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Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Name 3 drugs that can be used to sedate delirious patients

A

Haloperidol, lorazepam, olanzapine

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2
Q

Name a hormone or small molecule drug used to treat chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

Imatinib

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3
Q

Name a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used in breast cancer treatment

A

Tamoxifen

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4
Q

When is ovarian ablation used?

A

As a systemic hormone therapy in premenopausal breast cancer patients

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5
Q

Name 2 non-steroidal aromatase inhibitors used in breast cancer

A

Anastrozole, letrozole

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6
Q

Name a steroidal aromatase inhibitor used in breast cancer

A

Exemestane

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7
Q

Name an oestrogen antagonist used in breast cancer

A

Fulvestrant

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8
Q

Name 2 biological therapies used in breast cancer that bind to Her-2 receptors

A

Trastuzumab, lapatinib

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9
Q

What therapies might be used alongside an oestrogen antagonist in breast cancer?

A

Bisphosphonates, denosumab (binds to RANK-L to decrease survival of osteoclasts)

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10
Q

Name an intercalating chemotherapy drug the inserts into dsDNA

A

Doxorubicin

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11
Q

Name a drug used in immunotherapy for cancer that ‘cuts the breaks’ and enhances the T cell response

A

Iplimumab

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12
Q

What does implimumab do?

A

Immunotherapy for cancer. Enhances T cell response to cancer

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13
Q

What is denosumab?

A

A therapy that binds to RANK-L receptors in bone and decreases survival of osteoclasts. Decreases bone resorption

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14
Q

What is exemestane?

A

A steroidal aromatase inhibitor used in the treatment of breast cancer

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15
Q

What is anastrozole?

A

A non-steroidal aromatase inhibitor used in the treatment of breast cancer

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16
Q

Treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Resuscitation (0.9% IV saline)
Insulin (0.1units/kg/hr IV)
Potassium (20mmol/l IV)

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17
Q

What is metformin?

A

A biguanide oral diabetic medication that lowers glucose output from liver and increases uptake into skeletal muscle and adipocytes

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18
Q

What is the 1st line drug in type 2 diabetes?

A

Metformin, orally, 2-3 times per day with food

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19
Q

Name 3 sulphonylureas

A

Gliclazide, glipizide, glibenclamide

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20
Q

What is gliclazide?

A

A sulphonylurea drug for diabetes

Binds to K+ channels and closes them, Ca2+ enters and insulin leaves pancreatic cells

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21
Q

SE of sulphonylureas?

A

Hypoglycaemia, weight gain

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22
Q

Name a thiazolidenodione

A

Pioglitazone

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23
Q

What is pioglitazone?

A

A thiazolidenodione diabetic drug

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24
Q

Action of thiazolidenodiones?

A

Increased transcription of insulin sensitive genes in adipocytes, increased glucose uptake and use, increased lipogenesis

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25
Q

Name 2 DPP4-inhibitors

A

Sitagliptin, saxagliptin

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26
Q

What is sitagliptin?

A

A DPP4-inhibitor

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27
Q

Action of DPP-4 inhibitors?

A

Stops GLP-1 degredation, increased insulin and decreased glucagon and glucose
Glucose dependent action, weight loss

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28
Q

Name a GLP-1 analogue

A

Exenatide

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29
Q

What is exenatide?

A

A GLP-1 analogue

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30
Q

Action of GLP=1 analogues?

A

Increased insulin, decreased glucagon and glucose, decreased food intake

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31
Q

Name an SGLT-2 inhibitor

A

Dapagliflozin

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32
Q

What is dapagliflozin?

A

An SGLT-2 inhibitor

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33
Q

Action of SGLT-2 inhibitors?

A

Inhibits reabsorption of glucose in proximal convoluted tubule
Sugary urine, weight loss

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34
Q

How do you treat a chronic/subacute endocarditis?

A

Amoxicillin IV

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35
Q

What is the usual therapy for endocarditis?

A

Vancomycin + gentamicin + rifampicin

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36
Q

How do you treat endocarditis with severe sepsis or a penicillin allergy?

A

Vancomycin + gentamicin

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37
Q

Which malarial prophylaxis is given 1 tab a day, 1 day before and 1 week after return?

A

Atovaquone + proguanil

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38
Q

What is malarone?

A

Atovaquone plus proguanil

39
Q

What malarial prophylaxis causes photosensitivity rashes in 20% of the population?

A

Doxycycline

40
Q

How long do you take doxycycline for malarial prophylaxis?

A

1 week before and 4 weeks after

41
Q

Main SE of mefloquine?

A

Neuropsychiatric effects

42
Q

How long do you take mefloquine for for malaria prophylaxis?

A

3 weeks before, 4 weeks after

43
Q

What are common vaccinations legally required for travel?

A

Yellow fever, meningococcal ACWY, Polio

44
Q

What vaccination is legally required for the Hajj pilgrimage?

A 
Meningococcal ACWY
(Plus polio and yellow fever if from country at risk)
45
Q

Treatment of Ebola?

A

Supportive care, IV fluids, antimalarials and antibiotics

46
Q

Treatment of non-severe P.flaciparum malaria?

A

Quinine + 2nd agent
Malarone (proguanil + atovaquone)
Co-artem (artesunate + halofantine)

47
Q

Treatment of sever P.falciparum malaria?

A

IV Quinine, IV artesunate

48
Q

Treatment of P.vivax malaria?

A 
Oral chloroquine
Oral primaquine (check for G6PD deficiency)
49
Q

What do you do before giving primaquine?

A

Check for G6PD deficiency

50
Q

Which anti-malarial agent is the only one that cures malaria and eliminates liver hyponozoites?

A

Primaquine

51
Q

Name the 6 types of antiretrovirals

A 
Fusion/entry inhibitors
Integrase inhibitors
Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Protease inhibitors
Maturation inhibitors
52
Q

Name 4 NRTIs

A

AZT
Lamivudine
Tenofovir
Abacavir

53
Q

What is lamivudine?

A

A reverse transcriptase inhibitor for HIV treatment

54
Q

What is tenofovir?

A

A reverse transcriptase inhibitor for HIV treatment

55
Q

Name 2 protease inhibitors for HIV

A

Indinivir, ritonavir

56
Q

Name an integrase inhibitor for HIV

A

Raltegravir

57
Q

Name an NNRTI for HIV

58
Q

What is HAART?

A

Highly active anti-retroviral therapy

3 drugs of at least 2 different classes

59
Q

Treatment of bacterial meningitis?

A

Ceftriaxone/cefoxiane IV

Chloramphenicol is alternative

60
Q

Treatment of MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

61
Q

Treatment of CKD?

A

ACEi, ANG-II blockers in younger patients

Calcium channel blockers in over 55s

62
Q

Treatment of CKD mineral bone disorders?

A 
Vit D replacement
Dietary phosphate reduction
Phosphate binders (eg Ca salts)
Calcimimetics
Parathyroiectomy
63
Q

Treatment of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Exclude diabetes, alcohol withdrawl, hyponatraemia, drugs
Modify microbiota (lactulose, rifaxamin, probiotics)
Laxatives, nutrition

64
Q

Treatment of alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Alcohol abstinence

Prednisolone/pentoxifyllene

65
Q

First line treatment for OA?

A

Physio, exercise, weight loss if obese

Paracetamol, topical NSAIDs

66
Q

What treatment is now not recommended for osteoporosis due to the risk of stroke, CHD and breast cancer?

67
Q

What drug is used for vertebral osteoporosis?

A

Raloxifene

68
Q

What class of drug is regularly prescribed for osteoporosis in post menopausal women and acts by inhibiting bone resorption?

A

Bisphosphonates

69
Q

Name the first and second line bisphosphonates use in osteoporosis

A

Alendronate

Risedronate

70
Q

Name 2 bisphosphonates that are given IV

A

Pamidronate, zoledronate

71
Q

What is alendronate?

A

Bisphosphonate, given daily to inhibit bone resorption in post menopausal women with osteoporosis

72
Q

Name a synthetic parathyroid drug

A

Teriparatide

73
Q

What is teriparatide?

A

Synthetic parathyroid drug used to increase bone formation and increase bone mass and strength back to normal. Used in steroid induced osteoporosis

74
Q

What drug is used in steroid induced osteoporosis?

A

Teriparatide, synthetic parathyroid

75
Q

How do you work out maintenance fluids for a child weighing 32 kg?

A

100ml/kg/day for first 10kg = 1000ml
50ml/kg/day for 10-20kg = 500ml
20ml/kg/day for 20+kg = 240ml
=1740ml/day = 72.5ml/hour

76
Q

How much potassium do neonates need per day?

A

1-3 mmol/kg

77
Q

How much sodium do neonates need per day?

A

2-6 mmol/kg

78
Q

What can be prescribed for nausea and vomiting in palliative care?

A

Metoclopramide, haloperidol

79
Q

Name 3 anti-emetics

A

Cyclizine, levomapromazine, metoclopramide

80
Q

What is cyclizine?

A

Antiemetic anticholinergic and antihistaminic
Works on vomiting centre
Can cause dry mouth and drowsiness

81
Q

What is levomapromazine

A

Anti-emetic
Acts on 5HT2, D2, Ach and H2 receptors
Used as sedative in last hours of life

82
Q

What is metoclopramide?

A

Anti-emetic, prokinetic
DA antagonist and 5HT4 agonist
Given by continuous sub cutaneous infusion

83
Q

Name 2 antipasmodics

A

Hyoscine butylbromide

Octreotide

84
Q

What is hyoscine butylbromide?

A

An antipasmodic muscarinic antagonist

85
Q

What is octreotide?

A

Antipasmodic, somatostatin analogue, decreases secretions

86
Q

Name a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat neuropathic pain

A

Amitriptyline

87
Q

Name an anticonvulsant used to treat neuropathic pain

A

Gabapentin

88
Q

Name a steroid used to treat neuropathic pain

A

Dexamethasone

89
Q

Name 3 drugs used to treat neuropathic pain

A

Amitriptyline, gabapentin, dexamethasone

90
Q

Treatment of PCP pneumonia

A

Co-trimoxazole +/- steroids

91
Q

Treatment of Toxoplasosis gondii

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

92
Q

Treatment of Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Anti retrovirals and chemotherapy

93
Q

Treatment of TB

A

Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol/streptomycin

SBOMs (18 decks)

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