Drugs 101 Flashcards

1
Q

Define pharmacology

A

The science of drug action

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2
Q

Define clinical pharmacology

A

Drug therapy of and for individual diseases

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3
Q

Define pharmacy

A

Science of the proper preparation, dispensing, and utilization of drug products

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4
Q

List the four categories of pharmacokinetics

A

A: Absorption
D: Distribution
M: Metabolism (liver and kidney)
E: Excretion

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5
Q

Differentiate between primary and secondary prevention (vaccinations).

A

1: prevent you from getting sick the first time
2: you get sick, we’re trying to keep you from getting sick again

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6
Q

List three ways drugs can do harm and give an example of each.

A
  1. Insufficiently selective (TCAs) –> many side effects
  2. Too selective for function (ASA)
  3. Prolonged modification of cell function (chemo)
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7
Q

What are two reason drug costs are high?

A
  1. Many failed drugs tested to get right one.

2. 1/3 of drug company budgets in marketing

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8
Q

List 2 criteria for medications to be listed as OTC.

A
  1. Relief of symptoms where Dx may not be necessary.

2. Uncomplicated cases of some chronic or recurrent disease.

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9
Q

Define a behind the counter medication and give an example.

A

Px not needed but must get the medication from the pharmacist –> sudafed

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10
Q

When a company develops a new drug, for how long do they maintain the patent?

A

10 years

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11
Q

What must a generic drug maker prove to FDA in order to sell their version of the drug?

A

Must prove bioavailability is within 80% of original brand name drug.

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12
Q

When must a pharmacist dispense the generic version of a drug?

A

Always unless the prescriber specifies brand name medically necessary.

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13
Q

What is a formulary and why are the beneficial?

A

List of medications providers within a health system may prescribe. Beneficial because it saves money and prevents resistance (Abx)

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14
Q

List and describe 6 phases of clinical drug trials.

A

Pre-clin: efficacy, toxicity, and pharmacokinetics

0: Single subtherapeutic doses to small groups (15-20) for kinetics and dynamics - no safety/efficacy
1: Given to mall group (20-100) of healthy volunteers to determine ADME
2. Given to large group (20-300) with disease to determine dose and overall efficacy
3. Large (300-3000) RCT against standard of care
4. Post marketing surveillance in general pop –> side effects may not show earlier b/c of low power

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15
Q

What are three names given to each drug?

A

Chemical –> given by the chemist
Generic –> given by a governing body
Trade –> given by a drug company

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16
Q

Differentiate between a reaction and an allergy.

A

Rxn: predictable and usually dose related, may be harmful or unpleasant
Allergy: Interaction between drug and patient on subsequent exposure –> antigen and antibody

17
Q

What is an anaphylactoid reaction?

A

Allergy on 1st exposure caused by drug directly with no antibodies –> morphine causes itching

18
Q

Describe a FDA black box warning.

A

Highest level warning FDA can issue and still approve medication. Studies show risk of serious or life threatening adverse effect.

19
Q

Define cross sensitivity.

A

2 drugs interact that are chemically related

20
Q

Describe the five old school pregnancy categories.

A

A: Trials show no evidence of risk to fetus
B: No risk in animal studies, but no human studies done -or- animal studies show risk while human studies don’t
C: Animal studies show risk to fetus, no human studies done, and potential benefit exists
D: Human studies show harm but benefit might outweigh risk in some circumstances
X: Benefit will never outweigh risk

21
Q

Describe new school pregnancy labeling.

A

Provides info on risk to mother in pregnancy, fetus, during lactation, and harm to reproductive potential.

22
Q

List and describe 2 ways KY tracks drugs of abuse.

A

KASPER: Tracks pharmacy, Pt, and prescriber any time a controlled substance is dispensed.
MethCheck: tracks purchasing of sudafed.

23
Q

What are ergogenic drugs?

A

PEDs –> GHB, EPO, steroids (testosterone), etc

24
Q

What is doping?

A

Using drugs to enhance athletic performance.