Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Sieve

A
C - class
U - use
P -presentation
A - action
D - dose
O - onset/offset
R - routes
S - side effects
E - everything else
T - toxicity
Kinetics - Absorption/Distribution/Metabolism/Excretion
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2
Q

Template

A
C - 
U - 
P -
A -
D -
O -
R -
S -
E -
T -
A - . D - . M - . E - .
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3
Q

Thiopentone

A

C - barbiturate
U - induction of anaesthesia / adjunctive management of status epilepticus
P - a hygroscopic yellow powder containing thiopental sodium and 6% sodium carbonate, stored under nitrogen gas. It is reconstituted in water to give a 2.5% solution. pH 10.8 and pKa 7.6.
A - barbiturates work by mimicking inhibitory GABAa-mediated Cl- influx at the GABAa r. also at other receptors (non-NMDA glutamate)
D - 3-7mg/kg IV for induction. 250mg boluses for status.
O - onset in 1 arm-brain circulation time. lasts for 5-15mins.
R - IV (and PR?)
S - CV-negative inotrope so decreases CO. Resp-depressant / Doesn’t suppress laryngeal reflexes so not ideal for LMA / CNS- reduces ICP and lowers cerebral metabolic rate and may improve outcomes in TBI / extravasation may lead to tissue necrosis / Inadvertent intra-arterial injection will lead to thrombosis / if mixed with acidic drugs (morphine) it will precipitate.
E - may induce porphyria crisis.
T - may induce porphyria crisis.
ADME - A? / D-highly protein bound (65-85%) + highly lipid soluble/ M- liver oxidised. short duration of action is not due to metabolism but rapid distribution into other compartments / E-in the urine as inactive metabolite.

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4
Q

Propofol

A

C - a phenol derivative - 2,6 di-isopropylphenol
U - induction of anaesthesia / maintenance of anaesthesia / sedation / status epilipticus
P - a white emulsion of propofol in soybean oil, egg phosphatide, benzyl alcohol and sodium hydroxide. At a pH of 7-8.5. Stable at RT.
A - multiple actions. potentiates GABAa / inhibits AchRs in the hippocampus / others.
D - 1-2.5mg/kg for induction. 4-12mg/kg/hr as infusion. dose reductions in elderly or unstable.
O - onset 30s. offset 5-10 mins.
R - IV
S - pain on injection / hypotension due to decreased SVR / apnoea
E - CV- marked hypotension due to decreasedSVR. attenuates response to laryngoscopy. works as antiemetic.
T - ppf infusion syndrome-prolonged infusions on ITU, esp pads. rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis and MOF. Green urine and hair.
ADME - D-98% protein bound in plasma. distribution based on 3 compartment model . M-liver. rapid. conjugated into inactive metabolite. may also be some extra hepatic metabolism in the lungs. E-in urine. takes longer in RF.

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5
Q

Ketamine

A

C - a phencyclidine derivative
U - induction of anaesthesia (dissociative - between the limbic and the thalamoneocortical systems) / procedural sedation / analgesia / adjunct in rx-resistant asthma
P - clear colourless solution of racemic ketamine. equal mix of S and R enantiomers. Comes in 10/50/100mg/ml concentrations.
A - non-competitive antagonist of NMDAr. also inhibits pre-synaptic release of glutamate (probs analgesic mechanism). Also complex interaction with opioid receptors.
D - for dissociation IV 1-2mg/kg. IM 4mg/kg. 0.25mg IV for analgesia.
O - IM onset 2-8mins, lasts 10-20mins. IV onset 30s, lasts 5-10mins.
R - IV / IM / PO / PR / IN / epidural
S - CV- tachycardia and inc BP. RS-mild stimulant and relaxes bronchial smooth muscle. CNS- emergence delirium.dilated pupils and inc tone. Some ?concern over raised ICP and intra-ocular pressure. GI-hypersalivation. PONV.
E - S isomer 4x greater affinity for the NMDAr than R with twice the potency as an analgesic. S enantiomer is preservative free so can be given in epidural / Helps to prevent chronic pain and opioid tolerance.
T -
ADME - A-bioavailabilty 25% oral, 25-50% nasal, 95% IM. D- 20-50% protein bound. Vd large 3L/kg. can be given TCI with 3C model. M-liver by CYP450. E-in urine as conjugated metabolites. t1/2 2.5hours.

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6
Q

Etomidate

A

C - imidazole derivative
U - induction of anaesthesia
P - clear colourless solution of 2mg/ml etomidate in propylene glycol and water. Weak base. pH 8.1. pKa 4.2.
A - inhibits GABA type A receptors.
D - 0.3mg/kg IV.
O - onset 10-60s, offset 6-10mins. halve dose for elderly.
R - IV
S - pain on injection, PONV. safety issues - not to be used in critically ill as infusion as increases mortality. also not to be used in adrenal insufficiency as inhibits steroid production.
E - CV-relatively cardiostable. RS-resp depression. CNS-myoclonic movements. Also-inhibits platelet function.
T -
ADME - D- 75% protein bound. vd 4.5 l/kg. M- rapid by plasma and hepatic esterases. E- Approx 80% in urine. Rest in bile.

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7
Q

Nitric Oxide

A

C - anaesthetic gas
U - analgesic / sedation / to supplement anaesthesia
P - stored in french blue cylinders as a vapour over liquid.
A - inhibits NMDA receptors in the CNS
D - n/a
O - rapid onset and offset.
R - inhalational as an addition to anaesthetic gas or as a 50:50 mix O2 for Entonox.
S - N+V / hypoxic mixture (2nd gas effect) / B12 inhibition causing megaloblastic changes in BM if prolonged use / increased CBF so avoid in neurosurg / very slight rest + CVS depression.
E - MAC 103% / blood:gas coefficient 0.47 so rapid effect / Critical temp 36.5 / SVP 52000kPa
T - contraindicated in PTHX as N20 diffuses from blood into gas filled spaces / eye+middle ear surgery (same reason) /

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8
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

C - benzodiazepine. classified based on duration of action. oxazopam (short) / temaz+loraz (medium) / diaz+clonaz (long)
U - sedation / anxiolysis / anticonsulsant / muscle relaxant / amnesia
P - diaz as emulsion in intralipid / loraz in propylene glycol / midday @ ph 3 to make it water soluble.
A - GABAa agonists affecting Cl- influx. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter so BZDs enhance GABA activity (hyperpolarizes cell)
D - dose depends on which BZD and desired effect.
O - onset/offset
R - IV (bolus or infusion) / PO / Buccal / PR /
S - mainly with prolonged use. sedation / memory impairment / poor coordination / dependence / withdrawal
E - zopiclone is not a BZD but acts on the same site of the GABAa.
T - common in OD. sedation / hypotension / bradycardia.
Kinetics - Highly protein bound and lipid soluble so cross BBB quickly / Metabolised in the liver by CYP450s / Excreted renal.

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9
Q

Aspirin

A

C - NSAID.
U - analgesic / antiplatelet
P - tablet form 75mg commonly
A - Irreversible inhibitor of COX1 + COX2
D - 300-900mg QDS / low dose 75g for IHD Rx.
O -
R - PO
S - GI upset / PUD / Reyes syndrome / platelet fx irreversibly affected for 7 days.
E - therapeutic benefit from COX2i…SEs from COX1i / inhibits thromboxane A2 and prostaglandins to prevent platelet aggregation.
T - hepatic+renal failure / tinnitus / hyperventilation and rest alkalosis / seizures. Rx - alkaline diuresis/CRRT.
A - from gut in unionised form. D. M - gut wall esterases + liver. first order kinetics until enzyme saturation then zero order. E - renal.

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10
Q

Paracetamol

A

C - NSAID
U - analgesic / antipyretic
P - 500mg tablets sometimes combined with a weak opiate. or liquid form for paediatrics / IV 10mg/ml.
A - selective COX3 inhibitor (mainly in the CNS)
D - 0.5-1g QDS. Decrease dose in low BMI or liver.
O -
R - PO / IV / PR
S - very few/rare.
E -
T - GI upset / liver necrosis / thrombocytopaenia. Occurs when saturation of liver enzymes and exhaustion of liver glutathione (NAC replaces this).
A - from gut bioavailability 80%. D. M - liver. E - renal.

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11
Q

NSAIDs

A
  • Non-selective (ibuprofen/aspirin/naproxen/diclofenac) or Selective Cox2i (celecoxib/meloxicam).
  • Selective has possibly fewer GI SEs.
  • inhibits prostaglandins which reduces inflammation, temperature and pain.
  • rapidly absorbed, metabolised in liver and excreted in urine/bile.
  • Significant SEs…
  • GI upset/PUD.
  • Increased MI risk.
  • Bronchospasm - leukotriene overproduction.
  • Renal - decreased RBF as prostaglandins are renal vasodilators. Especially if hypovolaemic/old.
  • Platelet fx - only Cox1i.
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12
Q

Morphine

A

C - Morphinan opioid
U - analgesia / sedation. Especially good for visceral pain. Less good for sharp/superficial pain.
P - clear colourless liquid in 10mg/ml vial.
A - Pure mu opioid receptor agonist.
D - 0.1-0.2mg IV / multiply dose by 4 for PO.
O - peak effect 10-20mins.
R - IV / PO / IM / SC / PR / intrathecal (preserve free)
S - resp depression / hypotension from histamine release / N+V / constipation / sedation+euphoria / pruritis / urinary retention.
E -
T -
A - bioavailability 25% due to 1st pass metabolism. pKa 8 so slow onset as ionized form in stomach. PO. D - . M - liver by glucuronidation. E - urine/bile t/12 3hours but very variable.

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13
Q

Diamorphine

A

C - Morphinan opioid but no affinity for MOPr. It is a prodrug with active metabolite.
U - analgesia
P - 10mg tablet / white powder that is easily dissolved prior to administration.
A - MOPr
D - 2.5-10mg IV / 0.1-0.4mg intrathecal.
O -
R - PO / IV / SC / epidural / intrathecal.
S - resp depression / hypotension from histamine release / N+V / constipation / sedation+euphoria / pruritis / urinary retention.
E -
T - same as morphine
A - well absorbed from gut as highly lipid soluble but low BA as 1st pass metab. D - pKa 7.6. M - liver and plasma esterases. E -

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14
Q

Fentanil

A

C - phenylpiperidine class of synthetic opioids.
U - severe pain / induction of anaesthesia
P - clear colourless liquid in 50mcg/ml vials. 100+500mcg vials.
A - MOPr
D - 1-2mcg/kg
O - rapid as very lipid soluble and crosses BBB easily.
R - IV / topical / mucosal
S - resp depression / hypotension from histamine release / N+V / constipation / sedation+euphoria / pruritis / urinary retention.
E -
T - same as morphine
A - highly lipid soluble. . D - Vd 4.0. Highly protein bound. pKa 8.4. M - .E - .

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15
Q

Alfentanil

A

C - phenylpiperidine class of synthetic opioids.
U - severe pain / induction of anaesthesia
P - clear colourless liquid in 500mcg/ml vials. 1000mcg vials.
A - MOPr
D -
O - more rapid onset than fentanyl despite being less lipid soluble…this is due to the low pKa 6.5…so 90% of drug is unionized at physiological pH…so creates a large conc gradient to cross BBB.
R - IV / intrathecal / topical
S - resp depression / hypotension from histamine release / N+V / constipation / sedation+euphoria / pruritis / urinary retention.
E -
T -
A - . D - Vd 0.6 so much smaller than fent. pKa 6.5. M - liver demethylated. E - .

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16
Q

Remifentanil

A

C - ester class of synthetic opioid
U - analgesia and as part of a balanced anaesthetic plan.
P - white powder in a glass vial containing 1,2 or 5mg. Also contains glycine so can’t be used intrathecal. Reconstitutes easily with saline.
A - MOPr
D - TCI model pump.
O - Rapid on and off.
R - IV infusion
S - resp depression / chest wall rigidity / hypotension from histamine release / sedation.
E - context sensitive half time is essentially unchanged by the duration of infusion as the elimination is dependent on the metabolism not the distribution.
T -
A - . D - Vd 0.3L/kg tiny. pKa 7.1 . M - rapidly broken down by plasma and tissue esterases. E - renal. elimination t1/2 only 5-10 mins .

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17
Q

Tramadol

A

C - phenylpiperidine analogue of codeine.
U - analgesia
P - tablets or capsules in variety of strengths / solution 100mg in 2ml.
A - has 2 stereoisomers. One is a weak agonist at all opioid receptors. Other is a SNRI/SSRI which is why it is only partially reversed by naloxone.
D - 50-100mg QDS
O -
R - IV / PO
S - less constipation and less resp depression than other opiates / Less addiction so not a CD.
E - should not be given to epileptics.
T - Concern regarding hypertensive crisis and patients on SSRIs/TCAs.
A - bioavailability 75%. D - . M - liver CYP enzymes. Metabolite mono-o-desmethyltramadol has high affinity for MOPr. E - urine.

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18
Q

Efficacy vs Potency

A

Efficacy is the measure of maximal response. Eg codeine is a full MOPr agonist so has the same efficacy as morphine.

Potency is a measure of the dose required to elicit the same response so codeine is less potent than morphine.

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19
Q

Codeine

A

C - naturally occurring opiate
U - weak opiate for mild to moderate pain.
P - tablet form. 15/30/60mg. Sometimes combined with paracetamol.
A - acts on the MOPr. 10% of dose is metabolised in liver to morphine…this is what has the analgesic effect.
D - 30-60mg QDS
O - slow.
R - PO (no IV as +++hypotension)
S - constipation / sedation / accumulation in renal failure can lead to resp depression.
E - CYP2D6 is absent in 9% caucasians/30% asians.
T -
A - bioavailability 50%. D - . M - liver CYP2D6. E - renal.

20
Q

Succinylcholine

A

C - depolarizing muscle relaxant.
U - intubation / RSI
P - clear colourless liquid in glass vial 100mg in 2ml.
A - binds to the alpha subunits on the nACHr at the post-synaptic membrane of the NMJ. Its activates the receptor causing contraction (fasciculations) but there is no Ach-esterases to break it down so takes a while to be cleared. It is essentially 2 Ach molecules together.
D - 1mg/kg (infant 1.5mg)
O - rapid approx 1min. Offset starts at 3mins and completes by 15mins.
R - IV / IM
S - myalgia / bradycardia / hyperkalaemia / MH / sun apnoea / raised ICP / raised IOP / anaphylaxis.
E - avoid in diseases of the NMJ/Ach like GBS, Myasthenia etc.
T -
A - . D - . M - plasma cholinesterases. E - .

21
Q

Malignant Hyperthermia

A
  • autosomal dominant condition.
  • certain drugs can trigger skeletal muscle hypermetabolism producing rigidity and a rise in temp.
  • triggers include sux and volatile gases.
  • Ca2+ influx causes further Ca2+ via the ryanodine receptors at the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
  • Rise in EtCO2, rise in airway pressures, rise in temp, metabolic acidosis.
  • Rx - Dantrolene 1mg/kg initially plus supportive care.
22
Q

Rocuronium

A

C - aminosteroid non-depolarizing NMB
U - muscle relaxant / modified RSI
P - clear colourless liquid in glass vial. 10mg/ml
A - acts at the post-synaptic nAch receptors to competitively out-compete Ach.
D - 0.6mg/kg / 1.1mg/kg for RSI
O - 1-2mins. Lasts approx 30mins.
R - IV
S - mild vagolytic effects so can increase HR/BP/CO.
E - longer block if acidotic, hypothermic, liver or renal failure.
T -
A - . D - quarternary group is highly charged so not lipid soluble. Therefore cannot be absorbed across gut, doesn’t go across BBB or placenta. Small Vd. M - liver…CYP inducer/inhibitors will affect the duration of block. E - bile+renal.

23
Q

Vecuronium

A

C - aminosteroid non-depolarizing NMB
U - muscle relaxant
P - stored as a lipophylized powder, reconstituted in water.
A - acts at the post-synaptic nAch receptors to competitively out-compete Ach.
D - 0.1mg/kg
O - 3 mins. Lasts approx 30mins.
R - IV
S -
E - longer block if acidotic, hypothermic, liver or renal failure.
T -
A - . D - quarternary group is charged so not lipid soluble. Therefore cannot be absorbed across gut, doesn’t go across BBB or placenta. Small Vd. M - liver…CYP inducer/inhibitors will affect the duration of block. E - bile+renal.

24
Q

Atracurium

A

C - a benzylisoquinolinium NMB
U - intubation / muscle relaxant
P - clear colourless liquid stored at 4oC and at pH 3.4 in glass vial. 10mg/ml.
A - competitive antagonist at the post-synaptic nAchr.
D - 0.5mg/kg
O - onset 2mins / duration 45mins
R - IV
S - histamine release
E -
T -
A - . D - . M - . E - eliminated by Hofman degradation in the plasma so no dependent on organ function. This is dependent on temp and pH (hence why stored as above).

25
Q

Cis-atracurium

A

C - a benzylisoquinolinium NMB
U - intubation / muscle relaxant
P - clear colourless liquid stored at 4oC and at pH 3.4 in glass vial. 10mg/ml.
A - competitive antagonist at the post-synaptic nAchr.
D - 0.1mg/kg
O - onset 2-3mins / duration 45 mins
R - IV
S - histamine release
E -
T -
A - . D - . M - . E - eliminated by Hofman degradation in the plasma so no dependent on organ function. This is dependent on temp and pH (hence why stored as above).

26
Q

Mivacurium

A
C - a benzylisoquinolinium NMB
U - intubation / muscle relaxant
P - 
A - competitive antagonist at the post-synaptic nAchr.
D - 0.2mg/kg
O - onset 3mins / duration 15mins
R - IV
S -histamine release
E -
T -
A - . D - . M - . E - does not undergo Hofman elimination. Eliminated by plasma cholinesterases. So a pt with sux apnoea will also have miv apnoea.
27
Q

Milrinone

A

PDE inhibitor
Enhances adrenergic function by increasing cAMP which is normally broken down by PDEIII
Inodilator so often needs norad too.

28
Q

Levosimendan

A
Inodilator. 
Calcium sensitizer in the myocardium.
Binds to the tropC and stabilises it. 
This improves myocardial contraction.
Due to active metabolite...24hour infusion will give clinical effect for several days.
29
Q

Vaughan-Williams Classification

A

Class 1: membrane stabilising drugs

  • 1a: quinidine, procainamide
  • 1b: Lidocaine, phenytoin
  • 1c: Flecainide
30
Q

Vaughan-Williams Classification

A

Class 1: membrane stabilising drugs
- all inhibit Na influx in phase 0
-1a: quinidine, procainamide (inc refractory period)
-1b: Lidocaine, phenytoin (shorten AP + reduce refractory period)
-1c: Flecainide (minimal effect on AP/RP)
Class 2: Beta Blockers
- decreases the slope of phase 4, prolongs duration of action potential.
Class 3: Increase refractory period
- amiodarone
Class 4: Calcium Channel Blockers
- inhibits the rapid depolarisation of pacemaker cells.
Others: Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium

The Sicilian Gambit is a newer classification system based on the molecular target of action eg ion channel or cell receptor.

31
Q

Sodium nitroprusside

A

C - vasodilator
U - hypotensive anaesthesia / control of HTN in ITU
P - red salt reconstituted in 5% dextrose to 10mg/ml. Must remain covered as unstable in light.
A - arterial and venous vasodilator. endothelial smooth muscle relaxation by release of NO.
D - 0.3ug/kg/min infusion and titrated to effect. Don’t stop suddenly or rebound HTN.
O - rapid onset 1-2mins
R - IV infusion
S - reflex tachycardia / tachyphylaxis / rebound HTN
E -
T - reacts with oxyHb and creates cyanide ions. Can lead to toxicity. Consider if metabolic acidosis post long SNP infusion.
A - . D - . M - . E - .

32
Q

GTN

A

C - vasodilator
U - hypotensive anaesthesia / Rx of IHD pain / cardiac surgery
P - clear solution 1mg/ml or 5mg/ml.
A - converted to NO in mitochondria. smooth muscle relaxation.
D - start at 2ug/kg/min and titrate to effect.
O - rapid 1min.
R - IV infusion / patch
S - headache / nausea / flushing / reflex tachycardia
E -
T -
A - . D - . M - . E - .

33
Q

Hydralazine

A
C - vasodilator
U - pre-eclampsia / hypotensive anaesthesia
P - 20mg of dry powder. Reconstituted with saline.
A - unclear action
D - 2-4mg boluses / infusion
O - onset 5mins
R - PO / IV
S - tachycardia 
E - genetic variability in response
T - no toxic metabolites
A - . D - . M - . E - .
34
Q

Esmolol

A
C - beta blocker
U - acute control of HTN
P - in solution with propylene glycol
A - B1 selective antagonist
D - 0.5mg/kg bolus / 300ug/kg/min infusion titrated too effect.
O - rapid
R - IV
S - tachycardia / negative inotropy
E - metabolised by RBC esterases
T - propylene glycol toxicity with prolonged infusion. 
A - . D - . M - . E - .
35
Q

Labetalol

A

C - beta blocker
U - HTN in pregnancy / HTN in critically ill
P - clear colourless solution 20ml ampoules of 5mg/ml.
A - competitive antagonist at B1 (small action at A1)
D - 10-20mg bolus every 10 mins / infusion starting 1mg/kg/hour.
O - 5-10mins
R - IV
S - liver damage
E - metabolised in the liver.
T -
A - . D - . M - . E - .

36
Q

Warfarin

A

C - anticoagulant drug
U - thromboprophylaxis short term (around surgery) or longterm in AF and metallic heart valves / treatment of PE or DVT.
P - tablet form with different colours signifying different doses.
A - Vitamin K antagonist so depletes the Vit K-dependent clotting factors (2,7,9,10).
D - titrated to INR therapeutic windows (2-3 or 2.5-3.5 if MVR)
O - takes several days for dosing regime to take effect as need to wait for already synthesised factors to degrade. So need to cover loading period with s/c anticoagulant.
R - PO
S - Bleeding /
E - Reversal with Vit K (>6 hours) or PCCs (rapid)
T -
A - rapidly absorbed from the stomach. D - 99% protein bound so any drugs with a higher affinity for the protein will displace it and increase free warfarin. M - liver by CYP enzymes. E - urine and faeces.

37
Q

Porphyria - Safe + Unsafe

A

Safe:

  • Opiates
  • Digoxin

Unsafe:

  • Barbiturates (Thio)
  • Amiodarone
  • Etomidate
  • Steroids
  • Clonidine
38
Q

Prednisolone 5mg is equivalent to…

A

Cortisone acetate 25 mg
Dexamethasone 750 mcg
Hydrocortisone 20 mg
Methylprednisolone 4 mg

39
Q

AEDs

A

Targeting GABA
• Benzos and barbiturates.
• GABAr agonists.
Targeting Glutamate
• Topiramate.
• AMPA (glutamate receptor) antagonist.
Targeting Na+ channels
• Phenytoin / carbemazepine / valproate / lamotrigine.
• Blocks Na+ channels on the rapidly firing neurones to inhibit AP transmission.
Targeting Ca2+ channels
• Levetiracetam / gabapentin / pregabalin.

40
Q

Beta-lactams

A
  • Penicillins / Cephalosporins / Carbapenems.
  • Inhibit cell wall synthesis.
  • Best for G+ve: staph/strep/bacilli.
  • Bactericidal
  • Piperacillin has G-ve cover too. Tazobactam inhibits beta-lactamase production.
  • Clavulanic acid in Co-Amox reduces resistance as inhibits beta-lactamase production.
  • Cefotaxime 3rd gen…crosses BBB so for meningitis.
  • 10% cross-reactivity.
41
Q

Macrolides

A
  • Erythromycin
  • protein synthesis inhibitors- disrupt mRNA. binds to 50s subunit.
  • bacteriostatic (cidal at higher doses?).
  • mostly G+ve. Also G-ve H.influenzae. Also chlamydia, legionella.
42
Q

Quinolones

A
  • Floxacins
  • inhibit DNA gyrase.
  • Bactericidal.
  • G-ve and G+ve.
43
Q

Tetracyclines

A
  • Doxycycline
  • inhibits protein synthesis via the 30s ribosome.
  • Bacteriostatic.
  • G+ve and G-ve cover.
  • rising resistance.
44
Q

Aminoglycosides

A
  • Gentamycin / Streptomycin / Amikacin
  • Inhibits protein synthesis.
  • Bactericidal.
  • G-ve cover.
  • Daily serum monitoring.
  • ototoxic and nephrotoxic issues.
45
Q

Sulphonamides

A
  • Trimethoprim / Cotrimoxazole
  • inhibits folate synthesis.
  • Bacteriostatic
46
Q

Glycopeptides

A
  • Vancomycin / Teicoplanin
  • only G+ve action.
  • Inhibit cell wall synthesis.
  • Bactericidal.