Drug Regulatory Process / Prescription Writing Flashcards

1
Q

Hospital Quality Alliance

A

Group formed to encourage hospitals to voluntarily collect and report hospital quality performance data.

The object is to make performance data available to the public and encourage efforts to improve quality

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2
Q

National Hospital Quality Measures

A

CMS and JCo got together and published a set of national quality measures

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3
Q

CMS

A

Federal agency that evaluates the quality of care in hospitals, especially the care for those on medicare and medicaid.

As long as hospitals meet or exceed these requirements, patients are ensured quality care and healthcare providers receive reimbursement for the care of these patients.

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4
Q

The Joint Commission (JCo)

A

Non-profit organization that sets the standards by which health care quality is measured both in the US and abroad.

Governed by MDs, RNs, and consumers.

Requires providers to submit performance data. Also surveys hospitals regularly to evaluate their performance and publishes this info to the public.

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5
Q

National Hospital Quality (NHQ) measures that relate to aneshesia

A

Antibiotic must be given within 1 hour prior to incision

Temperature must be taken post-op

Those on BBs must be kept on BBs

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6
Q

Anesthesia charting that must be done according to the NHQ

A

Charting and appropriate actions will determine the hospital’s outcomes. If we don’t chart, it means we didn’t do it, and we don’t get paid for it.

Start and end time of anesthesia
Incision time
Antibx name, dose, route, time, and allergy
BB administration (or reason for not giving a BB)
Temperature

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7
Q

Med errors kill __ people daily and injure about _____ annually in the US

A

1 daily

1.3 million injured yearly

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8
Q

Proper Needle and Syringe Practices

A

Never use the same syringe on 2 patients, even if the needle is changed

Never reuse a needle, even on the same patient.

Never refill a syringe even if it’s to be used on the same patient

Never re-use a syringe or needle to withdraw meds from a multi-dose vial

Never re-enter a single-use med vial (single use only!! no double dipping!)

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9
Q

4 Major principles of ethics in clinical drug investigation

A

1) Risks must be limited
2) The researcher must terminate the trial if the risk becomes incompatible with goals
3) Provisions must be made for overall care of the patient
4) Adverse events must be reported immediately

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10
Q

Are IRBs mandated and monitored by the FDA?

A

Yes

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11
Q

What does the IRB ensure?

A

That pts are fully informed and give their consent before studies begin

That the rights and welfare of ppl in the trials are protected both before and during the trial

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12
Q

Who makes up the IRB?

A

No less than 5 experts and lay people with varying backgrounds. This ensures a complete and adequate review of the activities to be conducted.

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13
Q

Purpose of Pre-Clinical Research

A

To get authorization from the FDA to start clinical trials.

Show the FDA that the drug is reasonably safe enough to start initial small-scale clinical trials.

Shows the FDA info from in vitro and animal studies
Shows data from previous clinical testing (if available)
Proof that the med should be safe

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14
Q

To move on to clinical trials, you have to submit this form to the FDA

A

INDA (Investigational New Drug Application)

With this, the FDA will review the preclinical research done and make a decision about whether trials can begin within 30 days

1) Looks at the drug’s chemistry
2) Pharm / toxicology review
3) Medical review- it is useful enough to bother putting people at risk?

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15
Q

How many animals should the med be tested on before humans?

A

As few animals as possible to get the needed info

At least 2 or more species (one rodent and one non-rodent)

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16
Q

Phases of Clinical Drug Testing

A

Phase I

  • 20-100 subjects
  • Several months
  • Tests safety

Phase II

  • Several hundred
  • Several months - 2 years
  • Tests effectiveness and short-term safety

Phase III

  • Several hundred - several thousand
  • 1-4 Years
  • Tests long-term safety, dosage, and effectiveness
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17
Q

Detailed Phase I

A
  • 20-100 HEALTHY subjects
  • Looks for safety and tolerability and major adverse effects
  • If high toxicity is expected (like CA drugs), the target population may be used instead of healthy participants
  • Focuses on kinetics (max dose, absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion)
  • Non-blinded
  • Info helps to establish phase II design
18
Q

Detailed Phase II

A
  • Several hundred pts WITH the target disorder*
  • Tests the effectiveness for that disease*
  • Helps determine other SE of the drug
  • Establish dosing regiments
  • Drug is tested against a placebo or existing drug (Usually single-blind or double-blind)
  • Info helps guide info that needs to be investigated in phase III
19
Q

Detailed Phase III

A
  • Hundreds to thousands
  • 1-4 years in length
  • Use randomization and double-blind trials
  • These results are able to be extrapolated to the general population**
20
Q

After trials, the company submits a New Drug Application (NDA), which tells the FDA

A
  • Animal trials
  • Human trials
  • Drug information
  • Manufacturing information (can strength and quality be assured?)
  • Proposed labeling
21
Q

Fast Track Status

A

Approval process is expedited for serious and life-threatening diseases

22
Q

Orphan drugs affect fewer than ____ people in the US

A

200,000

23
Q

Compassionate Use Protocol

A

Expands access to investigational drugs

1) The drug must show that it’s working in preliminary trials
2) Pts are likely to die or suffer rapid disease progression within several months, or die prematurely without treatment
3) There is no comparable approved therapy available to treat the disease at that stage

24
Q

Phase IV

A

Post drug approval
May be required by the FDA

  • Gives more info about SE and safety
  • Long term risks and benefits
  • Shows the efficacy when used in the general population
25
Q

CDER

A

Center for Drug Evaluation and Research

  • Monitors the safety and effectiveness of drugs already on the market
  • Gets expedited reports from the drug manufacturers
  • Assures that drug info provided by companies is truthful, balanced, and accurately communicated
26
Q

MEDwatch program

A

1) Allows providers to report serious events
2) Lets the providers know what kind of events the FDA is interested in hearing about
3) More info available about adverse events
4) Increases provider awareness about drug and device-induced diseases

27
Q

When writing outpatient prescriptions for controlled substances, you must write

A

DEA# and

C II

  • No refills
  • Hard copy required
  • Signature required

C III-V (Allows 5 refills or valid 6 months. Whichever comes first)

28
Q

Class I Controlled Drugs

A

High abuse potential
Not currently accepted as medical therapy
Lack of accepted safety for the drug

(Heroin and marijuana)

29
Q

Class II Controlled Drugs

A

High abuse potential
Abuse can lead to physical dependence
Accepted as medical use but with severe restrictions

(Morphine, fentanyl, methadone)

30
Q

Class III Controlled Drugs

A

Less potential for abuse than class I or II
Accepted medical use
Abuse may lead to moderate or lower physical dependence or high psychological dependence

(Buprenorphine, Lortab, Tylenol 3, Dronabinol, testosterone products)

31
Q

Class IV Controlled Drugs

A

Lower abuse potential than class III
Accepted medical use
Abuse may lead to limited phys or psych dependence

(Benzos, Ambien, phenobarb, Propoxyphene/APAP)

32
Q

Class V Controlled Drugs

A

Lower abuse potential than class IV
Accepted medical treatment
Abuse may lead to limited phys or psych dependence relative to Class IV

(Cough syrup with codeine, pregabalin (Lyrica))

33
Q

Pregnancy Category A

A

Well controlled studies haven’t shown any risk to the fetus in any trimester

A+ in the pregnancy category!

(Folic acid, B6, synthroid)

34
Q

Pregnancy Category B

A

Animal studies show no risk, but there are no studies in pregnant women.

OR

Animal studies show adverse effect, but studies in women haven’t shown any risk in any trimester.

(Tylenol, prednisone, insulin, ibuprofen, amoxicillin)

35
Q

Pregnancy Category C

A

Animal studies show adverse effect, but no good studies in women

OR

No good studies in animals or women.

(Antidepressants, carbamazepine, cipro, fluconazole)

36
Q

Pregnancy Category D

A

Good studies have shown risk to fetus.
However, benefits may outweigh the risks if needed in a life-threatening situation or serious disease.

(ETOH, lithium, phenytoin, valproic acid, tetracyclines, ACEIs, chemo)

37
Q

Pregnancy Category X

A

Good studies in aminals or pregnant women have shown risk to fetus.

Product is contraindicated in pregnant women or those who may become pregnant

(Accutane, thalidomide, misoprostil (Cytotec))

38
Q

What does CDER do?

A

1) Evaluates the meds that are already on the market
2) Ensures that generic meds are available ot the public
3) Makes sure that prescription companies are being truthful

39
Q

Form needed for approval of generic meds

A

ANDA

Abbreviated New Drug Application

40
Q

Requirements for inpatient prescription writing

A
  • Patient identification (Name, DOB, MR#)
  • Allergy status
  • Date and time the prescription was written
  • Full generic name of the med (no abbreviations)
  • Dose
  • Frequency
  • Duration of therapy
  • PRN orders must contain reason for administration (Ex- fentanyl for pain, labetalol for HTN)
  • Include any special parameters for administration (Ex- labetalol for HTN, give if - - - SBP > 160, hold if HR < 55)
  • If the medication is weight based, then include the mg/kg dose, the pt’s weight, and how much they should actually
  • Round doses to the nearest dosing increment
  • Sign prescription with my name, title, and pager number
  • If I give a verbal order, have the person read it back to me
41
Q

Requirements for outpatient prescription writing

A
  • Write pt’s name, address, and date
  • Write the name of the drug and quantity
  • Write directions for the pt/pharmacist
  • Write for refills if required
  • The prescription should have my name, my office address, and telephone number
42
Q

If St. John’s Wort is taken with MAOIs, it can lead to this

A

Central Serotonin Syndrome