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PappiPharma > Drugs > Flashcards

Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Exclusively for smoking cessation

A

Varenicline

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2
Q

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade

A

Tubocurarine
Pancuronium
Atracurium
Vecuronium

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3
Q

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockade

A

Succinylcholine

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4
Q

Tensilon test

Helps differentiate bet. Myasthenic and cholinergic crisis

A

Edrophonium

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5
Q

Cholinomimetic for alzheimers

A

Rivastigmine

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6
Q

Reversal of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockade

A

Neostigmine

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7
Q

1st line treatment for organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine

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8
Q

Antidote for organophosphate poisoning

A

Pralidoxime

Should be give within 6-8hrs

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9
Q

Drug found in atropa belladonna

A

Atropine

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10
Q

DOC for anaphylaxis

A

Epinephrine

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11
Q

Non-selective sympathomimetic

Alpha activity > beta activity

A

Norepinephrine

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12
Q

Dose dependent effects of dopamine

A

Low dose: 1-5mcg/kg/min, D1 activity
Medium dose: 5-15mcg/kg/min, B1 activity
High dose: >15mcg/kg/min, A1 activity

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13
Q

Preggy safe drugs for hypertension

A

Nifedipine
Labetalol
Hydralazine
Methyldopa

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14
Q

DOC for alpha-1 agonist overdose

A

Phentolamine

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15
Q

Alpha nonselective adrenergic antagonist

For rebound hypertension

A

Phentolamine

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16
Q

Selective Beta-2 agonist

For tocolysis of preterm labor

A

Terbutaline and ritodrine

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17
Q

DOC for acute asthma attacks

A

Salbutamol, albuterol

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18
Q

Alpha nonselective adrenergic antagonist

Pheochromocytoma (presurgical)

A

Phenoxybenzamine

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19
Q

Beta blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

A

Pindolol

Acebutolol

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20
Q

Beta blocker

Longest halflife

A

Nadolol

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21
Q

Beta blocker

Shortest halflife

A

Esmolol

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22
Q

Beta blockers

Absent local anesthetic activity

A

Betaxolol

Timolol

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23
Q

Cardioselective beta blockers

A

“NBEAM”

Nebivolol
Betaxolol
Esmolol
Acebutolol, alprenolol
Metoprolol
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24
Q

Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocker

Most selective for prostatic smooth muscle

A

Tamsulosin

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25
Q

Used in perioperative thyroid storm

A

Esmolol

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26
Q

Drugs to control BP in pheochromocytome

A

Phenoxybenzamine
Phentolamine
Labetalol

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27
Q

Vasodilator used for alopecia

A

Minoxidil

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28
Q

Lilly cyanide kit

A 
Amyl nitrite
IV NaNO2 (sodium nitrite)
IV Na2S2O3 (sodium thiosulfate)
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29
Q

DOC for SVT (OPD setting)

A

Verapamil

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30
Q

DOC for post-MI ventricular arrhythmia and drug-induced arrhythmia

A

Class 1B anti-arrhythmics

Lidocaine (least cardiotoxic, no effect on normal cells)

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31
Q

Causes dangerous hypotension when given with nitrates

A

PDE inhibitors eg. Sildenafil

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32
Q

DOC for prinzmetal angina

A

Diltiazem

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33
Q

DOC for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, SVT ER setting

A

Adenosine

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34
Q

Most efficacious anti-arrhythmic

A

Amiodarone

Has class 1, 2, 3, 4 activity

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35
Q

Drugs shown to improve survival in heart failure

A

ACE-i
Beta blockers
Aldosterone antagonists

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36
Q

Antidiuretic known to increase factor VIII activity

A

Desmopressin, vasopressin

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37
Q

Iodine content of amiodarone

A

33% by weight

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38
Q

DOC for hypertriglyceridemia

A

Fibrates

Gemfibrozil
Fenofibrate
Bezafibrate

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39
Q

DOC for acute migraine

A

Sumatriptan

5HT1D receptor agonist

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40
Q

Antidote for ergotamine toxicity

A

Nitroprusside

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41
Q

Toxic and lethal dose of aspirin

A

TD 150mg/kg

LD 500mg/kg

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42
Q

Antidote for heparin toxicity

A

Protamine sulfate

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43
Q

Antidote for warfarin toxicity

A 
Vitamin K (slow)
FFP (fast)
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44
Q

Antidote for alteplase

A

Aminocaproic acid

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45
Q

Maintain patency of PDA

A

Alprostadil (PGE1 analog)

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46
Q

COX3 inhibitor

A

Paracetamol

Phenacetin

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47
Q

MOA of aspirin

A

Nonselective, irreversible cox 1 and 2 inhibition

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48
Q

MOA of ibuprofen

A

Nonselective, reversible cox 1 and 2 inhibition

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49
Q

MOA of betanechol

A

Direct activation of M1-M3 receptors

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50
Q

MOA of pilocarpine

A

Direct activation of M3 receptors

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51
Q

MOA of atropine

A

Competitive blockade of all muscarinic receptors

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52
Q

MOA of ipratropium

A

Blocks muscarinic receptors in bronchial smooth muscles

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53
Q

Nonselective, direct acting sympathomimetics

A

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine

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54
Q

MOA of isoproterenol

A

Beta-nonselective sympathomimetic

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55
Q

Selective a1 agonist

A

Phenylephrine

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56
Q

Selective a2 agonists

A

Clonidine
Methyldopa
Apraclonidine

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57
Q

MOA of dobutamine

A

Selective b1 agonist

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58
Q

Selective b2 agonists

A 
Albuterol
Salbutamol
Terbutaline
Ritodrine
Salmeterol (long-acting)
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59
Q

Nonselective alpha blockers

A

Phenoxybenzamine (a1>a2)

Phentolamine

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60
Q

a1 selective adrenergic antagonist

A 
Prazosin
Doxazosin
Tamsulosin 
Silodosin
Alfuzosin
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61
Q

Nonselective beta blockers that have combined alpha and beta blockade

A

Carvedilol
Labetalol

(May be used in pheochromocytoma)

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62
Q

Class 1a antiarrhythmics

A

Procainamide
Disopyramide
Quinidine

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63
Q

Class 1b antiarrhythmics

A

Lidocaine
Mexiletine
Tocainide
Phenytoin

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64
Q

Class 1c antiarrhythmics

A

Flecainide
Encainide
Propafenone
Moricizine

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65
Q

Class 2 antiarrhythmics

A

Propranolol
Metoprolol
Timolol
Esmolol

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66
Q

Class 3 antiarrhythmics

A

Dofetilide
Sotalol
Amiodarone

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67
Q

Class 4 antiarrhythmics

A

Diltiazem

Verapamil

68
Q

Drug class of ethacrynic acid

A

Loop diuretic

69
Q

MOA of statins

A

Reversible, competitive inhibition of HMG-COA reductase

70
Q

MOA of cholestyramine

A

Binds bile acids preventing reabsorption

71
Q

MOA of ezetimibe

A

Selective inhibitor of NPC1L1 transporter, decreasing intestinal absorption of cholesterol

72
Q

MOA of sitosterol

A

Cholesterol analog, decrease intestinal absorption of cholesterol and phytosterols

73
Q

MOA of fibrates

A

Activate PPAR-a and increase expression of lipoprotein lipase and apolipoproteins

74
Q

H1- receptor antagonists

A

Diphenhydramine (1st gen)

Cetirizine (2nd gen)

75
Q

H2 receptor antagonist

A

Cimetidine
Famotidine
Nizatidine
Ranitidine

76
Q

MOA of triptans

A

5-HT1D receptor agonist

77
Q

Drug class of ondansetron

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonist

78
Q

Vasoselective ergot alkaloid

A

Ergotamine (mnemonic: T for tubes = vasoselective)

79
Q

Uteroselective ergot alkaloid

A

Ergonovine

80
Q

Prostaglandin E1 analogs

A

Alprostadil

Misoprostol

81
Q

Prostaglandin E2 analog

A

Dinoprostone

82
Q

Prostaglandin I2 analogs

A

Epoprostenol
Beroprost
Iloprost
Treprostinil

83
Q

Prostaglandin F2a analogs

A

Latanoprost
Bimatoprost
Travoprost
Unoprostone

84
Q

DOC for asthma prophylaxis

A

Fluticasone

85
Q

Drug that inhibits platelet aggregation by interfering with GPIIb-GPIIIa binding

A

Abciximab

86
Q

ADP inhibitor

A

Clopidogrel

87
Q

Antidote for paracetamol toxicity

A

N-acetylcysteine

88
Q

Rescue agent for methotrexate

A

Leukovorin (folinic acid)

89
Q

For closure of PDA

A

Indomethacin

90
Q

DMARD of first choice to treat rheumatoid arthritis

A

Methotrexate

91
Q

DMARD safe for pregnant patients

A

Chloroquine

Mefloquine - new CDC recommendation to prevent malaria infection for all trimesters

92
Q

Rescue agent for cyclophosphamide

A

MESNA

93
Q

Difference between the MOA of allopurinol and febuxostat

A

Allopurinol - irreversible inhibitor of xanthine oxidase

Febuxostat - reversible

94
Q

MOA of probenecid

A

Compete with reabsorption of uric acid in the proximal tubules

95
Q

3 drugs considered as date-rape drugs

A

Alcohol (most common)
Flunitrazepam (rohypnol)
Gamma-hydroxybutyrate

96
Q

Abnormal sleep pattern from benzodiazepine use

A

Decreased REM sleep

97
Q

Antidote for benzodiazepine overdose

A

Flumazenil (by competitive inhibition)

98
Q

DOC for bipolar disorder (acute mania)

A

Valproic acid

First line for mania

99
Q

DOC for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

100
Q

DOC for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

101
Q

DOC for neuropathic pain

A

Gabapentin

102
Q

Best measure of potency of inhaled anesthetics

A

Minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration (MAC)

Alveolar concentration required to eliminate the response to a standardized painful stimuli in 50% of patients

Synonymous to ED50

103
Q

Most potent inhaled anesthetic

A

Methoxyflurane

104
Q

Least potent inhaled anesthetic

A

Nitrous oxide

105
Q

Inhaled anesthetic that can lower threshold for seizures

A

Enflurane

106
Q

Inhaled anesthetic with the highest flouride content (most nephrotoxic)

A

Methoxyflurane

107
Q

Treatment for cardiotoxicity brought about by bupivacaine and ropivacaine

A

Intralipid

108
Q

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker that undergoes hoffman elimination

A

Atracurium

109
Q

Novel reversal agent for rocuronium

A

Sugammadex

110
Q

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker used in strychnine poisoning and is used in lethal injection

A

Pancuronium

Lethal injection drugs: thiopental to sedate, pancuronium, KCl

111
Q

Early sign of malignant hyperthermia

A

Trismus

112
Q

Treatment for malignant hyperthermia

A

Rapid cooling

Dantrolene

113
Q

Underlying mechanism for malignant hyperthermia

A

Massive calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle

114
Q

Primary drug for parkinsons disease

A

Levodopa/carbidopa

115
Q

Only antipsychotic with a fatal overdose

A

Thioridazine

116
Q

Only antipsychotic that reduces the risk of suicide hence the DOC for suicidal and refractory schizophrenics

A

Clozapine

117
Q

Most sedating anti-psychotic

A

Quetiapine

Quiet time ~ sleep

118
Q

Antipsychotic with low sedative effects

A

Risperidone

Rise and shine ~ decreased sedation

119
Q

SSRI that can be used for breastfeeding mothers

A

Sertraline

Squirtraline

120
Q

TCA given with smoking cessation

A

Bupropion

121
Q

Most potent opioid

A

Ohmefentanyl

122
Q

Opioid of choice for pancreatitis

A

Meperidine

123
Q

Opioid that can lower seizure threshold

A

Tramadol

124
Q

DOC for E. Histolytica

A

Diloxanide furoate

125
Q

DOC for cryptosporidium parvum

A

Nitazoxanide

126
Q

Antiprotozoal drug for pneumocystis jiroveci

A

Cotrimoxazole

127
Q

Antiprotozoal for toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine

128
Q

DOC for african sleeping sickness

A

Melarsoprol

Suramin

129
Q

DOC for chagas

A

Nifurtimox

130
Q

DOC for leishmaniasis

A

Sodium stibogluconate

131
Q

DOC for hydatid disease (echinococcosis)

A

Albendazole

132
Q

DOC for filariasis

A

DEC

133
Q

DOC for loa loa

A

DEC

134
Q

DOC for strongyloides

A

Ivermectin

135
Q

DOC for onchocerca

A

Ivermectin

136
Q

DOC for enterobius

A

Pyrantel pamoate

137
Q

DOC for trichinosis

A

Thiabendazole

138
Q

DOC for trematodes and cestodes except echinococcosis

A

Praziquantel

139
Q

Back-up drug to praziquantel

A

Niclosamide

140
Q

Benzodiazepine with the longest halflife

A

Chlordiazepoxide

141
Q

DOC for partial seizures

A

Carbamazepine

142
Q

DOC for GTC, myoclonic seizures, atypical absence syndromes

A

Valproic acid

143
Q

DOC for status epilepticus

A

Diazepam

144
Q

DOC for seizures in children

A

Phenobarbital

145
Q

Used for schizophrenia in the youth

A

Risperidone

146
Q

Treatment for enuresis

A

Imipramine

Ima-pee- ramine

147
Q

First line Drug for MDD

A

Fluoxetine

148
Q

Replacement therapy for opioid dependence

A

Methadone

149
Q

Antidote for opioid overdose

A

Naloxone

150
Q

Treatment for opioid dependence

A

Naltrexone

151
Q

Preferred treatment for hyperthyroidism

A

RAI

152
Q

Yuzpe regimen

A

Levonorgestrel

153
Q

Treatment of endometriosis

A

Danazol

154
Q

Prevents estrogen-induced endometrial CA

A

Norgestrel

155
Q

OCP of choice for lactating women

A

DMPA

156
Q

SERM that has no predisposition for endometrial CA but with bone side effects

A

Raloxifene

157
Q

Most efficacious antiDM drug

A

Insulin

158
Q

DOC for obese diabetics

A

Metformin

159
Q

Tumor marker for medullary thyroid CA

A

Calcitonin

160
Q

DOC for PUD and zollinger-ellison syndrome

A

Omeprazole

161
Q

Treatment for hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose

162
Q

DOC for diabetic gastroparesis

A

Metoclopramide

163
Q

DOC for non-infectious diarrhea

A

Loperamide

164
Q

Rescue agent for cisplatin and carboplatin

A

Amifostine

165
Q

Antineoplastic that inhibits DNA topoisomerase II

A

Etoposide

E2poside

166
Q

Antineoplastic that inhibits topoisomerase I

A

Topotecan

Topotecwan

167
Q

Treatment for copper poisoning/wilson’s disease

A

Penicillamine

PappiPharma (3 decks)

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