Drug Regulation Flashcards

1
Q

What is the National Hospital Quality Measures?

A
  • First organization with role in quality
  • joint effort by CMS and JCAHO to set quality standard
    • now use “Oryx” performace measures
  • started surgical care improvement project
    • hold organization accountable for abx 1 hour before incision (ex)
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2
Q

What is the AHRQ Quality Indicators?

A
  • Measures quality and supports research to lead to higher quality care
  • came out of “to err is human” report
  • Measures assess clinical effectiveness and 30 day mortality associated with major health conditions
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3
Q

What is CAHPS hospital survey?

A

The Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (CAHPS) Hospital Survey, commonly known as Hospital CAHPS or HCAHPS, is a standardized survey instrument for measuring adult patients’ perspectives on care they experience during a hospital stay. HCAHPS addresses critical aspects of the hospital experience, including:

  • Communication with doctors and with nurses.
  • Responsiveness of hospital staff.
  • Hospital cleanliness and quietness.
  • Communication about medicines.
  • Discharge information and patients’ understanding of care when leaving the hospital.
  • Patients are also asked to rate the hospital overall and their willingness to recommend the hospital to others.
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4
Q

What is leapfrog?

A
  • Employer-based coalition
    • develops and maintains measure set that focuses on hospital quality and safety practices
  • Measure crucial areas or “leaps” looking at patient safety such as:
    • do physicians enter Rx and other orders in computerized system
    • how many high-risk sx at hospital?
    • does it provide appropratie care to women giving birth and newborns
    • ICUs staffed by specialists?
  • “Are we getting our money’s worth”
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5
Q

What is ORYX?

A
  • Set of performance measures required by JCAHO. Hospitals seeking accrediation from JACHO must submit some combination fo ORYX measures to fulfull requirements
  • Meant to support organizations in quality improvement efforts
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6
Q

How do national hospital quality measures relate to anesthesia?

A
  • Your charting and appropriate actions determine your clinical site’s outcomes (and patient outcomes)- very important
  • Examples of data element list you will contribue to with your charting
    • anesthesia start and end time and date
    • sx incision time
    • abx name, dose, route, time, allergy
    • beta blocker current med, last dose, periop admin
    • reasons for not administering beta blocker
    • temperature
  • Four measure areas:
  • inpatient
    • inpatient quality indicators- (IQI) inpatient mortality for certain procedures and medical conditions
    • utuilization of procedures (look at overuse/misuse of procedures)
  • prevention
    • patient safetyPatient Safety Indicators (PSI)
    • ID adverse events during hospitalization
    • Provide infor on potential in hospital complication and adverse events
  • pediatric care
    • Pediatric Quality Indicators (PedQIs) include measures of inpatient quality and patient safety specifically for the pediatric population.
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7
Q

What is the Hospital Quality Alliance?

A
  • “Improving Care through Information”
  • www.qualitynet.org
  • check site regularly for hospital inpatient quality reporting program measures
    • i.e. sx care improvement measures retired, now on to new measures
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8
Q

How many people are affected by medication errors?

A
  • 1 death every day
  • injure approximately 1.3 million people annually in US
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9
Q

What information can be found at institute for safe medication practices?

A
  • List of high risk medications
  • List of dangerous abbreviations
  • Can search recent med safety info
  • report med errors and ADRs
  • Direct link to FDA’s medwatch reproting site
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10
Q

What is AANA’s position on needle and syringe use safe practices?

A
  • NEVER
    • administer meds form same syringe to multiple pt, even if needle is changed
    • Reuse a needle, even on same pt
    • Refill a syringe once it has been usd, even for same patient
    • use infusion or IV administration sets on more than one patient
    • reuse a syringe or needle to withdraw meds from multi-dose med vial
    • reenter a single use med vial, ampule or solution
  • SYRINGES AND NEEDLES USED ONLY ONCE!
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11
Q

What is AANA’s position for securing propofol?

A
  • Ease of access may contribute to abuse, addiction, and death in anesthesia practitioners
  • Facilities who have propfol on formulary need ot develop progras to prevent diversion of propofol and potential abuse of the drug
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12
Q

When did FDA start?

A
  • From Pure Food and Drugs Act of 1906
    • requires truthful labeling for all drugs
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13
Q

What was the 1912 admendment to the pure food and drugs act?

A

Prohbitied fradulent advertising claims

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14
Q

What did Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938 state?

A
  • Requires proof of drug’s safety and purity
    • after antifreeze was used as additive in abx. 100 deaths
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15
Q

What was the Durham-Humphrey Amendment?

A

Grants FDA authority to determine which drugs may b esold without a prescription

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16
Q

What was the Kefauver-Harris Amendment to Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act?

A
  • Requires proof of efficacy as well as safety for new drugs and drugs approved since 1938
    • establishes guidelines for adverse event reporting, clinical testing, advertising
  • after thalidomine in UK causing severe birth defects
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17
Q

What was the orphan drug amnedment of 1983?

A

Provides incentives for manufacturers of drugs to treat orphan diseases

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18
Q

What was the Drug Price Competition and Patnet REstoration Act (Hatch-Waxman Act)?

A
  • Abbreviates and modifies New Drug Application for generic drugs; creates patent life extensions for delay caused by FDA review
  • extensions are limited to 5 extra years or 14 years post NDA approval
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19
Q

What is the expedited drug approval act of 1992?

A
  • Allows accelerated FDA approval for drugs of sig medical need, but requires detailed postmarketing surveillance
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20
Q

What is the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER)?

A
  • Housed in FDA
  • Determines which new drugs make it to pharmacies
  • Assures that safe and effectiv edrugs are available to american people
    • New Drug Development Process
    • Investiagtional New Drug Review Process
    • New Drug Application Review process
      • after phase III clinical trials
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21
Q

What are 4 majors principles in ethics in clinical drug investigation?

A
  • Trial must minimize the risks for subjects
  • Provisions must be made for overall care of the patient
  • Investigator must terminate the trial when risk becomes incompatible with goals
  • Adverse events must be reported immediately to ethics or safety committee

Need to limit enrollement to patient who could potentially benefit (offsets potential oftern “unknown” risks)

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22
Q

What is informed consent for clinical trial?

A
  • Not just a signature
  • must be aware of benefit/risk analysis
    • if patient terminal, the must understand they are probalby doing this for benefit of future pt instead of their own welfare
  • Needs to be well informed before making voluntary choice to participate
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23
Q

Where are IRBs located?

A
  • Located at hospitals and researhc institutions
    • mandated and monitored by FDA
    • Review ethical and legal issues with research protool
  • Ensure
    • participants are fully informed and have given their written consent before studies ever begin
    • oversee that the rights and welfare of people participating in clinical tirals both before and during are protected
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24
Q

What is the composition of IRB?

A
  • No less than 5 experts and lay people with varying backgrounds to ensure a complete and adquate review of activities
    • scientific background
    • non-scientific background
    • someone not affiliated with institution
  • IRB evaluates proposals in context of
    • institutional commitments and regulations
    • applicable law
    • standards of professional conduct and practice
    • community attitutdes
25
Q

What are IRB/IEC evaluating with propsals?

A
  • Minimized potential risk to human subjects
  • poses risks that are reasonable relative to anticipated benefit and potential scientific gain
  • includes equitable selection of subjects
  • contains an effective informed consent process
  • safeguards vulnerable populations, such as children and mentally disabled
26
Q

What is the investiagtional new drug application?

A
  • Show that the drug is reasonable and safe for use in initial, small-scale clinical studies
    • compile data form in vitro or animal studies
    • proposed protocol- will it provide the evidence necessary to support safety of administering compound to humans?
    • FDA reviews the preclinical data and decision to allow the clinical trials to proceed (30days)
  • “valley of death in drug development”- so few drugs make it through animal studies
27
Q

Prior to human trials, use in vitro and in vivo lab animal testing for how many years? What does an Investigational New Drug study look at?

A
  • 8.5 years animal testing before it touches a human
  • Establish potential efficacy and safety (toxciity)
  • Determine biological actions
  • Chemical properties (composition/stability)
  • absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
  • synthesis and purification process
28
Q

What are some guidlines for preclinical research? What’s found during the animal testing?

A
  • Every effort made to use as few animals as possible
  • Generally two or more speices (one rodent, one non-rodent)
  • used to measure drug absortpion, metabolism, toxicity of the drug, and its metabolites, and elimination of drug and its metabolites
  • Short-term testing
    • 2weeks- 3 month, depending on proposed use
  • Lont-term testing
    • a few weeks-several years
      • some animal testing continues after human tests begin to look for long-term adverse events (cancer or birth defects)
29
Q

What are Phase I studies?

A
  • Often non-blinded
  • 20-100 health subjects
    • unless toxicity expected (Ca drugs)
  • Duration: several months
  • Purpose
    • safety/ID major adverse effects
    • Max dose
    • pharmacokinetics
30
Q

What are Phase II studies?

A
  • Single or double blinded
  • 50-several hundred subject
  • duration: several months- 2 years
  • purpose- effectiveness for speicfic dx
    • dosing/dose response
      • optimum dose range and toxicity information
    • short term safety
    • adverse effects
      • will pinpoint additional data that may need to be collected in phase III if phase II suggest (for example) hepatotixicity
31
Q

What are phase III studies?

A
  • Randomized, double blinded, multiple arms
    • gold standard
  • Several hundred-several hundred thousand subjects
    • multiple sites
  • Duration: 1-4 years
  • Purpose:
    • specific clinical or surrogate endpoints
    • safety, dosage and effectiveness
    • extrapolate results general population
32
Q

How many drugs make it through clinical trials?

A

20%

33
Q

What is the new drug application?

A
  • FOrmal proposal (usually >1000 pgs) from drug sponsors that FDA approve a new pharmaceutical for sle in US
  • Drug manufacturer submits
    • nonclincial (animal)
    • clinical (human) test data and analyses
    • description of manufacturing procedures
  • This is after clinical trials are finished
34
Q

Out of 100 new investigational drugs, how many makes it thorugh Phase I? How many through phase II? How many are eventually marketed?

A
  • 33% through phase I
  • 25% through phase II
  • 20% marketed
35
Q

What must the new drug application include?

A
  • Needs to provide enough info to permi FDA reviewers to reach key decisions
    • is drug safe and effective for its proposed use? with benefits of drug outweighing risk?
    • Is drug propoased labeing appropraitea nd if not, what should the labeling contain
    • are manufacturing methods and quality contorls used adequate to preserve the drug’s identifty, strenght, quality and purity
36
Q

What are special cases for clinical trials?

A
  • Fast track status
    • accelerated development and approval status for life-threatneing dx
      • post approval phase IV trials often required
  • Orphan drug
  • Compassionate use
37
Q

What is an orphan durg?

A
  • Disease that affects <200,000 people in US
    • Exclusive approval for orphan indication for 7 yrs post approval
38
Q

What are compassionate use protocols?

A
  • Expand access to investigational new drug
    • must show prelminiary evidence of efficacy
    • patients must be likely to die/suffer rapid dx progression within 6 months, or die prematurely without treatment
    • there must be no comparable approved therapy to treat the disease at that stage
39
Q

What is the generic drug review process?

A
  • Abbreviated new drug app is filed
    • FOR generic form of drugs already approved
  • To gain FDA approval
    • generic drug muse:
      • contain active ingreidents as innovateor
      • be identifcal in strength, dosage form route of admin
      • have same indication
      • be bioequivalent
      • meet same batch requirements for identitiy, strengthm purity and quality
  • Be manufactured under same strict standards of FDA good manufacturing practice regulations required for innovator products
40
Q

What is the post drug approval process?

A
  • Phase IV may be required by FDA
    • more info about s/e and safety of drug
    • long term risks and benefits
    • efficacy when used in general population
  • A vital part of CDER’s mission is moniotr safety/effectiveness of drug currently available to American people
    *
41
Q

What are some divisions of CDER to monitor drug’s safety?

A
  • Division of Pharmacovigilane and epidemiology
  • MEDwatch reporting system
  • pharmacoepidemiology
  • contracts/cooperative agrements with drug companies
42
Q

What is Med Watch?

A
  • 4 goals
    • make it easier for healthcare providers to report serious events
    • make it clearer to health care providers what types of adverse events FDA is interested in receiving
    • more widely disseminate information on FDA’s actions that have resulted froma dverse event and product problem reporting
    • increase healthcare providers’ understanding and awareness of drug and device-induced disease
43
Q

Who enforces to make sure drug labels are advertising their drugs appropriately?

A
  • Promotional Materials Reviews Process
    • part of CDER to make sure drug information provided by drug firms is truthful, blanaced and accurately communicated
  • ex- exparel drug reps had been advertising some of the studies with off labeled use of exparel. big no-no
44
Q

What is involved in over-the-counter drug review?

A
  • >80 classes (therapeutic categories) of OTC drugs; >100,000 products marketed with 800 active ingredients
    • ranges from acne drugs–> weight control products
  • 6 out of every 10 medication purchased
  • FDA has been evaluating ingredients and labeling as part of OTC Drug Review progrma
    • makes sure they are being safely used
    • DO NOT MONITOR HERBALS!
45
Q

What are inpatient prescription writing requirements?

A
  • Patient ID
  • date and time the Rx written
  • Allergy status
  • full name of med (generic name preferably)
  • dose (mg, mcg, units)
  • frequency if administration (PRN needs frequency too)
  • duration of therapy when indicated (IV antibiotics)
  • Special parameters for medication titration, monitoring or administration
  • If ordered as weight based, include pt weight and actual dose to be administered
  • Round doses to nearest dosing increment
  • Sign order with full name, title and pager number
  • for verbal/telephone orders, allow receiver to read back the order
46
Q

Outpatient requirements for Rx?

A
  • Prescription must have your name, office address, telephone number
  • should be section for pt name and address/date
  • should be section for direction for pt or pharmacist
  • name of the drug and quantity
  • refills if required
47
Q

What do outpatient controlled substances prescription require?

A
  • Same requirements as other prescriptions PLUS DEA # AND
  • CIII-V
    • only allowed 5 refills or valid for 6 months, whichever comes first
  • C-II
    • no refills allowed
    • hard copy required
    • signature required
  • laws can vary from state to state
48
Q

What are class I scheduled drugs?

A
  • High potential for abuse
  • no current medical use in treatment in US
  • Lack of accepted safety for use of drug or other substance under medical supervision
    • i.e. heroin,
    • LSD,
    • Marijuana,
    • ecstasy,
    • methaqualone,
    • peyote
  • Still illegal federally
49
Q

What are Class II scheduled drugs?

A
  • High potential for abuse
  • currently accepted medical use in txmt in US or currently accepted medical use with severe restricitons
  • abuse may lead to severe psycholigcal use/physical dependenct
  • Ex-
    • morphine
    • fentanyl
    • methadone
50
Q

What are class III Scheduled drugs?

A
  • Potential for abuse less than scheduled I and II
  • Currently accepted medical use in US
  • Abuse may lead to mod or low physical dependence/high psycholigcla dependence
  • Ex
    • buprenorphine
    • hydrocodone/APAP
    • Codein/APAP
    • Dronabinol (Marinol)
    • testosterone products
51
Q

What are Class IV scheduled drugs?

A
  • Low potential for abuse relative to schedule III drugs
  • currently accepted medical use in txmt
  • abuse of drug other substance may lead to limited physicla dependence of psycholigcla dpeendence relative to scheudle III
  • Ex
    • benzodiazepines
    • zolpidem
    • phenobarbitol
    • propoxyphene/apap (darvocet)
52
Q

Class V scheduled drugs?

A
  • Low potential for abuse
  • abuse may lead to limited physical dependence or psychologicla dependent
  • ex
    • cough syrups containing codein
    • pregabalin
53
Q

What are pregnancy categories?

A
  • Based on animal studies and or human studies
  • categories leave drugs up to discretion of practitioner/patien in terms of risk/benefit
  • 1st timester risk vs 3rd trimesters
    • 1ST trismester, organs forming, crucial development
    • Benzos cause cleft palate in early, 1st trimester use
    • 3rd trimester risk relate to ability of baby to transition fetal–> adult style circulation
      • ​i.e. closure of PDA- no using ibuprofen/NSAIDs, can interfere with normal PDA closure
  • A, B, C, D, X
54
Q

What is Category A?

A
  • Adequate, well-controlled studies in pregnant women have not shown increased risk of fetal abnormalities to fetus in any trimester of pregnancy
  • Ex-
    • folic acid,
    • vitamin B6
    • Levothyroxine
55
Q

What is category B?

A
  • Animal studies have revealed no evidence of harm to fetus, however, no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women OR
  • Animal studies have shown an adverse effect, but adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in any trimester
    • ex-
      • acetaminophen
      • prednisone
      • insulin
      • ibuprofen (before 3rd trimester)
      • amoxicillin
56
Q

What is Categroy C?

A
  • Animal studies have shown adverse effect and there are no adequate and well-contorlled studies in pregnant women
  • OR, no animal studies conducted and no adequate and well-contorlled sudies in pregnant women
  • Ex- antidepressants
    • carbamazepine
    • cirpofloxacin
    • fluconazole
57
Q

What is Category D?

A
  • Adquate well controlled or observational studies in pregnant women have demonstrated risk to fetus
  • however, benefits of therapy may outweight potential risk
  • drug may be acceptable if needed in a life-threatening situation or serious disease for which safer drugs cannot be used or are ineffective

ex-

  • alcohol
  • lithium
  • phenytoin
  • valproic acid
  • tetracyclines
  • ACEI
  • most cancer chemotherapy
58
Q

What is category X?

A
  • No situation where we would consider administering the drug to pregnant women
  • adequate well-controlled or observation studies in animals/pregnant women have demonstrated psotiive evidnce of fetal abnormalities
  • use of product is contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant
  • ex
    • isotretinoin (accutane)
    • thalidomide
    • misoprostil (cytotec)