Drug Quiz 2024 Flashcards

Quiz Questions & Scenarios Based on Drug List

1
Q

What disease would your pt have a history of that would prevent the use of Olanzapine?

A

Parkinson’s Disease

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2
Q

What must you do prior to administering Fentanyl IN?

A

Prime the atomiser first with 0.1mL.

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3
Q

When administering Glucose Gel should the pt be advised to swallow the substance?

A

No - Administer small amounts of oral glucose gel into lower cheek pouch over gums/cheek and externally massage cheek. Do not allow the pt to just swallow it.

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4
Q

The presentation of Naloxone is 400mcg/1ml. How would you dilute this for IV?

A

Draw up entire ampoule in 400mcg/1ml in a 10ml syringe. Add 9mls NaCl to make 0.4mg in 10mls, titrated administration

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5
Q

Your pt is willing to self administer Olanzapine. How will they do this and what will be their dose?

A

PO 10mg (2x 5mg wafers)

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6
Q

You are called to a suburban home where a 50-year-old male has been found unconscious by his wife. The wife reports that he has been on prescription opioids for years now for a chronic back pain. The patient has pinpoint pupils, is breathing at 6 breaths per minute, and his SpO2 is 82% on room air. His pulse is slow and thready.

What medication(s) would you administer to this patient, and what are the appropriate doses?

A

Naloxone - 400mcg IM or IV. If IV access is available, dilute 400mcg/1ml with 9ml of NaCl (making 0.4mg in 10ml) and titrate to effect, administering small doses every 2 minutes until the pt’s respiratory rate improves.

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7
Q

Your preparing Fentanyl Citrate for your patient who is 56 years old, they report they weigh 70kg. What does will they recieve and how are you calculating in?

A

1mcg/kg
1mcg x 70kgs = 70mcg/7mls

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8
Q

What is the maximum total dose of Droperidol allowed within 24 hours?

A

20mg

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9
Q

What is the maximum number of doses of Ondansetron that can be given in a prehospital setting?

A

Ondansetron can be repeated once after 30 minutes if required, making the maximum number of doses two.

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10
Q

You are called to a residential home where a 72-year-old female has been found unresponsive by her spouse. The spouse reports that she recently had surgery for a hip replacement and has been taking prescribed pain medication. Today, she noticed her wife was difficult to wake and confused. When you arrive the pt is unresponsive, however breathing spontaneously with an SpO2 of 88% on room air.

What further investigations and drugs might you consider?

A

Your findings:
RR: 8 breaths per minute
HR: 48 bpm
BP: 102/60 mmhG
Temp: 36.5
Pupils: Pinpoint & reactive

Drug intervention:
Naloxone IM 400mcg/1ml or IV 400mcg/10ml, repeated every 2 mins as required.

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11
Q

What drug can be administered prophylactically for eye and spinal injuries?

A

Ondansetron

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12
Q

You respond to a 25-year-old female patient who is complaining of intense nausea and vomiting following an injury with suspected spinal injury. She is unable to tolerate oral medication.

What pharmaceutical intervention would you consider for this pt?

A

4mg IM Ondansetron

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13
Q

What is the dose of a single GTN spray and how often can it be repeated?

A

400mcg, repeated every 5 mins as required with no max.

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14
Q

You are called to a pt who has been seizing for 7 minutes, what drug intervention would you use?

A

IM Midazolam 5mg/ml, possible to repeat once after 10 mins if IV is unable to be establish and seizures continue or reoccur.

IV Midazolam 2.5mg/2.5ml (max dose 15mg) - can be repeated at 5 minute intervals as needed.

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15
Q

What are the indication for administering Sodium Chloride 0.9% and the initial dose for each indiciation.

A

Fluid replacement for shock and fluid loss - 250ml bolus.

Hypovolaemic cardiac arrest - 20ml/kg

Post ROSC - 250ml

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16
Q

You are called to a public park by the mother of a 28-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder is experiencing an acute manic episode. On arrival, the pt is extremely aggressive, attempting to punch bystanders and throw objects. He is shouting threats and refuses to respond to verbal de-escalation attempts. The pt is actively trying to charge at anyone who comes near.

What is this pt’s RASS score and what pharmaceutical intervention would you consider?

A

RASS 4 (Combative)

Rationale: The patient is exhibiting overtly combative behaviour, attempting to harm bystanders and anyone approaching. This level of aggression and violence indicates the highest RASS score.

Ketamine IM 4mg/kg (max 400mg)

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17
Q

What are the indications for Olanzapine?

A

Disturbed and Abnormal Behaviour (RASS 1-3) where risk to safety is evident and the pt can tolerate or self-administer oral wafer. Preferred first line sedation in frail pts and those with dementia.

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18
Q

In a post-ROSC scenario, how much Sodium Chloride 0.9% can be administered before considering Adrenaline?

A

A maximum of 500ml should be administered to maintain systolic BP >100mmHg before administering Adrenaline.

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19
Q

What is the maximum dose of Atropine for symptomatic bradycardia?

A

3mg

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20
Q

What routes can Cophenylcaine be administered through?

A

Intranasal (IN), oral (PO), and topical.

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21
Q

Besides managing prolonged seizure activity, when else can Midazolam be used?

A

Sedation maintenance post IV Droperidol

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22
Q

What is the contraindication for using Aspirin?

A

Hypersensitivity to aspirin or salicylates.

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23
Q

How is Salbutamol administered through a nebuliser, and what is the dosage?

A

Salbutamol is administered by emptying 1-2 nebules (5-10mg) into the nebuliser compartment and attaching oxygen at 6-8 L/min.

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24
Q

True or False: All initial doses of Ketamine are given IM?

A

False - When used as a 2nd line agent for traumatic pain the initial dose is administered IV.

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25
Q

When is Glucagon indicated?

A

For hypoglycaemia as a third line agent when IV access is not possible.

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26
Q

What is the initial and repeat dose for Heparin?

A

Initial: 5000IU/5ml
Repeats: NIL

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27
Q

What are the contraindications for using Cophenylcaine?

A

Hypersensitivity and pregnancy.

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28
Q

What drug is used to treat both symptomatic bradycardia and organophosphate poisoning.

A

Atropine

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29
Q

When establishing IV access with the intention of administering TXA what consideration needs to be made?

A

A second large bore IV line should be established as no other medication can be given through the same port as the TXA which takes 10 mins to administer and therefore can inhibit treatment if a second line is not available.

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30
Q

When administering IV Ondansetron what considerations need to be made?

A

Draw up entire ampoule in 10ml syringe, add 8ml NaCl to make 4mg/10ml, slow push over 1 min.

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31
Q

Ketamine presents as 200mg/2ml. To draw up for IV administration foor analgesic effect, how would you prepare the drug?

A

Draw up entire ampoule (200mg/2ml) in a 20ml syringe. Add 18ml NaCl to make 10mg/ml. Attach 3 way tap to 1 or 3ml syringe and draw up 0.5ml - 2ml as a single dose.

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32
Q

What are the contraindications for Salbutamol?

A

Cardiogenic acute pulmonary oedema (APO) and hypersensitivity.

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33
Q

What are the available routes of administration for Salbutamol and the initial dose for each?

A

NEB: 5- 10mg (1 - 2 nebules)

MDI: 400-1200mcg (4-12 puffs)

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34
Q

What is the repeat for Adrenaline, Post-ROSC

A

IV 50mcg/0.5ml every 3-5 mins as required.

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35
Q

What are the routes of administration for Sodium Chloride 0.9%?

A

IV and IO

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36
Q

Midazolam presents as 15mg/3ml. How would you dilute this for easiest IV administration?

A

Draw up entire ampoule (15mg/3ml). Add 12ml NaCl to make 15mg/15ml. Administer in 2.5mg/2.5ml increments in 5 minute intervals as required.

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37
Q

How often is Adrenaline administered in a cardiac arrest scenario?

A

Every 3-5 minutes (administered every second loop)

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38
Q

You are called to a workplace where a 45-year-old male has collapsed. His colleagues mention that he is diabetic. The patient is conscious but confused and diaphoretic. His blood glucose level is 2.8 mmol/L. He is unable to swallow safely.

What medication(s) would you administer, and what are the appropriate doses?

A

Glucose 10%. - 15g/50ml IV bolus, administered over several minutes. If IV access is not yet established, use Glucagon 1mg IM.

Rationale: Glucose 10% is the first-line treatment for hypoglycaemia when the patient is unable to take oral glucose. It quickly raises blood glucose levels, reversing the symptoms of hypoglycaemia. If IV access is delayed, Glucagon serves as an alternative to stimulate glucose release.

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39
Q

Droperidol can be given via IM or IV, what are the initial doses for each route?

A

IM: 5-0mg/1-2ml
IV: 2.5-10mg/0.5-1mg (age & intoxication dependant)

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40
Q

What is the Post-ROSC Adrenaline dose and how is it drawn up?

A

Dose: IV 50mcg/0.5ml.
Prep: Draw up 1mg/1ml of adrenaline in 10ml syringe. Add 9mls NaCl to create 1mg/10mls. Attach 3 way tap to 1ml syringe and draw up 50mcg/0.5ml as a single dose.

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41
Q

What medication is indicated for a pt with severe bronchospasms?

A

Ipratropium Bromide

42
Q

You are called to a construction site where a 40-year-old male has fallen from a height, resulting in a severe leg laceration with heavy bleeding. A tourniquet has been applied, and his blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg. The injury occurred 45 minutes ago.

What pharmaceutical intervention would you consider for this pt?

A

NaCl 0.9% - 250ml IV bolus to initiate fluid resus to address BP and heavy bleeding.

Methoxyflurane - 3ml IH (if the patient is conscious and can cooperate) whilst establishing IV access for further pain meds.

TXA - 1g/250ml IV over 10 minutes.

Fentanyl - 1mcg/kg (max 100mcg) for further pain management.

43
Q

What are the 4 indications for Ketamine?

A

2nd line agent for traumatic pain

1st line agent for traumatic pain where other administration is unavailable

Rass 4

Combative TBI

44
Q

When considering using Ketamine as a 2nd line analgesic, what dose of Fentanyl must have been administered first?

A

200mcg

45
Q

You arrive at a residential home where a 52-year-old male patient is reported to be acting aggressively and has become physically threatening toward his family. On arrival, the patient is pacing around the room, shouting incoherently, and throwing objects. When you approach, he becomes more agitated, raises his fists, and threatens violence. He does not respond to verbal de-escalation attempts and appears confused, though he remains conscious.

What is this pt’s RASS score and what pharmaceutical intervention would you consider?

A

RASS 3

Droperidol 5-10mg IM

46
Q

What is the maximum number of doses for Ipratropium Bromide within one treatment session?

A

3

47
Q

When nebulising Salbutamol or Ipratropium Bromide what rate do you have the O2 at?

A

6-8L/min

48
Q

Besides hypersensitivity, what is another contraindication of Heparin?

A

Presence of known haemorrhagic state.

49
Q

What are the contraindications for administering Tranexamic Acid?

A

Injury time >3 hours
Hypersensitivity

50
Q

What is the indication for using Amiodarone?

A

Cardiac arrest with persistent/shock-resistant VF or pulseless VT post 3rd shock.

51
Q

Ipratropium Bromide can be administered via NEB or MDI. What are the initial doses for each?

A

NEB: 500mcg/2ml (administered with 5mg/2.5ml of Salbutamol)
MDI: 160mcg/8 puffs

52
Q

You are called to a restaurant where a 34-year-old male is experiencing difficulty breathing and swelling of the face and lips after eating a meal. The patient reports a known allergy to peanuts, which were unknowingly present in his meal. On assessment, he is pale, diaphoretic, and struggling to breathe. His respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute, and his SpO2 is 88% on room air. His blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg, and he has widespread urticaria.

What medication(s) would you administer, and what are the appropriate doses?

A

Adrenaline - 0.5mg/0.5ml IM.

Salbutamol - 5mg - 10mg NEB with oxygen rate 6-8L/min.

Sodium Chloride 0.9% - 250ml bolus IV.

Oxygen - After salbutamol neb is complete maintain oxygen therapy.

53
Q

Why is it important to administer TXA within the 3-hour window following trauma?

A

Administering TXA within the 3-hour window is critical because it inhibits fibrinolysis, the process where blood clots are broken down. During trauma, the body activates fibrinolysis as part of the coagulation cascade, but excessive fibrinolysis can lead to increased bleeding and worsen outcomes. TXA acts by blocking plasminogen activation to plasmin, thereby stabilising formed clots and preventing further bleeding. After 3 hours, the balance between clot formation and breakdown may shift unfavourably, increasing the risk of thrombosis or reduced effectiveness of clot stabilisation, potentially worsening patient outcomes.

54
Q

What is the standard bolus dose of Sodium Chloride 0.9% for shock management in adults?

A

250ml

55
Q

What is the time limit for administering Tranexamic Acid after an injury?

A

3 hrs

56
Q

What is the repeat dose for Sodium Chloride 0.9% in Post ROSC?

A

As required until BP >100mmHg, Max 500mls prior to Adrenaline.

57
Q

How is Glucose 10% drawn up and administered?

A

Using a 25ml syringe draw up 2.5g/25ml from the bag of Glucose 10%. With IV fluids already running, kink the line, administer the 25ml of glucose through the injection port on the line, release the kink allowing the fluids to continue running and flush the glucose. Repeat this process 5 more times to a total of 15g/150ml.

58
Q

You are called to a park where a 28-year-old male has slipped while jogging and sustained a severe ankle injury. The ankle is visibly swollen, deformed, and the patient is unable to bear weight. He rates his pain as 8/10 and is alert, with no other injuries or head trauma reported. His vitals are stable, and he has no known allergies. How would you manage his pain?

A

Methoxyflurane 3ml IH, with a possible repeat dose after 15 mins.

Should this be inadequate in managing his pain, administration of 1mcg/kg (max 100mcg) of Fentanyl should be considered.

59
Q

What is the indication for Methoxyflurane?

A

Pain

60
Q

What are the contraindications for Droperidol?

A

Known allergy, known Parkinson’s disease, post ketamine, postictal disturbed & abnormal behaviour.

61
Q

What are the indications for GTN use?

A

Chest pain/discomfort of presumed cardiac origin not relieved by rest and reassurance (systolic BP >90 mmHg & HR within 50-150 bpm).

Cardiogenic APO (systolic BP >90 mmHg).

Autonomic Dysreflexia with systolic (BP > 160 mmHg).

62
Q

What are the 2 methods of delivery TXA, include the dose and route?

A

1g/10ml OR 1g infusion in 250ml normal saline (both administered over 10mins)

63
Q

What is the initial dose of Glucose 10%?

A

15g/150ml

64
Q

You are called to a university dorm where a 21-year-old female student is reported to be behaving strangely. Her friends state she has been acting anxious and pacing back and forth for the last hour after receiving distressing news about her family. She is wringing her hands, speaking quickly but coherently, and appears restless, shifting her position frequently. She engages with you but has difficulty focusing and calming down when you try to talk to her.

What is this pt’s RASS score and what pharmaceutical intervention would you consider?

A

RASS 1 (Restless)

Rationale: The patient is anxious and moving frequently but is not aggressive or violent. She engages in conversation, although she struggles to calm down.

Olanzapine PO 10mg - self administered by pt.

65
Q

What is the repeat dosage for an adult using intranasal Fentanyl?

A

60mcg after 5 minutes

66
Q

In fluid replacement for shock and fluid loss the initial dose is 250ml bolus. What is the ongoing treatment/max dose?

A

Rapid admission. PRN titrated to max 2L.

67
Q

Why is a fluid line required to be in situ when providing Glucose 10%?

A

To prevent necrosis to the surrounding tissues.

68
Q

Is 0.6mg/0.5ml of Atropine the correct dose to treat symptomatic bradycardia, or organophosphate poisoning?

A

Symptomatic bradycardia

69
Q

True or false, the dose for Ondansetron in 4mg regardless of the administration route?

A

True

70
Q

What are the available routes of administration for Ondansetron?

A

PO, IM & IV

71
Q

You arrive at the scene of a construction accident where a 40-year-old male has fallen from a height of 2 meters. He is awake but confused, unable to answer questions coherently, and shows signs of agitation. He has a large laceration on his forehead with swelling. His GCS is assessed at 13 (E4, V4, M5), and his blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg.

What medication(s) would you administer, and why?

A

Ketamine - 2mg/kg (max 200mg) IM.

For management of agitation in TBI patients without significantly compromising respiratory function or further increasing intracranial pressure. It also allows for safer handling and transport of the patient.

72
Q

How long should you wait before repeating a dose of Olanzapine if the initial dose is not effective?

A

15 mins

73
Q

What is the initial, repeat and max dose for Paracetamol?

A

Initial dose: 500mg-1000mg
Repeat dose: 500mg-1000mg after 4 hours
Max dose: 4g in 24 hours

74
Q

You are called to a home where a 32-year-old woman is experiencing heavy bleeding after giving birth about an hour ago. She is pale, diaphoretic, and her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg with a heart rate of 120 bpm. The estimated blood loss is over 1000ml.

What medication(s) would you administer, and what are the appropriate doses?

A

NaCl 0.9% - 250ml IV bolus, titrating up to 2L as needed for fluid resuscitation. To support blood volume and manage hypovolaemic shock.

TXA - 1g IV over 10 minutes. To helps control severe bleeding by inhibiting fibrinolysis, which is especially important in postpartum haemorrhage.

75
Q

What are the 2 contraindications for Ketamine administration?

A

Hypersensitivity, active cardiovascular disease

76
Q

What is the repeat dose of Amiodarone, and when is it indicated?

A

150mg/3ml administered after the 5th consecutive shock.

77
Q

You are called to a home where a 28-year-old female is experiencing a seizure that has lasted for 8 minutes. The pt has a known history of epilepsy, and her family reports she missed her medication dose earlier in the day. The pt is convulsing and unresponsive.

What medication(s) would you administer, and what are the appropriate doses?

A

Oxygen 15L/min via non-rebreather

Midazolam - IM 5mg/1ml. 1x repeat after 5 mins.

Midazolam - IV 2.5ml/2.5ml. Repeat after 5 mins to a max of 15mg.

Consideration also to be made to glucose replenishment/maintenance.

78
Q

What should be monitored when administering large volumes of Sodium Chloride 0.9%?

A

Monitor for signs of fluid overload, such as pulmonary oedema, changes in vital signs, and oxygen saturation levels.

79
Q

What is the process for drawing up Atropine for organophosphate poisoning?

A

Draw up complete ampoule in 20ml syringe, add 11mls NaCl to make 1.2mg/12mL (100mcg/ml). Administer 10mls.

80
Q

A 55-year-old male patient has collapsed at work after prolonged exposure to heat. He is conscious but lethargic, with dry mucous membranes and a weak pulse. His blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg.

What pharmaceutical intervention would you be considering for this pt?

A

Administer a 250ml bolus of Sodium Chloride 0.9% IV/IO to address dehydration and hypovolaemia. Continue to monitor and administer additional boluses as needed based on the patient’s response.

81
Q

You are called to a 68-year-old male patient with dementia who has become increasingly agitated and verbally aggressive towards his caregivers. The caregivers report that he has not responded to de-escalation techniques and is at risk of harming himself or others.

What pharmaceutical intervention would you consider for this pt?

A

10mg self-administered Olanzapine

OR

5-10mg/1-2ml IM Droperidol if non compliant to self administration of Olanzapine.

82
Q

You are called to assist a 35-year-old male patient who has locked himself in his room. When you arrive, he is standing by the window, appearing agitated and yelling incoherently. He threatens to harm himself if anyone enters but makes no direct attempts at self-harm while you speak with him from outside the door.

What is this pt’s RASS score and what pharmaceutical intervention would you consider?

A

RASS 3 (Very Agitated)
Rationale: The patient is verbally aggressive and threatens harm, indicating severe agitation. While he is not physically aggressive at the moment, his behaviour suggests a heightened risk of escalation.

Droperidol IM 5-10mg

83
Q

What are the 3 Hs to check before administering GTN?

A

Hypersensitivity
Hypotension - BP <90mmHg
Hard on - Use of erectile dysfunction medication in the past 24 hours.

84
Q

A 45-year-old female with no known psychiatric history is behaving erratically and threatening to harm others at a shopping centre. She appears highly agitated (RASS score 2) and is refusing to cooperate with anyone. She has no allergies, but her partner mentions she has a history of Parkinson’s disease.

What pharmaceutical intervention would you consider for this pt?

A

5-10mg/1-2ml IM Droperidol as Olanzapine is contraindicated in pts with known Parkinson’s Disease and it wouldn’t be safe to attempt to gain IV at this point with this pt.

85
Q

What is the maximum dose of Olanzapine that can be given within a 24-hour period?

A

20mg

86
Q

Your pt has a confirmed STEMI, what drug are you going to administer before arriving at the CATH lab?

A

Heparin

87
Q

You are treating a pt with a RASS score of 4. What drug are you going to use and what dose?

A

IM Ketamine 4mg/kg (400mg)

Repeat: IV maintenance 0.5mg/kg, 5 mins

88
Q

What is the initial does for all indications for Ketamine administration

A

2nd line analgesic: 5-20mg/1-2ml titrated
1st line analgesic: 1mg/kg (max 100mg)
Combative TBI: 2mg/kg (max 200mg)
Rass 4: 4mg/kg (max 400mg)

89
Q

What are the primary indications for administering Tranexamic Acid (TXA) in a prehospital setting?

A

Significant trauma (<3 hours) with signs of hypovolaemia OR significant active haemorrhaging requiring torniquet or haemostatic dressings.

Suspected head injury (<3 hours) with GCS motor 4 or below.

Severe PPH >1000ml with hypovolaemia and birth <3 hours.

Significant post tonsillectomy haemorrhage.

90
Q

You are called to the scene of a high-speed car accident where a 35-year-old male driver, unrestrained, has crashed into a tree. The patient, initially unconscious, is now awake but highly agitated, thrashing around and yelling incoherently. He has a deep laceration on his forehead, unequal pupils (right larger than left), and shows signs of confusion and aggression, resisting your attempts to assist. His GCS is 12.

What drug and dose would you administer this pt, and why?

A

Ketamine 2mg/kg (max 200mg)

Given the MOI and current presentation, the pt’s combative behaviour is likely associated with a TBI. Administering Ketamine will help minimise the risk of secondary injury and facilitate safe transportation for both pt and paramedics.

91
Q

You are called to a basketball stadium where you find a 12-year-old male with a RR of 22 and an audible wheeze. He is anxious but able to follow instruction, there is no guardian present.

What is your pharmaceutical approach for this pt?

A

Salbutamol via MDI 4-12 puffs (400-1200mcg) using a spacer if available, instructing the patient to take one breath per puff. Repeat as necessary.

OR

Salbutamol via nebulise 5-10mg (1 - 2 nebules) attaching oxygen at 6-8 L/min. PRN, no max.

92
Q

Fentanyl Citrate presents in 100mcg/2mls. What dilution will you use to enable the easiest drug calculations?

A

Draw entire ampoule up in 10ml syringe, add 8mls NaCl to make 100mcg in 10mls, administer as per weight and age.

Eg: A 60kg pt, will receive 60mcgs/6mls.

93
Q

You are called to a primary school where a 35-year-old female parent is behaving erratically at school pick-up. The teacher reports that the parent is pacing back and forth, speaking loudly and gesturing angrily. The parent appears visibly upset, and when approached, she becomes irritable, raising her voice and waving her arms but not making physical threats. The teacher has stalled releasing the child, and the child mentioned that their mum usually takes medicine but has not gone to the pharmacy in a while. The parent is unable to calm down despite attempts by staff to de-escalate the situation.

What is this pt’s RASS score and what pharmaceutical intervention would you consider?

A

RASS 2 (Agitated)

Rationale: The parent shows signs of frequent, non-purposeful movement, such as pacing and gesturing, and displays verbal irritation. While her behaviour is disruptive and agitated, it does not include physical aggression towards others.

Olanzapine 5-10mg PO if pt is willing to self administer.

OR

Droperidol IM 5-10mg

94
Q

The RASS agitation scores range from 0 to 4. Elaborate on the distinguishing factors of each of the stages below.

0: Calm
1: Restless
2: Agitated
3: Very Agitated
4: Combative

A

4 (Combative): Overtly combative, violent, immediate danger to staff.

3 (Very Agitated): Pulls or removes tubes/catheters, aggressive behaviour.

2 (Agitated): Frequent non-purposeful movement, fights against ventilator or assistance.

1 (Restless): Anxious, apprehensive, but movements are not aggressive or vigorous.

0 (Calm): Fully alert and calm, not exhibiting any signs of agitation or sedation.

95
Q

What are the indications for administering Salbutamol?

A

Bronchospasm and respiratory distress associated with wheeze, including acute bronchial asthma, bronchitis, smoke inhalation, severe allergic/anaphylactic reactions, acute pulmonary oedema (APO) (non-cardiac), saltwater aspiration syndrome, and COPD.

96
Q

In hypovolaemic cardiac arrest, what is the max dose for Sodium Chloride 0.9%?

A

2L

97
Q

What is the first drug given in cardiac arrest, and what is the dose?

A

IV Adrenaline 1mg/1ml neat

98
Q

What are the contraindications for Methoxyflurane?

A

Pt unable to understand, severe renal impairment, head injury and altered GCS preventing co-operation, hypersensitivity

99
Q

What drug is indicated for disturbed and abnormal behaviour (RASS 1-3) where there is a risk to safety, and de-escalation is ineffective.

A

Droperidol

100
Q

What is the indication for administering Aspirin in a prehospital setting?

A

Chest pain/discomfort of presumed cardiac origin.