pregnancy decreases AAG levels
46
What is redistribution and how does it slow the decline of plasma drug concentration?
after IV bolus administration, rapid distribution from the plasma into peripheral tissues causes a profound decrease in plasma concentration for the first few minutes.... then during redistribution, the drug returns from some of the peripheral tissues back into the plasma.... slowing the rate of decline in plasma drug concentration.
47
Why is drug action continued sometimes for many hours following the discontinuation of prolonged infusions?
d\t redistribution..... this is the reason that drug half lives are clinically useless
48
Context sensitive half time is more relevant than half-lives in the clinical setting. What is context sensitive half time?
it is the time required for 50% decrease in plasma drug concentrations to occur following a pseudo steady state infusion; the "context" is the duration of infusion
49
Although it is not clinically relevant, what is the formula for volume of distribution (Vd)?
Vd= bolus dose/concentration (at time 0)
50
What is pharmacodynamics?
the study of how the drug affects the body; involves the concepts of potency, efficacy, and therapeutic window
51
What 3 factors affect the anesthetic uptake?
solubility in the blood, alveolar blood flow, and the difference in partial pressure between alveolar gas and venous blood
52
Name the blood gas coefficients of nitrous, isoflurane, desflurane, and sevoflurane.
blood gas solubility for N20= 0.47 (means that blood has 47% of the capacity for nitrous oxide as alveolar gas; isoflurane= 1.4; desflurane= 0.42; sevoflurane= 0.65
53
What factors will speed recovery from an anesthetic?
elimination of rebreathing, high fresh gas flows, low anesthetic circuit volume, low absorption by the anesthetic circuit, high cerebral blood flow, and increased ventilation
54
How can you effectively prevent diffusion hypoxia?
by administering 100% oxygen for 5-10 minutes after discontinuing N2O; this occurs because the elimination of N2O is so rapid that alveolar oxygen and CO2 are diluted
55
What is the rule called that observed that the anesthetic potency of inhalation agents correlates directly with their lipid solubility?
Meyer-Overton rule
56
What is a MAC in relation to inhaled anesthetics?
minimum alveolar concentration of an inhaled anesthetic is the alveolar concentration that prevents movement in 50% of patients in response to a standardized stimulus (surgical incision). It is useful because it mirrors brain partial pressure.
57
What is the effect of age on the MAC of an anesthetic?
there is a 6% decrease in MAC per decade of age, regardless of volatile anesthetic.