Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology II Exam II > Drugs Affecting the GI PowerPoint > Flashcards

Drugs Affecting the GI PowerPoint Flashcards

1
Q

THe glands that Trina talked about secrete mucus, pepsinogen, bicarbonate, hydrocholoric acid (HCL), intrinsic factor, gastrin, serotonin, and hormonal products are:

A
  • Gastrin producing cells=gasrin (hormone)
  • Parietal Cells=HCL acid, intrinsic factor
  • Chief Cells=pepsinogen=pepsin (enzyme)
  • Mucus producing cells=mucus
  • Enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL)=histamine
  • D-cells=somatostatin (inhibititory slows everything down)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What hormone causes the production of HCL and pepsinogen and what three factors stimulate that hormone to initiate the above said process:

A

Gastrin causes HCL and pepsinogen initiated by three factors:

  1. Sight/smell/taste–>vagus nerve
  2. Distension of the stomach
  3. Partially digested protein or caffeine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What occurs when there’s food in the stomach:

A

Food in the stomach causes the release of histamine

  • Chyme enters the duodenum, gastrin is released, fats in the duodenum, inhibitory hormones are released
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

FYI: Body produces about how much in gastric secretions and how long does it take for the stomach to empty of its contents:

A
  • 0.5-3 L of secretions
  • Diets high in fats takes about 2 h for the stomach to empty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is chyme produced:

A

the fats slow stomach emptying, mixes w/alkaline juices in duodenum to neutralize acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are (or what do they do) pancreatic juices:

A

enzymes that breakdown nutrients

  • Amylase breaks down carbs
  • Lipase breaks down fats
  • Protease breaks down protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does bile secreted from the liver do:

A

Bile salts emulsify fats to improve digestion aiding in the breakdown of fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the general antiulcer (and issues of the upper GI) drugs that I need to know for the test:

A
  • antaicds
  • H2 Receptor Antagonist (blocker)
  • Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)
  • Pepsin Inhibitor
  • Prostaglandin Analog
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the action of antacids:

A

Antacids are alkaline which will neutralize gastric acidity by increasing the pH to interfere with pepsin activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the anteacids that I need to know for the exam, how are they excreted, and when are they Rx/used:

A

Amp and 3 Ms

Amphojel, Maalox, Mylanta, MOM

  • Rx for indegestion (bloated feeling), heart burn (R/O from chest pain first), GERD, PUD (peptic ulcer disease), hyperphosphatemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the GI effects and the caution of the antacids:

A
  • MOM (mg hydroxide) GI=diarrhea; Caution=excretes high Mg in urine, excreted in breast milk
  • Maalox and Mylanta (Aluminum Mg) GI=no diarrhea/constipation; caution=no caution
  • Amphojel (aluminum hydroxide) GI=constpation; cauton=h_ypophostameia d/t binding to dietary phosphate,_ Aluminum toxicity causing decreased LOC and RENAL PROBLEMS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why are antacids given 2 hrs apart from other medications and why are antacids administered 1 (+) h prior to enteric-coated tablets:

A
  • antacids increases the pH (gastric secretions becomes more alkaline) thus affecting the absorption of most medications in the GI
  • Antacids causes premature dissolution of enteric-coated tabs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What labs are most important to assess prior and after the administration of antacids:

A

electrolyte imbalances: Mg, Al, phosphate

also assess changes in elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the nsg teachings when administering antacids:

A
  • Take antacids 1-3 h after meals (when gastric secretions are the highest)
  • Take antacids 1 h apart before taking enteric coated tablets
  • drink water to dilute the chalkiness
  • shake suspension well
  • pts w/HF or HTN should look for antacids with low-Na content as the ones I need to know for the test are high in Na
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the actions of H2 receptor antagonist:

A

H2 receptor antagonists inhibit gastric acid secretion by inhibiting the action of histamine at H2 receptors in the parietal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the type of H2 receptor antagonists that I need to know for the test and what are there indications:

A

The 3 “-dines”

  1. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
  2. Famotidine (Pepcid)
  3. Ranitidine (Zantac)

H2 receptor antagonists are Rx for pts UGIB (upper GI bleed), GERD, Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome (ZES is a rare condition where pts develop pancreatic/duodenum tumors which leaks gastric HCL acid and causes ulcers-not caused by foods), PUD (peptic ulcer disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the S/S and caution when taking Rx H2 receptor blockers:

A
  • S/S: most common are neurologic (HA, dizziness, confusion)
  • Caution: Elderly (d/t the neurological S/S), impaired renal/hepatic function, pregnancy/breast feeding (fetal developmental issues)
  • Take 2 h apart if also taking w/antacids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the adverse reactions with Cimetidine:

A

Psychosis issues:

  • N_eurological: hallucination, severe depression, paranoia, psychosis (never give this med to the elderly)_
  • toxicity d/t drug interactions
  • NEVER GIVEN rapid infusion d/t arrhythmias and decreased BP

Cimetidine is NEVER PUSHED; only IVPB and infused for over an hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the adverse effects with Famotidine and Ranitidine:

A
  1. Famotidine: hematological effects (Neutropenia; long-term use=thrombocytopenia)
  2. Ranitidine: hematological effects (Leukopenia, thromboycytopenia, impotence)

these meds can be pushed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the important NSG assessments when pts are taking H2 receptor antagonisrs:

A

Labs: AST/ALT/BUN/Cr d/t the H2 receptor antagonist meds efffects

LOC assessments d/t the H2 receptor antagonist nerological effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some important pt teaching when taking H2 receptor antagonists meds:

A
  • To take 2 h apart if taking antacids
  • avoid tasks that require alertness during initial Tx w/H2 receptor antagonists meds until LOC can be assessed for S/S
  • Avoid smoking, ASA, caffeine, EtOH will undermine the efectiveness of the H2 receptor antagonist
  • Report HA, persistance of GI symptoms (means that they need a new Dx if not resolved by H2 meds)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the action on the body when taking a proton pump inhibitor:

A

The PPI blocks gastric acid secretions by inhibiting enzyme system (H+/K+ ATPase), the proton pump in the parietal cells

This disables that ATPase enzyme pump from pumping out acid. The pump takes a few days for it to duplicate itself so that it may pump out acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the PPIs (proton pump inhibitor) that I need to know for my exam and when are they Rx:

A

The 3-Ps

  1. Prevacid
  2. Protonix
  3. Prilosec

The proton pump inhibitor are Rx for PUD (petic ulcer disease), GERD, ZES, esophagitis, H.pylori infection, NSAID ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the important caution and S/S when taking proton pump inhibitor (PPIs):

A
  • Caution: Liver pt (meds are metabolized in the liver), pregnant, lactating women
  • S/S: GI issues are rare but is linked to increase C.diff risk
  • Adverse: long-term use causes hypomg and hip fx (these effects are very rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some important NSG assessments in pts on proton pump inhibitors:

A
  • Assess theraputic response: if pt is not getting any better, than pt needs a new Dx
  • Labs: Mg and liver
  • Taken: EMPTY STOMACH and don’t CRUSH OR CHEW capsules
  • Cause absorption issues with: sucralfate/phenytonin/amx/digoxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the action of a Pepsin Inhibitor:

A

Pepsin Inhibitor acts like a bandage barrier that protects damaged gastric mucosa. It forms a adhesive barier at the ulcer site via binding with proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the Pepcin inhibiting drugs that I need to know for the exam and what are the reasons they are Rx:

A

“fate”

sucralfate (Carafate) is Rx for ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the S/S and interactions needed to know about pepsin inhibitors:

A
  • S/S: constipation d/t elimination in the urine as whole
  • Interactions: sucralate is given 2 h apart from other meds d/t affecting absorption
  • Sucralate becomes less effective if taken with antacids d/t action of the antacids (1-3 h apart)
  • Give sucralfate 1 h before meals and HS
  • PPIs are given 30 min apart from sucralfate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the action of prostaglandin analogs:

A

Prostaglandin analogs decrease gastric acid secretion and increases mucus and bicarbonate production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the examples of Prostaglandin analog drugs that I need to know and when are they Rx:

A

(Remeber PG meds for cervix)

Cytotec (misoprostol) is Rx for ulcers d/t NSAID therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the S/S, contrainindications needed to know for prostaglandin analog:

A
  • S/S: BLACK BOX WARNING d/t causing harm to fetus and severe diarrhea to babies from breast feeding (class X)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the leading cause of PUD (peptic ulcer disease) and how is it contracted:

A

H. pylori therapy can be contracted from wither kissing or contaminated water bottles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the 1st line of therapy for H. pylori (PUD):

A

7-10 day therapy utilizing 1 PPI and 2 axb and is about 91 (+)% effective if pts remain compliant to length/duration of Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the 2nd line of H.pylori (PUD) and why is there a 2nd line tx:

A
  • The 2nd line Tx for H.pylori (PUD) is 1 PPI, 2 (different abx from previous tx) abx, and Bismuth=98% effective
  • 2nd Tx occurs d/t noncompliance of 1st line Tx and H.pylori may be resistant to previous abx.
  • Bismuth is used to bind to the bacterial wall and gets excreted
35
Q

What ar e the types of Abx used in the Tx of H.pyloi (PUD):

A
  • flagyl
  • Amx
  • tetracyclines
  • Biaxin
36
Q

What is Prevpac:

A

Prevpac is a pill container containing Prevacid, Biaxin, Amx in the tx of H.pylori (PUD) to help w/compliance and to keep track of medications

37
Q

What are the common causes of N/V:

A
  • Motion sickness
  • Infection
  • Pain
  • Drugs
  • shock
  • Pregnancy
  • Gastric mucosal irritation
  • Radiation
  • Chemotherapy
38
Q

How do the cerbral center (CTZ) cause N/V:

A

Chemorecepto Trigger Zone (CTZ) receives impulses from drugs, toxins, and vestibular center in the ear inducing N/V

39
Q

How does the cerbral center for m the medulla cause N/V:

A

The vomiting center of the medulla receives impulses from the CTZ, the senses (sight, odor, taste), and gastric disturbances inducing N/V

40
Q

What are the N/V neurotransmitters that affect the vestibular center (inner ear):

A

histamine (H1) and acetylcholine

41
Q

What are the N/V neurotransmitters that stimulates the CTZ and Vomiting Center of the mudulla:

A

Serotonin and Dopamine

42
Q

What are the general terms for the types of antiemetics that work on the vestibular center that I need to know for the test and what are the actions on the body:

A

Antihistamines and anticholinergics reduce motion sickness by inhibiting impulses from the inner ear to the vestibular pathway

43
Q

What are the names of antihistamines and anticholinergics that work on the inner ear of the vestibular pathway that I need to know for the exam

A
  • OTC antihistamine: meclizine (Antivert) and Dramamine (taken 1 h prior to motion)
  • Rx Anticholinergic: Transderm Scop (applied behind the ear 4 h in advance to motion sickeness and lasts for up to 3 days
44
Q

What are the S/S and contrainindications when takingvestibular pathway antihistamines or anticholinergics:

A
  • S/S: anticholergic symtoms exhibited in both meds (Blurred visin, dry mouth, urinary retention)
  • Contrainindicated: Transderm Scop is contrainindicated in glaucoma pts d/t increased damage to the eyes
45
Q

What antiemetic works on the CTZ and the Vomiting Center and what is the action on the body:

A
  • Dopamine antagonists blocks the doamine receptors in the brain that causes N/V
  • Serotonin Antagonists blocks serotonin (5-HT3) receptors in the brain and blocks the vagal nerve terminals of the GI tract that causes N/V
46
Q

What are the names of the Dopamine antagonists that I need to know for my exam and what are the side effects of these Dopamine antgonists:

A
  • Compazine, Thorazine, Phenergan, Reglan
  • S/S: sedation, severe hypotension, extrapyramidal symptom (EPS is a muscle movement disorder that causes twitching of the face/neck or the feeling to want to come out of one’s skin), and anticholinergic effects (blurred vision, dry mouth, urinary retention)
47
Q

What do I need to know about Reglan:

A
  • Reglan is a dopamine antagonist that’s a prokinetic d/t it increasing gasric emptying and LES tone to stave off N/V from d/t anesthesia, pregnancy, and DM gastroparesis
  • alters absorption of other meds d/t changes in GI motility
  • Dopamine antagonist S/S: sedation=severe hypotension, extrapyramidal symptom (EPS is a muscle movement disorder that causes twitching of the face/neck and may be irreversable), anticholonergic effects (blurred vision, dry mouth,urinary irritation)
48
Q

What do I need to know about Compazine and Thorazine:

A

Phenothiazines (anti-psychotic)

  • Compazine is a dopamine antagonist to reduce SEVERE N/V d/t severe post-op or chemo and is given in sm doses d/t being an anti-psychotic
  • Thorazine is a dopamine antagonist that reduces NAUSEA and intractable hiccups and is given in small doses d/t being an anti-psychotic
49
Q

What do I need to know about Phenergan:

A

Phenergan is a dopamine antagonist and antihistamine best used for MOTIONsickness as well as severe N/V from post-op/chemo induced and has a sedative effect

50
Q

What are the names of serotonin antagonist that I need to know for my exam and what is the action on the body:

A
  • Serotonin antagonist blocks the 5-HT3 receptors (serotonin receptors) in the VC (vomiting center) and the vagal nerve terminals in the GI tract
  • Zofran, Kytril, Anzemet
51
Q

When are the serotonn antagonists Rx and what are the S/S:

A
  • Zofran, Kytril, and Anzemet are Rx for severe N/V, chemo, radiation, pre/post anesthesia, pregnancy
  • zofran, Kytril, Anzemet S/S: HA (the most common S/S is only HA)/dizziness/fatigue, constipation/diarrhea
52
Q

FYI on serotonin antagonists:

A

These drugs are better for pts than the dopamine antagonist d/t the most common S/S of HA.

There is a RARE hyper reaction of bronchospasms and anaphylaxic shock, but very rare

53
Q

What do I need to know about Ipecac syrup (OTC) emetic:

A
  • Ipeacac is an emetic that acts on the CTZ to induce vomiting for non-caustic agents (non-caustic agents will cause burning, so this med will induce vomiting which will cause more burning)and non-petrleum agents
  • We RARELY ever use it d/t: cardiotoxicity(hypotension, tachycardia, chest pain)
  • Alternatives to Ipecac: charcoal, antidotes, gastric levage
54
Q

What do I need to know about Adsorbent:

A
  • activated charcoal is an adsorbent that attracts and binds to toxins in the GI tract which prevents absorption
  • Activated charcoal is secreted whole, so “if it goes in black, it comes out black” (ask pt with stools that may appear bloddy if they’re taking charcoal as this adsorbant may make the color of the stool appear to be bloody)
  • Contrainindicated: mineral acids, iron, akalines, cyanide, eth/methanol, organic solvents
55
Q

Why are oral meds given IV/subQ/IM when a pt is on activated charcoal and what are the S/S of taking activated charcoal:

A

Activated charcoal is an adsorbant which interferes w/the absorption of oral meds

activated charcoal S/S: constipation and blk stool

56
Q

What are the common causes of constipation:

A
  • Inadequate fluid intake
  • poor dietary habits
  • inactivity/bedrest
  • ignoring the urge to deficate (will cause more H2O to move to the colon)
  • Left that the pendants
  • Neurological issues
  • effects of other drugs
57
Q

What are the Tx for the prevention of constipation and when is it Rx:

A

Laxatives (AKA cathartics) are Rx for prep of surgical/radiological/endoscopic procedures

58
Q

When are laxatives/cathartics contrainindicated:

A

Laxatives/cathartics are contrainindicated: persistant/severe abd pain of unknown cause especially when accompanied by a fever as this could mean an:

  • appendicitis, obstruction, fecal impactation
  • ulcerative colitis, diverticulitis

Both causes may incrase the risk of???

59
Q

What are the types of laxatives/cathartics that I need to know for the exam:

A
  • Osmotics (saline) laxatives
  • Hyperosmotic laxatives
  • stimulant laxatives
  • bulk forming laxatives
  • emollients (stool softeners)
  • Lubercant Laxatives
60
Q

What is the action of osmotic laxatives:

A
  • Osmotic (saline) laxatives draws water into the bowel, increasing the bulk of intestinal contents and stimulating peristalsis
61
Q

What are the names of the osmotic laxatives I need to know for my exam:

A
  • Magnesium citrate
  • MOM
  • Phospho-Soda
  • Go-lytely
  • Miralax
  • Fleets enema
62
Q

What are the S/S when on Osmotic Laxatives:

A

S/S: cramps, distention, flatulence, belcing

63
Q

What do I need to know about MG citarate, MOM, phospho-soda, go-lytely, miralax and what labs should I assess:

A
  • Mg citrate and MOM are Mg based and will cause constipation
  • Phospho-soda requires that a pt to have excellent Renal F(x) d/t the damage phosph-soda will cause on the kidneys
  • Go-lytely requires that a pt take this with a gallon of water w/in 3 hrs=pt unlikely to have F&E imbalance
  • Miralax is given in sm doses for regulation of the bowel and prevention of constipation
  • Labs: fluiid and electrolytes
64
Q

What are the names of the hyperosmotic laxatives that I need to know for the exam and what is the action and who’s this Rx for:

A

Lactulose works by softening stools via increasing the water content of stools Rx for pts w/hepatic encephalopathy (pts w/ liver failur have higher levels of ammonia=coma)

65
Q

How often is lactulose is taken and what types of pts would you caution when taking lactulose:

A
  • Lactulose taks 48 hrs before a pt will have a BM
  • BM goal is 3-4/day
  • Used cautiously in hepatic failure pts with DM as glucose can increase (monitor glucose levels)
66
Q

What are the names of stimulant laxatives needed to know for the exam and what is the action:

A

Senna, bisacodyl, and castor oil stimulates perstalsis and water reabsorption from intestine.

67
Q

What are the risks in taking stimulant laxatives:

A
  • Senna causes urine to turn pink/red/brown/bloody color
  • Senna and bisacodyl works w/in 6-12 h
  • Castor oil causes cramping
  • Senna, bisacodyl, castor oil causes dependence, decreased colonic motility
68
Q

What are the names of bulk forming laxatives, action, and when are they Rx:

A

Citrucel, Metamucil, polycarbophil are bulk forming laxatives that increases water content of stools forming a viscous solution that promotes peristalsis and improves transit time. Rx for managing chronic watery diarrhea

69
Q

What are the adverse reactions that I need to know about bulk forming laxatives:

A
  • Adverse: esophagel or intestinal obstruction (make certain to drink lots of fluids to avoid obstruction
  • metamucil is wheat based and may cause anaphylaxis to those w/wheat allergies
  • Make certain that the bulk forming laxatives are mixed w/water to prevent choking
70
Q

What are the names of emollients (stool Softeners) that I need to know for the exam and what is the action:

A

Colace is an emollient (stool softener) that allows more fluid to penetrate feces producing a softer fecal mass

71
Q

When are emollients (stool softeners) Rx and what other info should I know about it:

A
  • Colace is Rx for post MI/rectal surgery
  • Tell the pt not to strain
72
Q

What are the names of the lubricant laxatives that I need to know for the exam and what is the action:

A
  • mineral oil is a lubercant laxative that increases water retention in stool, prevents water absorption from stool, and LUBRICATES/soften intestinal content
73
Q

When is lubricant laxatives Rx and what are the adverse reactions:

A
  • Mineral oil is Rx for the elderly
  • Adverse reactions: lipid PNA (accidential inhalation), nutrtional deficiencies (A, D, E, K d/t mineral oil preventing the absorption of fatty vitamins and body stores (in the liver) will be depleted
74
Q

What are the Nsg responsibilities for assessing a pt taking laxatives:

A

Assess:

  • abd pain/distension/N/V
  • frank/occult bleeding
  • BS and characteristics/freq of stool
  • monitor F/E imblances
75
Q

What are the Nsg responsibilities when teaching a pt who’s Rx laxatives:

A

Teaching:

  • short term use (especially laxatives d/t decrease/lazy motility
  • risk of dependence/permanent loss of colonic motility
  • increase dietary fiber/fluids/excercise
76
Q

What are the common causes of diarrhea:

A
  • IBD - Crohn’s ulcerative colitis
  • Bacteria - E. coli
  • spoiled/spicy foods
  • Drug reactions
  • toxins
  • stress/anxiety
  • fecal impactation
  • intestinal tumor
  • laxative abuse
  • malabsorption syndrome
77
Q

What are the general categories of antidiarrheals taken and what is the main action:

A
  • opiates/opiate-related agents (slows)
  • adsorbents (firms up)
  • Somatostatin analog

Short term Tx (2 days; if > 2 days, then diarrhea is caused by something else)

Main action of antidiarrheals is to decrease hypermotility by allowing fluids to be reabsorbed

78
Q

What are the names of antidiarrheal - Opiate/Opiate related that I need to know for the exam:

A
  • Diphenoxylate w/atropine (Diphenoxylate is an opiate and atropine is an anticholinergic that’s added to the opiate to prevent abuse of the opiate)
  • Imodium is OTC
79
Q

When are opiate/opiate related Rx and what are the S/S that I need to know for the exam:

A

Diphenoxylate w/Atropine

  • Rx for traveler’s diarrhea
  • contrainindicated: <2 yo (opiate d/t RR); lactating women, hepatic failure pts (won’t be metabolized), glaucoma
  • Contrainindicated: CNS & respiratory depression (elderly & <2 yo)

Imodium (not a true opiate)

  • Rx for non-specific diarrhea (stress/IBS)
  • Contrainindicated: ulcerative colitis d/t increase risk of toxic “mega” colon (colon wants to explode)
80
Q

What are the names of Adsorbents antidiarrheal that I need to know for the exam and what is the action:

A

Bismuth subsalicylate (pepto-bismol/Kaopectate)

ASA ingredient=salicytate

  • Bismuth subsalicylate reduces fluid content in stool and absorbs toxin/bacteria
81
Q

When are adsorbents Rx and wht are the S/S that I need to know for the exam:

A
  • Bismuth subsalicylate is an adsorbent Rx for the prevention/Tx of traveler’s diarrhea/indigestion
  • S/S: temporary darkening tongue/stool (black to green color); Reye’s syndrome (shouldn’t be given to chldren recovering from a viral infection
82
Q

What is the name of the antidiarrheal Somatostatin Analog and what is it’s action:

A

Sandostatin is a somatostatin analog that inhibits the production of gastric secretions and intestinal fluids, decreases sm muscle contractility (slows everything down)

83
Q

When is a somatostatin analog Rx and what are the S/S:

A
  • Sandostatin is Rx for severe diarrhea d/t metastic CA/GI bleeds that leads to death
  • S/S: GB abnormalities, hypo/hyperglycemia, hypothyroidism, bradycardia

Pharmacology II Exam II (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions