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Principles of Science > Drugs > Flashcards

Drugs Flashcards

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1
Q

Maropitant (Cerenia)

A

> Very effective anti-emetic

  • Use in acute gastroenteritis, cytotoxic induced vomiting, motion sickness [higher dose]
  • effective against central and peripheral causes of emesis as works on last step of vomiting reflex in CNS
  • NK1 Receptor antagonist in Nucleus Tractus Solitarius
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2
Q

Metoclopramide

A
  • Antiemetic
  • D2 and 5HT3 antagonist [CRTZ and periphery], and peripheral procholinergic effects
  • use in central/peripherally induced vomiting, chemotherapy, gastroesophageal reflux, decreased gastric emptying cases
  • more potent in dogs dueto D2 activity
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3
Q

Phenothiazines

A
  • Amtiemetic
  • a1 and a2 Ant, D2 Ant, H1 and H2 Ant, Muscarinic Cholinergic Ant
  • acts on CRTZ, vomiting centre, vestibular system and periphery
    > not vet registered so few indications
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4
Q

Diphenhydrinate (Dramamine)

A

Anthistamines: Antiemetic

  • act on CRTZ in motion sickness in the DOG only
  • off label use in UK
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5
Q

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

A

Anthistamines:

  • H1 and H2 in CRTZ
  • Antiallergy
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6
Q

Dolasetron (Anzemet)

A
  • 5HT3 antagonist (CRTZ and periphery)
  • usually for cytotoxic drug induced emesis
  • much more effective antiemetic than metoclopramide
  • expensive
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7
Q

Ondansetron (Zofran)`

A
  • 5HT3 antagonist (CRTZ and periphery)
  • usually for cytotoxic drug induced emesis
  • much more effective antiemetic than metoclopramide
  • expensive
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8
Q

Atropine

A

Anticholinergic
-Motion sickness (M1 Ant in vestibular apparatus) BUT M2 effects cause severe side effects - delayed gastric emptying, ileus)

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9
Q

Butylscopolamine (Hyoscine)

A

Anticholinergic
-Motion sickness (M1 Ant in vestibular apparatus) BUT M2 effects cause severe side effects - delayed gastric emptying, ileus)

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10
Q

Propantheline

A

Anticholinergic
-Motion sickness (M1 Ant in vestibular apparatus) BUT M2 effects cause severe side effects - delayed gastric emptying, ileus)

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11
Q

Isopropamide

A

Anticholinergic
-Motion sickness (M1 Ant in vestibular apparatus) BUT M2 effects cause severe side effects - delayed gastric emptying, ileus)

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12
Q

Nonsystemic antacids

A

Anti-ulcer

  • inexpensive
  • oral administration different in V+ patient
  • frequent administration ~4hrs = low owner compliance
  • treat but DO NOT PREVENT
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13
Q

Cimetidine (Zitac)

A
  • H2 R antagonists
  • Anti-ulcer
  • effective for gastric ulceration caused by NSAIDs and uraemia (amongst others)
  • vet registered
  • differ to other H2 R ants in potency, but = effective
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14
Q

Sucralfate

A

Anti-ulcer

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15
Q

Misoprostol (Cytotec)

A

Anti-ulcer

  • Synthetic PGE2
  • Management/prevention of NSAID tox
  • Causes abortion in humans (morning after pill)
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16
Q

Omeprazole (Losec)

A

Anti-ulcer

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17
Q

Ranitidine (Zantac)

A
  • H2 R antagonists
  • Anti-ulcer
  • effective for gastric ulceration caused by NSAIDs and uraemia (amongst others)
  • differ to other H2 R ants in potency, but = effective
  • prokinetic
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18
Q

Famotidine (Pepcid)

A
  • H2 R antagonists
  • Anti-ulcer
  • effective for gastric ulceration caused by NSAIDs and uraemia (amongst others)
  • differ to other H2 R ants in potency, but = effective
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19
Q

Apomorphine

A
  • NOT morphine!
  • D2 Ag
  • Potent emetic in the dog
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20
Q

Xylazine

A
  • A2 Ag
  • Sedative
  • Potent emetic in cats
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21
Q

Prochlorperazine

A
  • A2 blocker

- Potent antiemetic in cats

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22
Q

Kaolin

A
  • Absorbant/prtectant for diarrhoea?
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23
Q

Bismuth salicylate

A
  • Absorbant/protectant for diarrhoea

- Avoid in cats

24
Q

FLunixin meglumine

A

NSAID analgesic and antipyrexic

25
Q

Moxidectin

A

Wormer
- effective against cyathostomin larvae but causes D+ in its own right
± corticosteroids?

26
Q

Fenbendazole

A

WOrmer
- 10mg/kg PO SID 5 days
- effective against cyathostomin larvae but causes D+ in its own right
± corticosteroids

27
Q

Lactulose

A

Laxative

28
Q

Cyclosporine

A

Immunosupressant

29
Q

Ketoconazole

A

Prolongs action of cyclosporine

30
Q

Methodone

A

Opioid

31
Q

Morphine

A

Opioid

32
Q

Fentanyl

A

Opioid

33
Q

Meloxicam

A

NSAID

34
Q

Carprofen

A

NSAID

35
Q

Buprenorphine

A

Partial opioid agonist

36
Q

Toceranib (Palladia)

A

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase inhibitor

- Tx of canine MCT

37
Q

Masitinib (Masivet)

A

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase inhibitor

- Tx of canine MCT

38
Q

Furosemide (Lasix, Diuride)

A
  • Diuretic for preload reduction in CHF
  • blocks Na absorption ascending LOH
  • Oral, IV, SC, CRI
    > risk: electrolyte disturbance, hypovolaemia, azotaemia
39
Q

Spironolactone (Prilactone)

A
  • Diuretic indicated as 2* linediuretic - aldosterone blockade beneficial in neurohormonal blockade
  • blocks Aldosterone receptors
  • oral
    > risk: hyperkalaemia
40
Q

Torasemide

A
  • loop diuretc like furosemide for dogs refrctory to furosemide!
  • oral
    > risks: electrolyte disturbnace, hypovolaemia, azotaemia (= furosemide)
41
Q

Thiazides

A
  • diuretics
  • block NA absorption in DCT
  • oral
  • 2/3 line diuretic in end stage heart failure
    > risks: electrolyte distturbance, hypovolaemia, azotaemia
42
Q

Glyceryl Trinitrate (Percutol) and Nitroprusside

A
  • venodilators for emergency management of acute heart failure
  • endogenous NO (relax smooth mm.)
  • GT percutaneous administration
  • Nitroprusside CRI only
    > risks hypotension and cyanide toxicity with nitroprusside
43
Q

ACE inhibitors (Fortekor, Benazecare, Enaguard[enalapril], Vasotop)

A
  • arteriodilators/balanced vasodilators for many diseases in dogs and cats
  • block AT2 prduction
  • oral administration
    > risks: hypotension, renal underperfusion
44
Q

Pimobendan (Vetmedin)

A
  • Phosphodiesterase inhibitors and calcium sensitiser
  • oral
  • preclinical DCM
  • heart failure 2* to DCM or DMVD
    > risk: effects on heart rate and rhythm
45
Q

Amlodipine (Istin)

A
  • Calcium channel antagonist
  • oral
  • antihypertensive
    > risk: hypotension
46
Q

Hydralazine

A
  • Rarely used now
  • oral
  • 2/3 line vasodilator
    > Risk: hypotension
47
Q

Digoxin (Lanoxine)

A
  • blocks Na/K ATPase
  • ^ intracellular calcium
  • ^ vagal tone
  • inotrope for advanced heart failure, supreventricular arrhythmias eg. atrial fibrillation
  • oral and IV (rare)
    > Risks: Narrow therapeutic index, pro-arrythmic, GIT side effects
48
Q

Dobutamine

A
  • short term salvage
  • inotrope for acute heart failure management
  • b- agonist
  • CRI only
    > Risks: ^ HR, pro-arrythmia
49
Q

Diltiazem

A
  • Ca channel antagonist
  • oral
  • luisitrope or negative chronotrope to enhance diastolic function
  • HCM in cats (ACEI now more commonly used)
  • slowing atrial fibrillation
  • few side effects
50
Q

B-blockers (Atenalol, propranolol etc)

A
  • luisitrope or negative chronotrope to enhance diastolic function
  • oral
  • HCM or HOCM in cats
    > risks: bradycardia and induction of heart failure
51
Q

Quinidine

A
  • class 1A anti arrhythmic
  • oral or injectable
  • conversion of atrial fibrillation in horses
    > risks: GI side effects, tachycardia
52
Q

Lignocaine

A
  • Class 1B anti arrythmic
  • IV injection
  • ventricular arrythmias
    > risks: GI and neuro side effects
53
Q

Mexilitine

A
  • Class 1B anti-arrythmic
  • oral
  • chronic management of ventricular arrythmias
    > risks: GI and neuro side effects
54
Q

Sotalol

A
  • Class III anti-arrythmic with b-blocker effect
  • oral
  • chronic tx some ventricular arrythmias
    > risk: proarrythic
55
Q

Verapamil

A
  • ca channel agonist
  • antiarrythmic
  • IV and oral
    -tx supraventricular tachycardias
    > risk: bradycardia
56
Q

Aspirin

A
  • anti thrombotic
  • preventative for cats at risk of aortic thromboembolism
  • inhibits formation of thromboxane in platelets to stop aggregation
  • oral
    > risk: GI ulceration -> vomiting, haematemesis, interaction with ACEI -> renal compromise
57
Q

Clopidogrel

A
  • anti thrombotic
  • irreversible antagonist of platelet receptor
  • inhibits 1* and 2* platelet aggregation
  • oral
  • some evidence better than aspirin
  • prevention of aortic thromboembolism in at risk cats
    > risks: GI signs

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