Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Cyclosporine

A
  • Calcineurin inhibitor–> suppresses cytokine expression –> decreased T helper cell function –> inhibits IL-2
  • Effective in 3-7 days
  • Activates platelets
  • Requires blood monitoring

Side Effects: GI signs, Gingival hyperplasia, hepatotoxins, secondary infectinos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cholinomimetic Drugs

A

Ranitidine & Nizatidine –> inhibit AchE –> promotes gastric emptying

Bethanechol –> binds muscarinic receptors –> effect motility throughout the GIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitors

A

Irreversibly inhibit H-K ATPase on luminal side of the parietal cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

V Tach treatment

A

SPAM!
- Sotalol
- Procainamide
- Atenolol or Amioderone
- Mexilitine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Verapmil

A

Calcium channel blocker
(less effect on HR compared to diltiazam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Metoclopramide

A
  • Peripheral 5HT3 Antagonist –> block CRTZ
  • Peripheral 5HT4 Agonist
  • Central dopaminergic antagonist: crosses BBB–> blocks CRTZ (may have decreased effectiveness in cats)
  • Increased doses promote gastrokinesis
    light sensitive
    Renal clearance–> if decreased clearance may see hallucinations, frenzied activity, hyperactivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

DDAVP

A

Desmopressin Acetate
Primary V2 receptor action
- Increased vWF release increased FVIII
- Increases tPA
- Increased ADH activity

*Ideal if vWD type I & hemophilia A (decreased FVIII)

  • Helps in uremic coagulopathy and liver disease
    IV only no PO bioavailability (nasal product SQ)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cisapride

A

5HT4 Agonist –> most effective prokinetics
- increased gastric emptying & chronic constipation
- IncreSed LES pressure
**Doesnt cross BBB
**Ineffective against striated muscle–> not helpful for mega esophagus
**Macrolides may inhibit
-Metabolized by P450 enzymes
-Cardiac conduction issues in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

NK1 Antagonist

A

Cerenia
- Blocks action of substance P in CNS & at peripheral NK1 receptors in GIT
-1st pass metabolism in liver –> increased bioavailability IV
Puppies<11 wks–> BM hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aspirin as antithrombotic

A
  • Irreversible blockade of plt COX-1–> platelet cannot make new COX since no nucleus
  • ATE risk
  • 2-3 days before effective in dogs
    **Not recommended in cats due to decreased efficacy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tPA

A

Tissue Plasminogen Activator–> primary activator in vivo
- Does not bind circulating plasminogen normally–> but can at high doses
**$$

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mycophenolate

A
  • Inhibits inosine monophasic dehydrogenase –> suppresses B & T Cells
  • Effective 3-7 days
  • Hepatic conversion

Side Effects: GI signs, lymphopenia, secondary infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Volume of distribution

A
  • Amount of abx in circulation & surrounding tissues ESP interstitial space
  • High Vd = spread to many sites & [peak] at site of infection lower (except in UTIs with drug renal clearance)
  • Hydrophillic drugs have increased Vd with critical illness (due to vascular dysfunction, fluid exvasiation)–> decreased abx at site of infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

Effect drug has on body and infecting pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

pharmokinetics

A

PK
- Effect body has on the drug
*extremely variable in critically ill patients
- affected by volume of distribution & drug clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drug Clearance

A

Volume of plasma completely cleared of drug per unit time
- Lipophilic –> hepatic
- Hydrophilic –> renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Motilin Receptor Agonist

A

Erythromycin –> stim motilin receptor–> increased LES pressure & peristalsis in large and small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Calcitonin

A

Decreases Ca in 2-3 hours
**ER use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Zinc for liver

A

Decreased GI absorption of copper (binds in GIT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

N-Acetylcysteine

A
  • Replenishes cellular cysteine and glutathione concentrations
  • May stabilize RBC glutathione
    ** Good for toxicities & hepatic lipidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Post Synaptic alpha1 & presynaptic alpha2 agonist

A

Vasoconstriction
- Arterial vasoconstriction may increase afterload and impede tissue perfusion
- Venous vasoconstriction impedes VR if too increased

Augments ectopic pacemaker activity

**May increased BG and lactate (decreased insulin secretion and glycogenolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bethanechol

A

Parasympathetic agent–> stimulates cholinergic/muscarinic receptors for treatment of detrusor atony

*Urinary bladder contraction increased by PNS inpute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Leflunomide

A
  • Inhibits dihydronotate dehydrogenase–> effects B & T cellls
    *Inhibits S phase

Side effects: GI signs and myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Grehlin & MOtilin

A

Grehlin (entyce) & motilin migrating motility complete in stomach –> stimulate GI motility, increase gastric emptying & gastric hunger

**Erythrimycin motili receptor agonist at microbial ineffective dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Protamine

A

Reverse anticoagulent effects of heparin

Adverse reactions: systemic hypotension & anaphylaxis with repeat administration esp

Platelets on protamine insulin –> severe pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Yunnan Baiyo

A

Main active ingredient: Pseudoinseng root
dose dependent effect on platelet activation

No adverse effects reported but no quality control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cabergoline

A

Dopamine antagonist

May be used with PGF2alpha analogs for pyometra

Causes luteolysis by reducing prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Vitamin K antagonists
And monitoring

A

Ex: warfarin, coumarin, coumadin

  • Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase –> FII, F VII, IX, & X + prostin s-c

**Procoagulant phase dose adjusted based off PT or INR2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Factor Xa Inhibitor

A

Rivaroxaban or Apixapan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Phenobarbital

A
  • Prolongs opening of GABAa receptor–> increased Cl movement
  • Inhibit glutamate & Ca Channels
  • metabolized inthe liver
  • 25% renal excretion

**Hepatotoxicity: Risk increased with serum concentration >40 mcg/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bisphosphanates

A

Inhibits osteoclast function and promotes apoptosis
Inhibiys normal and abnormal bone reabsorbs

ie pamidronate, zoledronate –> takes a few days to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ketamine

A

NMDA noncompetitive antagonist–> NMDA receptor is excitatory receptor in N cells of dorsal root of spinal cord and thalamus
- Neuroprotective after reperfusion of ischemic tissues

Side Effects hallucinations, light headedness, inebriation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

V1B Receptor

A

Located in Pituitary

ACTH release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

MOA: Primarily facilitates increase in GABA’s inhibition effects

Secondary MOA is antagonize serotonin and turnover ACH in CNS

*Diazepam: not water soluble –> IN, IV
- Absorbs plastic
*Midazolam: water soluble –> IM & IV
- Shorter half life

Side effects: dysphonia/excitatory signs, delayed awakening, seizures from acute benzo withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Keppra

A

MOA: Binds to the synaptic vesicle protein (SV2A) –> decrease neurotransmitter release from preganglion

  • Urine excretion

Side Effects: salivation IV doses >1200mg/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Potassium Bromide

A

MOA: hyperpolarization of neuron by Br ions intracellularly through Cl channels

Excreted unchanged in urine
Reabsorbed via Cl channel in renal tubules–> diet changes may effect clearance

** Not recommended in cats: FATAL PNEUMONITIS
**Side effects: neuro deficits, PU/PD, vomiting, pancreatitis, upper and lower motor neuron deficits with increase in [Br-]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where is V1A receptor

A

On vascular smooth muscle of kidney, pancreas, hepatocytes, thyroid, bladder, spleen, skeletal M & platelets

-At high doses: Cause vasoconstriction
- At low doses: vasodilation in cerebral, renal, pulmonary and mesenteric vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MOA V1a Receptor

A

Gq protein activation of phospholipase C & phosphoinositide pathways –> activate voltage gated Ca channels

  • Also inactivates K-ATP channels –> opens voltage gated Ca channels –> increased cytosolic Ca2+
  • Reduced blood flow to the inner renal medulla –> limits AVP there –> selective efferent arteriolar contraction–> increase GFR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

V2 receptors

A

ON renal collecting duct, endothelial cells, platelets and vascular endothelium

Effects: increase water permeability, increase vWF release, stimulate aggregation, vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

MOA V2 receptors

A

Located at basolateral membrane of distal tubule & principle cells of cortical and medullary collecting ducts

-Coupling Gs signalling pathway –> increased intracellular cAMP –> fusion of aquaporin-2 vesicles –> increased free water reabsorption

  • Increased release of vWF & FVIII from endothelial cells
  • DDAVP is V2R agonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Recombinant FVIIa

A

For hemophilia A (FVIII deficiency) & B (IX deficiency)

  • HemoA patients may also have impairment of extrinsic pathway (TF + FVII)
    HIgh doses (10x normal) can compensate for lack of F VIII & IX

** hypersensitivity reactions and $$ inhibit use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Dantrolene sodium

A

Binds ryanodine receptor to depress excitation-contrqaction coupling in skeletal m

*specific treatment for malignant hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

LMW heparin

A

Ex: enoxaparin, dalteparin

  • BTW 25-30% molecules can bind BOTH antithrombin and FIIa
  • Exert primary effect on FXa–> decreased hemorrhagic events compared to UFH
  • Not protein bound –> dont bind endothelial cells

** excreted by kidney
- Protamine sulfate only partially reversed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Tranexamic Acid

A

Competitive inhibition of plasminogen activation (& noncompetitive of plasmin at high doses)

Competitive inhibitor activation of trypsinogen and enterokinase

6-10x more potent that aminocaproic acid

**Excreted unchanged in urine

Adverse Effects: GI & hypotension if given fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Epsilon aminocaproic acid

A

Competitively inhibits plasminohen activation & at high doses inhibits plasmin directly

Renal excretion

Adverse Effects: GI & hypotension if given fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Aminopentamide

A

Anticholinergic with some anti-emetic effects

Unclear if MOA due to cholinergic receptors in vomiting center or upper GI (Vagus N)

**not as effective as other 5HT2 or antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Trientine

A

Chelates Copper –> seems to chelate serum stores greater than tissue stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Vitamin E

A

Antioxidant activity by protecting phospholipids from oxidative injury by scavenging ROS

Liver Dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

D-penicillimine

A

Chelates heavy metals and allows urinary excretion

May lead Cu deficiency –> microcytic hypochromic anemia

Antifibrotic and immunomodulatory properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

B1 agonists

A

Augment HR, contractility & ectopic pacemaker activity

May increase BG by increasing glucagon and ACTH secretion and lipolysis

51
Q

5HT3 Antagonists

A

Ondansetron, Granistron, Dolesteron

Block serotonin 5HT3 receptor in CRTZ and MVC AND peripherally (intestinal vagal afferent)

Hepatic metabolism, eliminated in bile and renal

52
Q

H2RA receptor antagonist

A

Block H2RA on gastric parietal cell –> decreases histamine

Ex cimetidine, ranitidine & famotidine

Cimetidine decreases P450

53
Q

Omeprazole

A

PPI

Susceptible to gastric acid –> give as coated granule –> acts in duodenum

GIve 1 hr before meal on empty stomach

takes 2-5 days to work

Inhibits P450 –> consider if on clopidogrel

54
Q

Thienopyridines

A

Ex: Clopidogrel, pasugrel

Irreversibly bind platelet P2Y12 receptor–> decreased ADP platelet aggregation

required hepatic biotransformation

55
Q

Promazine Derivatives

A

Antidopaminergic & antihistamine –> CTZ

HIgher doses medulla vomiting center

Antispasmotic, anticholinergic, & alpha adrenergic blocking effects

Hepatic metabolism

Ex: chlorpromazine, acepromazine, or prochoraz

56
Q

Doxapram

A

MOA stimulates respiratory via peripheral chemoreceptors

High dose: stim medullary center –> increase tidal volume and RR

Side effects: systemic catecholamine release, CNS stimulation and increased work of breathing

57
Q

Heparins

A
  • Reversed with protamine sulfate
  • VTE
  • LMWH&raquo_space; UFH on Curative due to efficacy and safety

Dose adjusted by aPTT monitoring to 1.5-2x normal/baseline (more conservative is 1.2-1.5x)

58
Q

Magnesium in tetanus

A

Calcium antagonist –> decreases muscle contraction/increases relaxation, & decreased NT release (Ach)

Helps with autonomic dysfunction and NM excitability

Mg toxicity: loss of patellar reflex is early sign, monitor for heart block, asystole, coagulopathy and decreased respirations

59
Q

Zonisamide

A

MOA: inhibiy voltage gated Na channels, inhibits T type Ca2+, dopaminergic modulation, enhanced CNS GABAnergic activity, inhibits carbonic anhydrase

Hepatic metabolism, renal excretion

Side Effects: Ataxia, sedation, GI signs
Dogs: KCS, decreased TT4, idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity

60
Q

Gabapentin

A

MOA unsure
Thought to bind to Ca channelse on neurons –> inhibit Ca2+ influx therefore decreasing release of hyperesthetic NT

61
Q

Ursodiol

A

UDCA

Hydrophilic bile acid with cholerectic effects, cytoprotective to hepatic necrosis and immunomodulatory (decreases IL-2)

62
Q

Vasopressin Stimuli for release

A

MOst potents: increased plasma osmolality, decreased BP and decreased circulating blood volume

Other causes: pain, nausea, hyporexia, hypercarbia, pharyngeal stimuli, glycopenia, mechanical ventilation, Drugs (Ach, opiates at high doses, histamine, gluatmine)

63
Q

Conjugated estrogens

A

Thought to increase vWF & FVII & FXII

Administer at least 4-5 days before elective surgery

** For pets with uremia

Should be used with DDAVP

64
Q

Methylxanthine

A

EX: Aminophylline, theophylline & caffeine

MOA: central respiratory stimulation –> leads to increased ventilation (improves skeletal muscle contractrion
Metabolic homeostasis

  • Maintenance therapy for allergic airway disease
65
Q

Azothioprine

A

Purine antagonist–> suppresses T cell activity

  • Takes weeks to months to work
  • ** Dont use with mycophenolate

Side Effects: GI signs, myelosuppression, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis

66
Q

Beta2 agonist

A

Causes vasodilation and bronchodilation

  • May cause an increase in BG by increasing glucagon, ACTH secretion & lipolysis
  • May cause an increase in cellular potassium uptake (resulting in preipheral drop in K+)

ex: terbutaline

67
Q

Terbutaline

A

Emergent care for allergic airway disease

MOA: Beta 2 agonist resulting in vasodilation & bronchodilation

68
Q

Nucleoside Analogs

A

Ex: Cangrelor & Ticangrelor

Reversibly bind P2Y12 receptor (newer drug ideal because of its reversibility)

69
Q

Fibrinogen Receptor Antagonists

A

Ex: Abciximab (Reapro) - noncompetitive
Eptifibatide (Intigrilin) - competitive
Tirofaban (aggrastat) - competitive

MOA: Inhibit GPIIb/IIIa receptor

Competitice inhibition = recovery og platelet function after 4 hours of ending infusion

70
Q

Unfractionated Heparin

A

High molecular weight: inactivates FIIa & FXa (1:1)
Low moleculr weight: inactivates FXa»FIIa (4:1)

  • UFH binds to antithrombin (ie requires it to work) –> inhibits FIXa, Xa, XIa,XIIa & IIa with greatest effect on X & II
  • Causes release of TFPI from endothelial cells
  • Protein bound
  • Binds macrophages, platelets & endothelial cells which alters its bioavailability
71
Q

Direct Thrombin Inhibitors

A

MOA: inhibit both fibrin bound and circulating thrombin

Drugs in class:
- Argatroban
- Ximelagatran (Exanta)
- Dabigatra (Paradaxa)
- Divalirubdin

72
Q

Streptokinase

A

Combines with plasminogen to form plasmin –> degradation of fibrin, fibrinogen, plasminogen, coagulation factors & streptokinase
**Nonspecific activator of BOTH free and bound plasminogen

*May cause severe drop in fibrin & coag factors
*Produced by streptococci –> antigen stimulation possible

73
Q

Urokinase

A

More fibrin specific than streptokinase

74
Q

Alpha2 Agonists sedation moa

A

Alpha2s found in CNS and SNS–> normally act as negative feedback loop for norepi at nerve and muscle

-Drugs modulate nociceptive signals in dorsal horn of spinal cord and brain & directly activate GABA

Stages:
1. INcreased SVR –> drop in HR
2. Decreased arterial pressure + decreased HR = decreased CO

75
Q

AchE Inhibitors

A
  • Neostigmine: Peak effect 7-10 min; duration was 60-70 min + glycopyrollate
  • Edrophonium: peak effect 1-2 min
    Duration 1 hr + atropine

** do not give evidence of twitch (>10% minimum height)
*Accumulation Ach: salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, dyspnea (bronchial secretion) , decreased HR & BP

76
Q

Labile clotting factors

A

FV & FVIII

**Not present in frozen/stored plasma

77
Q

Cryoprecipitate

A

Concentrated source of vWF, fibrinogen (FI), FXIII, FVIII

78
Q

Misoprostal

A

PGE1 analog –> stimulates secretion of mucus & HCO3 & gastric mucosal blood flow

  • Short half life
  • Diarrhea & uterine contraction adverse effect
79
Q

Dopamine

A

B1 ++
B2 +
Alpha 1&2 ++

Cont ++
HR ++
CO varies
Vasomotor ++
BP ++

** norepi precursor & NE release from nerve endings
** D1 : post synaptic receptor –> vasodilation
**D2 PRE synaptic –> inhibit NE release from SNS endings–> decreased vasoconstriction
** Does not cross BBB

80
Q

Dobutamine

A

B1++
B2+
Alpha1&2 +

Cont ++
HR +
CO ++
Vasotone -
BP: variable

** increased forward flow when baseline BP ok

5-20 mcg/kg/min

81
Q

Dopexamine

A

B1 0
B2 ++
Alpha 1&2 0

HR +
CO ++
Vasotone –
BP –

** Primarily vasodilator

82
Q

Isoproteronol

A

B1 +++
B2 +++
alpha 1&2 0

Contractility +++
HR +++
CO +++
Vasomotor tone —
BP —

  • If carefully administered, may augment forward flow and tissue perfusion
83
Q

Epinephrine

A

B1 +++
B2 +++
A1&2 +++

Contractility +++
HR +++
CO ++
Vasomotor +++
BP +++

**Ventricular ectopic pacemaker activity possible

84
Q

Phenylephrine

A

B1 0
B2 0
A1&2 +++

Contractility 0
HR -
CO - or +
Vasomotor tone +++
BP +++

85
Q

Norepinephrine

A

B1 +
B2 0
A1&2 +++ (arterial AND venous)

Contractility +
HR varies
CO varies
vasomotor tone +++
BP +++

0.1 - 2 mcg/kg/min

*Should increase HR & CO if euhydrated

86
Q

Ephedrine

A

B1 +
B2 +
A1&2 +

Contractility +
HR +
CO +
Vasomotor variable
BP +

0.25-1 mg/kg
*increase NE at sympathetic N endings
- bronchodilator
- prolonged use may deplete NE stores & tachyphylaxis

87
Q

Vasopressin

A

B1 0
B2 0
A1&2 0

Contractility 0
HR -
CO down or 0
Vasomotor ++
BP ++

0.5-5 mU/kg/min
** V1 receptor: increased intracellular calcium & increased vasomotor tone
** Baroreceptor decreases HR
** Not acetylcholametic
** internal stores used up within 30 minutes to hours

88
Q

Angiotensin

A

B1 0
B2 0
A1&2 0

Contractility 0
HR 0
CO -
vasomotor ++
BP ++

  • vasoconstriction & aldosterone release
  • Less potent than vasopressin –> preserve venous return
89
Q

Telamisartin

A

Angiotensine II receptor blocker

  • Can cause AoCRD in dogs (not cats)–> will decrease GFR –> do not use in AKI
90
Q

Sodium Bicarb

A

Only indicated if pH<7.1 OR compensatory resp alkalosis (inc RR/menute vent) detrimental

**Contraindicated in hypoventilation as bicarb bind H+ and forma carbonic acid –> CO2+ H2O so need an increased in vent to get rid of CO2 or will cause drop in pH

Dose (mmol): 0.3 x BW (kg) x base excess
- Give 50% dose
*Controversial if even helps
* Risk of increase lactate

Potential complications:
- volume overload (increased Na)
- Tetany (decreased Ca2+)
- Decreased O2 delivery (inc Hgb affinity for O2 –> shift Oxygen-Hg dissociation curve to L)
- Increased blood lactate
- Hypokalemia
- Paradoxical intracellular acidosis
- Hypercapnia
- Hyperosmolality
- Hypocalcemia
- Hypomagnasemia
- Phlebitis

91
Q

Fenoldapam

A
  • Peripheral dopamine-1 agonist
  • Indicated in hypertensive crisis

Adverse effect:
- Reflex tachycardia
- increased IOP

92
Q

Amlodipine

A
  • Calcium channel blocker
  • Arteriolar vasodilation
  • Minimal effect on heart
  • First choice in cats

Adverse Effects:
- Increased HR
- Nausea
- Constipated
- Weakness
- May increase renal perfusion pressure

93
Q

ACE Inhibitors

A

Examples: Benazaprile, enalaprile, lisinopril

Effect: Art/venous vasodilation
- Decreased preload
- Decreased afterload

Adverse Effects:
- Secondary hyperkalemia (aldosterone inhibition)
- Reversible increase in BUN & Crea

94
Q

Hydralazine

A

Arteriolar vasodilation (improved forward flow)–> unknown MOA

Adverse Effect:
- Reflex sympathetic activity
- Lupus like signs
- Anorexia
- Nausea
- V/D
- Tremor

95
Q

Silymarin

A

Antioxident –> scavenger of ROS & decreases lipid peroxidation

**May suppress TNFalpha, IL-1B & NK-KB

96
Q

Local lidocaine

A
  • Reversibly Bind voltage gated Na channels in nerves –> prevents action potential conduction in nerve fiber
  • Selective central blockade of afferent activity at level of spinal cord
  • Active endogenous opiate system
97
Q

Doxorubicin

A

Interrups DNA transcription/replication

  • If given fast, histamine release
  • Dose dependent via a decline in mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation & oxidative damage –> Reacts with iron and causes myocyte damage via myofibril loss & cytoplasmic vacuolation –> DCM
98
Q

Procainamide

A

Class 1A antiarrhythmic

  • Moderately slows conduction ( decrease fast Na channels)
  • Increases action potential duration (moderate blockade of K+ channels)
  • Can prolong QRS complex and QT interval
  • Prolongs ERP –> Good for re-entry tachyarrhythmias
  • Potent decrease conduction velocity –> may predispose to intra-myocardial re-entry

** Ventricular arrhythmias refractory to lidocaine (May be more helpful with hyperkalemia) –> may predispose to torsades
** $$

99
Q

B1 blockers MOA

A

Bind Gs Protein–> activate adenyl cyclase –> forms cAMP from ATP –> cAMP activates cAMP dependent protein kinase A –> phosphorylates L-type calcium channel –> increased Ca re-entry into cell –> increased inotropy

  • Gs protein also increases chronotropy
  • PKA can phosphorylate myosin light chains –> increase inotropy
  • Normal NE binding to B1-adrenergic receptors
100
Q

Digoxin

A
  1. increased PSNS tone –> decreased AV conduction prolongs AV refractory period
  2. Inhibits Na-KATPase –> +inotropy (this causes increased intracellular Ca –> can be proarrhythmic –> ventricular arrhythmia even at normal therapeutic doses)

*Hypokalemia with toxicity
* 73 hr 1.2 life
*Takes 7 days to reach therapeutic levels

101
Q

Amioderone

A
  • Class III primarily, but properties from all 4 classes
  • Prolongs refractory period in atria, ventricles and AV junction
  • May cause cardio conversion with Afib

*Adverse Effects:
- Hepatotoxicity
- + Coombs
- Phlebitis
- Allergic reactions

102
Q

Class I Antiarrhythmics

A

EX:
- Procainamide (1A): intermediate Na channel effects
- LIdocaine (1B): minimum Na Channel effects
- Mexilitine (1B): minimum Na Channel effects

MOA:
- decreased fast inward Na current –> decreased slope = decreased conduction velocity
- Stabilize membrane (slowed conduction, decreased excitability & automaticity)

  • No effect on nodal tissue
  • Negative dromotropy
  • Different effects on ERP due to K+ repolarization effects
103
Q

Lidocaine (antiarrhythmic)

A

Class 1B angtiarrhythmic

  • decreased potential duration
  • QRS complex & QT interval unchanged
  • Decreased ERP
  • 2 mg/kg IV boluses ( up to 8 in 10 minutes)
  • 50-75 mcg/kg/min CRI
104
Q

Class II Antiarrhythmics

A

Beta Adrenergic Blockade
- Reduces effects of sympathetic stimulation (on nodal, conducting system and contracting myocytes–> no direct myocardial effects)
- Indirectly decrease catecholamine release
- Both SVT & VT

**Atenolol - B1 selective antagonist
(treat with cats and dogs with SAS)
** Propanolol - nonselective B analog
- Good for ventricular arrhythmia from hyperthyroid or pheochromocytomas

105
Q

Sotalol

A

Class II & III anti-arrhythmic
-Has K channel properties
- Should be effective in 2 hrs
- Not effective as ventricular antiarrhythmic in <2 mg/kg (boxers require 80 mg)
- Lower dose is most effective beta blockade → decreased contractility effects

106
Q

Sodium Nitroprusside

A

Titrate to SBP (no less than 90 mmHg) –> typically titrate to 10-15 mmHg from baseline
- Arteriolar + venous vasodilator
- May cause hypotension due to arteriolar dilation (caution if already hypotensive –> use inotrope too)
- May cause increased VQ mismatch as reduces hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction
- May see reflex tachycardia

** can cause cyanide toxicity

107
Q

Class III Antiarrhythmic

A
  • Active on non- nodal tissue
  • Selectively prolongs the action potential duration and refractory period
  • Anti-adrenergic effects
  • QT interval prolonged –> helpful for re-entry arrhythmias
  • Blocks K in phase III

Ex:
Sotalol: nonselective B effect, but fewer neg inotropic effects
Amioderone: may prolong refractory period in atria, ventricles and AV junction

108
Q

MOA B2 blockers

A

Normal NE binding B2 adrenergic receptors

  • Gs protein binding –> ATP to cAMP –> inhibition of myosin light chain kinase –> decrease contraction vascular smoothe muscle

** B2 blockers may cause mild vasoconstriction

109
Q

Theophyilline

A

Methylxanthine

MOA: thought to be due to inhibition of phosphodiesterases types 3 and 4, resulting in increased intracellular concentrations of cAMP and/or antagonism of adenosine receptors
In resp tract, decreases the release of inflammatory mediators from mast cells and eos
Adenosine antagonism inhibits some of bronchoconstriction

**Controversial, but extended release compounded in at least one form has shown good bioavailability

**May cause agitation or vomiting

110
Q

Nitroglycerin

A
  • venodilator
  • Minimal hypotension and tachycardia seen with drug
  • May cause tachyphylaxis quickly and reduced efficacy after 24 hr
  • transdermal paste
111
Q

Propofol

A

Potentiates GABA induced chloride current via interaction with GABAA receptor
-If CRI - discard induction set q 12 hrs due to lipid emulsion
- Avoid in cats due to prolonged infusion of benzyl alcohol
- Dose dependent vasodilation and myocardial depression → hypotension ( improved stability if given with opiate)
** Propofol infusion Syndrome: metabolic acidosis, arrhythmias, rhabdomyolysis, and renal failure → seen in humans. On case report of happening in a dog

112
Q

Alfaxalone

A

Neuroactive steroid anesthetic that binds to the GABA receptor in the CNS
- At induction or recovery may see agitation. Noise, hypersensitivity, excitement, head shaking, tremoring, paddling, twitching, apnea, cyanosis → monitoring while weaning off alfax CRIs
-Dose dependent decrease in RR and minute volume→ may be detrimental in weaning period
- Dose dependent decrease in BP

113
Q

Dexazoxane

A
  • Antidote for doxorubricin extravasation
  • Remove IC cath as much drug as possible
  • Administer 10x extgravasiated dose IV within 3 hrs of event then q 24 hrs x 3 days
  • monitor site for 10 days
114
Q

SID of IV fluids

A
  • 0.9% NaCl = 0
  • LRS = 28 mmol/L
  • Plasmalye/Norm = 49 mmol/L
  • NaHCO3 = 1000mmol/L
115
Q

Crystalloid fluid compositions
- Osmolality, [Na], [K], [Cl], [Mg2+], [Ca2+], lactate, acetate, gluconate

For fluids: normal saline, LRS, PLyte 148, NOrm R, PLyte A, 3% NaCl, 7.5% NaCl, 23.4% NaCl

A
116
Q

Hypotonic Fluids

A
  • HAve effective osmolality lower than that of the patient
  • Resul in redistribution of fluid into the INTRACELLULAR compartment
  • Indications: maintenance fluid requirements, treatment of solute free water deficits and drug administration

**NEVER BOLUS: may result in cerebral edema and death (Na causes water shifts from ECF to ICF compartments)

Maintenance type crystalloids
[Na+] of 40-77 mEq/L
Replace sensible and insensible losses

  • D5W - Become hypotonic as the Dextrose is metabolized leaving solute free water→ cannot give free water directly as will cause hemolysis and endothelial damage
  • AKI: some argument that should be giving hypotonic fluids during stabilization phase as high Na content of isotonic fluids may be more likely to cause fluid creep→ fluid retention
117
Q

Isotonic Fluids

A
  • Havew effective osmolality like the patient (270-310 mOsm/L)
  • Same [Na+] as extracellular fluid compartment → minimal effect on intracellular volume/ minimal fluid shifts between compartments
  • Vary on concentration of electrolytes (Na, Cl, K, Mg, Ca)
  • Typically contain organic anions (lactate, gluconate, acetate)
    Electrolytes and organic anions contribute to strong ion difference can impact pH following metabolism of organic ions (except gluconate → renal excreted unchanged)
  • Up to 50% intravascular volume lost in 30 minutes in healthy individuals
    Volume kinetics vary→ influenced by rate of infusion, patients physiology, degree dehydration, surgery, anesthesia
  • AKI: increasing evidence to avoid NaCl
    Examples: Plyte 148, Norm R, LRS, PLyte A
    ***0.9% saline is isotonic UNbalanced solution → better for patients with metabolic alkalosis (pyloric obstruction) → if normal Cl when given this, patients may develop hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
118
Q

Balanced solutions

A

Balanced: considered balanced IF:
- Isotonic & iso-osmotic
- Maintains or normalizes acid-base balance through its strong ion difference
- Contains electrolytes similar in concentrations as patient’s plasma

Ex: plasmalyte 148, NOrmR & LRS

Indications: replenish ECF deficits & maintain ECF volume

119
Q

Hypertonic fluids

A

Tonicity greater than the patient→ infusion increases osmolality of extracellular fluid → redistribution of water out of intracellular compartment into ECF compartment
Osmotic shifts occur immediately following administration
Repeated doses may lead to hemolysis and phelbitis if given in small peripheral veins

120
Q

Hypertonic Saline

A
  • 3-7.5% can be directly infused without dilution
  • Osmolal Effects: increasing plasma osmolality & [Na+] & [Cl-]; endogenous release of vasopressin
  • Cardiovasc effects (proven in humans): arteriolar vasodilation - decreased afterload, volume loading (increased preload), reduced endothelial swelling, weak + inotrope; coronary vasodilation
    ** Do not admin >1 ml/kg/min b/c may cause hypotension secondary to central vasomotor center inhibition or peripheral vasomotor effects mediated by acute hyperosmolarity (bradycardia and vasodilation
    Improves CPP → increases MAP and decreases ICP
  • Immunomodulatory effects: suppression of neut respiratory burst & cytotoxic effects → may be particularly beneficial in trauma patients
    ** Can expand ECF by 3-5x - but only for 30 min before redistributed to interstitium → combined with synth colloid (CCM)
    **Prep of stock solution of combining 23.7% hypertonic NaCl with 6% hetastarch or other starch in 1:2 ratio and dosed at 3-5 ml/kg slowly IV for hypovolemia
121
Q

Desmopressin Acetate

A
  • Synthetic vasopressin analog available in IN and inj. form (oral form poor bioavail)
  • Binds V2Rs –> more potent antidiuretic and procoag avail & less pressor
  • ## dose dependent increase in plasma levels of fVIII & plasminogen
122
Q

Digoxin

A

inhibit Na-K ATPase→ less Na pumped out of cell→ Na gradient altered making Na Ca exchanger function change→ less Ca pumped out increasing intracellular Ca

Positive inotrope

Fox glove, cardiac glycosides

123
Q

Allopurinol

A

Inhibits xanthine oxidase

  • renal side effects

Not recommend in vet med for ATLS

124
Q

Clopidogrel

A
  • Bloacks P2Y12 receptor on platelets
  • For ATE
  • loading dose to reach efficacy more quickly
  • Requires P450 –> do not use with omeprazole!!