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Drug names Flashcards

1
Q

Name the direct acting cholinomimetics

A 
Acetylcholine
Bethanechol
Carbachol 
Methacholine
Verenicline
Cevimeline
Pilocarpine
Arecoline
Lobeline
Muscarine
Nicotine
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2
Q

Name the direct acting cholinomimetics (choline esters)

A

Acetylcholine
Bethanechol
Carbachol
Methacholine

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3
Q

Name the direct acting cholinomimetics (synthetic)

A

Verenicline

Cevimeline

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4
Q

Name the direct acting cholinomimetics (alkaloids)

A 
Pilocarpine
Lobeline
Arecoline
Nicotine
Muscarine
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5
Q

Name the indirect acting cholinomimetics

A 
Edrophonium
Pyridostigmine
Rivastigmine
Neostigmine
Distigmine 
Physostigmine
Organophosphates
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6
Q

Name the indirect acting irreversible cholinomimetics (irreversible)

A

Organophosphates (e.g., Methioprine)

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7
Q

Name the indirect acting reversible cholinomimetics

A 
Edrophonium
Physostigmine
Rivastigmine
Neostigmine
Distigmine
Pyridostigmine
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8
Q

Name the indirect acting quaternary cholinomimetics

A

Edrophonium
Pyridostigmine
Neostigmine
Distigmine

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9
Q

Name the indirect acting tertiary cholinimimetics

A

Physostigmine

Rivastigmine

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10
Q

What is another name for muscarinic antagonists?

A

Parasympatholytics

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11
Q

Name the muscarinic antagonists

A 
Atropine
Scopolamine
Homatropine
Benztropine
Ipratropium
Tiatropium
Methylalatropine
Procyclidin
Biperidin
Tropicamide
Pirenzepine
Tolterodine
Oxybutynin 
Solifenacine
Darifenacine
Propantheline
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12
Q

Name the tertiary tropeins muscarinic antagonists

A

Atropine
Scopolamine
Homatropine
Benztropine

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13
Q

Name the quarternary tropeins muscarinic antagonists

A

Ipratropium
Tiatropium
Methylalatropine

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14
Q

Name the synthetic muscarinic antagonists with tertiary amines

A 
Procyclidin
Biperidin
Tropicamide
Pirenzepine
Tolterodine
Oxybutynin 
Solifenacine
Darifenacine
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15
Q

Name the synthetic muscarinic antagonists with quaternary amines

A

Propantheline

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16
Q

What are the first line agents for TB?

A 
Rifampin
Isoniazide
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Streptomycin
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17
Q

What are the 2nd line agents for TB?

A 
Ethionamide
Cycloserine
Paraaminosalicyclic acid (PAS)
Kanamycin
Amikacin
Capreomycin
Fluroquinolones
Rifabutin
Linezolid
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18
Q

What is the treatment and prophylaxis of MAC in AIDS patients with a CD4+ < 50?

A

Macrolide (azithro or erythromycin)
Ethambutol
Rufabutin

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19
Q

What is the treatment for leprosy?

A

Dapsone
Rifampin
Clofazamine

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20
Q

Other than leprosy, what other clinical uses are there for Dapsone?

A

Prevention of pneumocystis pneumonia and toxoplasma in immunosuppressed patients.
Acne
IgA vasculitis
Dermatitis Herpetiformis

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21
Q

Name the metabolic modulator used in the treatment of IHD

A

Trimetazidine

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22
Q

Name the nitrates

A

Nitroglycerine
Isosorbide mononitrate
Isosorbide denitrate

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23
Q

Name the heart rate controllers used in IHD

A

Ivabradine

Ranolazine

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24
Q

What are the 3 classes of CCB?

A

Class 1 - Phenylalkilamines
Class 2 - Benzothiazepines
Class 3 - dihydropyridines

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25
Q

Name the class 1 CCB

A

Gallopamil

Verapamil

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26
Q

Name the class 2 CCB

A

Diltiazam

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27
Q

Name the class 3 CCB

A 
Nifedipine
Nicardipine
Nimodipine
Nitrendipine
Nisoldipine
Felodipine
Isradipine
Amlodipine
Lacidipine
Lercanidipine
Manidipine
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28
Q

Name the short acting class 3 CCB

A

Nifedipine
Nicardipine
Nimodipine

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29
Q

Name the intermediate acting class 3 CCB

A

Nitrendipine
Nisoldipine
Felodipine
Isradipine

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30
Q

Name the long acting class 3 CCB

A

Amlodipine
Lacidipine
Lercanidipine
Manidipine

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31
Q

Name the drugs acting on the imidazoline receptors

A

Moxonidine

Rilmenidine

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32
Q

Name the alpha 2 agonists

A 
Clonidine
Methyl-dopa
Guaficine
Guanabenz
Tizanidine
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33
Q

Name the alpha 1 agonists

A

Phenylephrine
Methoxamine
Midodrine

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34
Q

Name the releasers

A 
Amphetamine
Tyramine
Ephedrine
Norpseudoephedrine
Modanifil
Methylfenidate
Dexmethylfenidate
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35
Q

Name the reuptake inhibitors

A

Cocaine
TCA
SNRI/SSRI/NDRI

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36
Q

Name the non selective irreversible MAO inhibitors

A

Phenelzine

Tranylcypromine

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37
Q

Name the irreversible MAO-B inhibitors

A

Selegiline

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38
Q

Name the reversible MAO-A inhibitors

A

Moclobemide

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39
Q

Name the non-selective alpha receptor antagonists

A

Phenoxybenzamine
Phentolamine
Tolazoline

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40
Q

Name the selective alpha 1 receptor antagonists

A 
Prazosin
Doxazosin
Terazosin
Alfusosin
Tamulosin
Urapidil
Labetalol
Carvedilol
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41
Q

Name the selective alpha 2 receptor antagonists

A

Yohimbine

Mirtazapine

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42
Q

Name the beta blockers

A 
Atenalol
Acebutolol 
Bisprolol
Betaxolol
Celiprolol
Esmolol
Metoprolol
Nebivolol
Butoxamine
Carvedilol
Labetalol
Carteolol
Nadolol
Penbutol
Pindolol
Propanalol
Sotalol
Timalol
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43
Q

Name the cardioselective (B1 selective) beta blockers

A 
Atenalol
Acebutolol 
Bisprolol
Betaxolol
Celiprolol
Esmolol
Metoprolol
Nebivolol
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44
Q

Name the beta-2 selective beta blockers

A

Butoxamine

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45
Q

Name the beta blockers which also work on alpha receptors

A

Labetalol

Carvedilol

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46
Q

Name the non selective beta blockers

A 
Carteolol
Nadolol
Penbutol
Pindolol
Propanalol
Sotalol
Timalol
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47
Q

Name the anti-pseudomonal penicillins

A

Ticarcillin

Piperacillin

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48
Q

Name the aminopenicillins

A

Ampicillin

Amoxicillin

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49
Q

Name the anti-staphylococcal penicillins

A 
Methicillin
Nafcillin
Oxacillin
Cloxacillin
Dicloxacillin
Flucloxacillin
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50
Q

Name the basic penicillin drugs

A

Penicillin G
Penicillin V
Penamecillin

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51
Q

Name the 5th generation cephalosporins

A

Ceftaroline

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52
Q

Name the 4th generation cephalosporins

A

Cefepime

Ceftolozon (+tazobactam)

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53
Q

Name the 3rd generation cephalosporins

A

Ceftazadine
Ceftriaxone
Cefotaxime
Cefixime

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54
Q

Name the 2nd generation cephalosporins

A

Cefotetan
Cefuroxime
Cefoxitin
Cefaclor

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55
Q

Name the 1st generation cephalosporins

A

Cefazolin

Cephalexin

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56
Q

Name all of the carbapenems

A

Ertapenem
Imipenem
Meropenem
Doripenem

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57
Q

Name the 1st generation carbapenems

A

Ertapenem

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58
Q

Name the 2nd generation carbapenems

A

Imipenem
Meropenem
Doripenem

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59
Q

Name the monobactams

A

Aztreonam

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60
Q

Name the beta-lactamase inhibitors

A

Clavulanic acid
Sulbactam
Tazobactam

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61
Q

Name the macho antagonists used in asthma and COPD

A

Atropine
Ipratropium
Tiotropium

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62
Q

Name the xanthine that is used in COPD and asthma

A

Theophylline

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63
Q

Name the LABA

A 
Salmeterol
Formoterol
Clenbuterol
Bambuterol
Indacaterol, olodaterol, vilanterol
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64
Q

Name the SABA

A

Albuterol
Levalbuterol
Terbutaline
Fenoterol

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65
Q

Name the IV/oral corticosteroids used in asthma and COPD

A

Methylprednisolone
Prednisone
Prednisolone

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66
Q

Name the inhaled corticosteroids used in asthma and COPD

A

Beclamethasone
Budesonide
Fluticasone

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67
Q

Name the 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor

A

Zileuton

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68
Q

Name the CystLT1 antagonists

A

Zafirlukast

Montelukast

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69
Q

Name the anti-IgE monoclonal antibody

A

Omalizumab

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70
Q

Name the drug that inhibits mast cell degranulation

A

Cromolyn

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71
Q

Name the anti-IL5 monoclonal antibody

A

Reslizumab

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72
Q

Name the centrally acting antitussive drugs

A 
Codeine
Dihydrocodeine
Narcotine
Ethylmorphine
Dextromethorphan
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73
Q

Name the peripherally acting antitussive drugs

A

Prenoxdiazine
Levodopropizine
Local anaesthetics e.g., lidocaine

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74
Q

Name the secretolytics

A 
Guajacol
Guaifenesin
Essential oils (e.g., peppermint oil)
Iodine Salts
Ammonium Chloride
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75
Q

Name the mucolytics

A

Bromhexine
Acetylcysteine
Dornase alpha

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76
Q

Name the short acting tetracyclins

A

Tetracycline

Oxytetracycline

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77
Q

Name the long acting tetracyclins

A

Lymecycline
Minocyline
Doxycycline

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78
Q

Name the glycylcyclins

A

Tigecycline

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79
Q

Name all of the aminoglycosides

A 
Streptomycin
Neomycin
Amikacin
Kanamycin
Spectinomycin
Gegntamicin
Tobramycin
Netilmicin
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80
Q

Which aminoglycosides are 2nd line agents for the treatment of TB?

A

Amikain

Kanamycin

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81
Q

Name the ketolides

A

Telithromycin

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82
Q

Name the macroclides

A 
Erythromycin
Roxithromycin
Clarithromycin
Azithromycin
Spiramycin
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83
Q

Name the anti fungal drugs used for systemic infections

A

Amphotericin B

Liposomal Amphotericin B

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84
Q

Name the anti-fungal antimetabolites

A

5-flucytosine

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85
Q

Name the imidazoles

A

Clotrimazole

Ketoconazole

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86
Q

Name the 1st generation triazoles

A

Fluconazole

itraconazole

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87
Q

Name the 2nd generation triazoles

A

Voriconazole

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88
Q

Name the echinocandins

A

Capsofungin
Micafungin
Anidulafungin

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89
Q

Name the systemic anti fungal drugs for mucocutaneous infections

A

Terbinafine

Griseofulvin

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90
Q

Name the local anti fungal drug (polyene macrolide antibiotic)

A

Nystatin

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91
Q

Name the lincosamide antibiotic

A

Clindamycin

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92
Q

Name the antibiotics that work by inhibiting the 50s ribosomal subunit

A

Clindamycin
Macrolides
Cloramphenicol

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93
Q

Name streptogramin A and B

A

A: Quinupristin
B: Dalfopristin

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94
Q

Name the oxazolidinone

A

Linezolid

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95
Q

Name the nitroimidazoles

A

Metronidazole

Tinidazole

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96
Q

Name the macrocyclic

A

Findaxomycine

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97
Q

Name the Rifamicins

A

Rifaximin

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98
Q

Name the 1st generation fluoroquinolones

A

Norfloxacin

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99
Q

Name the 2nd generation fluoroquinolones

A

Pefloxacin
Ofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin

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100
Q

Name the 3rd generation fluoroquinolones

A

Levofloxacin

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101
Q

Name the 4th generation fluoroquinolones

A

Moxifloxacin

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102
Q

Name the non-fluorinated quinolines

A

Nalidixic acid

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103
Q

Name the centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants (spasmolytics)

A

Baclofen
Diazepam
Tizanidine
Tolperisone

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104
Q

Name the drugs used for acute muscle spasm (unknown mechanism)

A

Mephenesin

Guaiphenesin

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105
Q

Name the non-depolarising (competitive) skeletal muscle relaxants

A 
D-tubocurarine
Mivacurium
Cistracurium
Atracurium
Doxacurium
Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Pancuronium
Pipecuronium
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106
Q

Name the non-depolarising (competitive) skeletal muscle relaxants (ISOQUINOLINES)

A 
D-tubocurarine
Mivacurium
Cistracurium
Atracurium
Doxacurium
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107
Q

Name the non-depolarising (competitive) skeletal muscle relaxants (STEROIDS)

A

Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Pancuronium
Pipecuronium

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108
Q

What AchEI is used to terminate the effect of the non depolarising competitive skeletal muscle relaxants

A

Neostigmine (distigmine)

Coadministered with Atropine in order to antagonise their PSY effect

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109
Q

Name the depolarising non-competitive skeletal muscle relaxant

A

Succinylcholine

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110
Q

Name the drugs used for heart failure

A

Digoxin

Digitoxin

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111
Q

Name the drug used in heart failure which inhibits PDE

A

Milrinone

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112
Q

Name the class Ia antiarrythmics

A

Procainamide
Qunidine
Disopyramide

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113
Q

Name the class Ib antiarrythmics

A

Phenytoin
Lidocaine
Mexilitine

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114
Q

Name the class Ic antiarrythmics

A

Propafenone

Flecainide

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115
Q

Name the class II antiarrythmics

A

Metoprolol
Propanolol
Esmolol
Sotalol

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116
Q

Name the class III antiarrythmics

A

Amiodarone
Sotalol
Dofetilide
Ibutilide

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117
Q

Name the class IV antiarythmics

A

Verapamil

Diltiazam

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118
Q

Name the ‘other’ antiarrythmics

A

Adenosine
Mg sulfate
Digoxin

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119
Q

Name all of the K+ sparing diuretics

A 
Spirinolactone
Eplerenone
Triamterene
Amiloride
Li salts
Demeclocycline
Conivaptan
Tolvaptan
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120
Q

Name the ADH antagonists

A

Li+ salts
Demeclocycline
Conivaptan
Tolvaptan

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121
Q

Name the inhibitors of ENaC

A

Amiloride

Triamterene

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122
Q

Name the aldosterone inhibitors

A

Spirinolactone

Eplerenone

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123
Q

Name the osmotic diuretics

A

Mannitol
Glycerol
Isosorbide
Urea

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124
Q

Name the natural opiates

A

Morphine

Codeine

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125
Q

Name the thienopyridines

A 
Ticlopidine
Clopidogrel
Prasugrel
Ticagrelor
Cangrelor
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126
Q

Name the PAR1 receptor antagonist

A

Vorapaxar

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127
Q

Name the Gp IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists

A

Abciximab
Tirofiban
Eptifibatide

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128
Q

Name the PDE inhibitors used for anti-platelet purposes

A

Cilostazol

Dipyridamole

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129
Q

Name the cytotoxic immunosuppressive drugs

A 
Methotrexate
Azathioprine
Leflunomide
Cyclophosphamide
Myclophenolate Mofetil
Cyclosporine A
Tacrolimus
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130
Q

Name the drugs which inhibit signalling of cell proliferation

A

Sirolimus
Everolimus
Temsirolimus

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131
Q

The monoclonal recombinant murine Ab against CD3 coreceptor of TCR

A

Muromonab-CD3

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132
Q

Monoclonal antibody against IL-2 receptor

A

Basiliximab

Daclizumab

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133
Q

Monoclonal antibody against CD20 of B cells

A

Rituximab

Ocrelizumab

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134
Q

Monoclonal antibody against CD52

A

Alemtuzumab

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135
Q

Where is CD52 present?

A

B, T, NK cells and macrophages

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136
Q

Name the antibodies against TNFa

A 
Adalimumamb
Certolizumab peg
Etanercept
Golimumab
Infliximab
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137
Q

IL-1 receptor antagonist

A

Anakinra

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138
Q

Anti-IL1beta antibody

A

Canakinumab

Rilonacept

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139
Q

Anti-IL-5 antibody

A

Reslizumab

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140
Q

Anti-IL-6 receptor antibody

A

Tocilizumab

Sarilumab

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141
Q

Anti-IL-17 antibody

A

Secukinumab
Izekizumab
Brodalumab

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142
Q

Anti-IL 12/23 antibody

A

Ustekinumab

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143
Q

Anti-IL-23 Antibody

A

Guselkumab

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144
Q

Anti-B lymphocyte stimulator protein antibody

A

Belimumab

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145
Q

Anti-alpha-4 integrin antibody

A

Natalizumab

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146
Q

Anti-alpha4b7 integrin antibody

A

Vedolizumab

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147
Q

Antibody against FCepsilon of IgE

A

Omalizumab

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148
Q

Antibody against complement factor 5

A

Eculizumab

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149
Q

CTLA-4/Fc fusion protein

A

Abatacept

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150
Q

Name the semisynthetic compounds with mild/moderate analgesic effect (phenantrenes)

A

Ethylmorphine
Dihydrocodeine
Hydrocodone

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151
Q

Name the semisynthetic compounds with strong analgesic effect (phenantrenes)

A

Heroin
Hydromorphone
Oxymorphone
Oxycodone

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152
Q

Name the mixed mu antagonists/ kappa agonist compounds

A

Nalpuphine

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153
Q

Name the mixed mu partial agonist/kappa antagonist

A

Buprenorphine

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154
Q

Name the mu antagonists

A

Naloxone

Naltrexone

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155
Q

Name the synthetic compounds (diphenylheptans)

A

Methadone

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156
Q

Name the synthetic compounds (Phenylpiperdines)

A 
Meperidine
Fentanyl
Alfentanil
Sulfentanil
Remifentanil
Diphenoxylate
Loperamide
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157
Q

Name the mixed mu partial agonists / Kappa agonist

A

Butorphanol

Pentazocine

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158
Q

Name the ‘other’ synthetic analgesics

A

Tramadol

Tapentadol

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159
Q

Name the natural opiates

A

Morphine

Codeine

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160
Q

Name the first generation antihistamines

A 
Dimetindene
Diphenhydramine
Chloropyramine
Promethazine
Cyproheptadine
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161
Q

Name the systemic second generation anti histamines

A 
Cetirizine
Levocetirizine
Loratidine
Deloratidine
Fexofenadine
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162
Q

Name the topical second generation anti-histimines

A 
Azelastin
Na-chromoglycate
Lodoxamide
Ketotifen
Emedastine
Olopatadine
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163
Q

Name the short acting synthetic systemic glucocorticoids

A

Hydrocortisone
Cortisone
Fludrocortisone

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164
Q

Name the intermediate acting synthetic systemic glucocorticoids

A

Prednisone
Prednisolone
Methylprednisolone
Triamcinolone

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165
Q

Name the long acting synthetic systemic glucocorticoids

A

Betamethasone

Dexamethasone

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166
Q

Name the mineralcorticoids

A

Aldosterone
Deoxycorticosterone
Fludrocortisone

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167
Q

Name the topically applied (aerosol) glucocorticoids used in bronchial asthma

A 
Beclomethasone
Fluticasone
Mometasone
Budesonide
Flunisolide
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168
Q

Name the topically applied (nasal spray) glucocorticoids used in allergic rhinitis

A

Beclamethasone
Triamcinalone
Budesonide
Flunisolide

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169
Q

Name the topically applied (ointments) glucocorticoids used in dermatology

A

Triamcinolone

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170
Q

Name the fibrinolytic agents

A 
Streptokinase
Anistreplase
Staphylokinase
Urokinase
tPA
Alteplase
Reteplase
Tenecteplase
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171
Q

Name the heparins

A

UFH
LMWH
Fondaparinux
Danaparoid

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172
Q

Name the direct thrombin inhibitors

A

Hirudin
Bivalirudin
Argatroban
Dabigatran

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173
Q

Name the direct factor Xa inhibitors

A

Rivaroxaban
Apixaban
Edoxaban

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174
Q

Name the antifolate chemotherapeutic drugs (antimetabolites)

A

Methotrexate
Raltitrexed
Pemetrexed

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175
Q

Name the antimetabolite chemotherapeutic drugs that are pyrimidine analogues

A 
5-flurouracil
Tegafur
Capecitabine
Trifluridine
Tipiracil
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176
Q

Name the antimetabolite chemotherapeutic drugs that are purine analogues

A

6-Mercaptopurine
6-Thioguanine
Fludrabine
Nelarabine

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177
Q

Name the antimetabolite chemotherapeutic drugs that are deoxycytidine analogues

A

Cytarabine
Gemcitabine
Cladribine

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178
Q

Name the nitrogen mustard derivatives used in chemotherapy

A

Cyclophosphamide
Ifosfamide
Melphalan
Thiotepa

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179
Q

Name the nitrosureas used in chemotherapy

A

Carmustine

Lomustine

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180
Q

Name the platinum analogs/derivatives used in chemotherapy

A

Cisplatin
Carboplatin
Oxaliplatin

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181
Q

Name the antibiotics that are also used as chemotherapeutic agents

A

Bleomycin
Mitomycin
Actinomycin D

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182
Q

Name the mTOR inhibitors

A

Everolimus

Temsirolimus

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183
Q

Name the TK inhibitors that inhibit ABL, C-KIT and PDGFR

A 
Imatinib
Dasatinib
Nilotinib
Dasatinib
Ponatinib
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184
Q

Name the TK inhibitors that inhibit HER2 and EGFR (dual) antagonists

A

Lapatinib

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185
Q

Name the selective EGFR antagonists

A

Erlotinib
Gefitinib
Afatinib

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186
Q

Name the Bruton’s tyrosine kinase inhibitor

A

Ibrutinib

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187
Q

Name the EGFR, PDGFR and VEGFR antagonists

A

Sunitinib
Sorafenib
Pazopanib

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188
Q

Name the selective VEGFR 1, 2 and 3 antagonists

A

Axitinib

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189
Q

Name the VEGFR and FGFR inhibitors

A

Lenvantinib

Vandetanib

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190
Q

Name the multiple tyrosine kinase inhibitors

A

Regorafenib

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191
Q

Name the BRAF kinase inhibitor

A

Vemurafenib

Dabrafenib

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192
Q

Name the MAP kinase inhibitor

A

Trametinib

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193
Q

Name the ALK inhibitor (anapaestic lymphoma kinase)

A

Crizotinib

Certinib

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194
Q

Name the JAK1/JAK2 inhibitors

A

Ruxolitinib

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195
Q

Name the PI3 kinase inhibitors

A

Idelalisib

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196
Q

Name the RET kinase inhibitors

A

Cobazantinib

Vandetanib

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197
Q

Name the inhibitors of androgen signal transduction, androgen nuclear translocation and androgen receptor binding

A

Enzylutamid

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198
Q

Name the proteasome inhibitors

A

Bortezomib
Carfilzomib
Ixazomib

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199
Q

Name the BCL-2 protein inhibitor

A

Venetoclax

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200
Q

Name the HDAC inhibitors (histone deacetylase inhibitors)

A

Panobinostat

Vorinostat

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201
Q

Name the hedgehog inhibitors

A

Vismodegib

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202
Q

Name the monoclonal antibody against CD20 of B cells

A

Rituximab

Ofatumumab

203
Q

Name the anti-EGFR mAb

A

Cetuximab

Panitumumab

204
Q

Name the anti-CD52 mAb on B and T lymphocytes

A

Alemtuzumab

205
Q

name the anti-HER2 (EGFR2) mAb

A

Trastuzumab

Pertuzumab

206
Q

Name the anti-CD38 mAb

A

Daratumumab

207
Q

Name the enzyme that depletes serum asparagine

A

L-Asparaginase

208
Q

Name the anti-IL2 mAb

A

Aldesleukin

209
Q

Name the monoclonal antibody which binds CTLA-4

A

Ipilimumab

210
Q

Name the monoclonal antibody which binds PD-1

A

Pembrolizumab

211
Q

Name the human IgG4 mab which binds PD-1

A

Nivolumab

212
Q

Name the anti-VEGF-A antibody

A

Bevacizumab

213
Q

Name the anti-VEGR-2 antibody

A

Ramucirumab

214
Q

Name the fusion protein binding VEGF A and B as a fake receptor

A

Aflibercept

215
Q

Name the ultra short acting insulin preparations

A

Lispro
Aspart
Glulisine

216
Q

Name the short acting insulin analogue

A

Regular human insulin

217
Q

Name the intermediate acting insulin

A

NPH

218
Q

Name the ultra long acting insulins

A

Degludec
Determir
Glargine

219
Q

Name the GLP1 agonists

A 
Exenatide
Lixisenatide
Liraglutide
Albiglutide
Dulaglutide
220
Q

Name the amylin analogue

A

Pramlinitide

221
Q

Name the 1st generation sulfonylureas

A

Tolbutamide
Tolazamide
Chlorpropamide

222
Q

Name the 2nd generation sulfonylureas

A

Glyburide
Gliclazide
Glipizide
Glimepiride

223
Q

Name the meglitinides

A

Repaglinide

Nateglinide

224
Q

Name the biguanides

A

Metformin

225
Q

Name the thiazolidenediones

A

Pioglitazone

Rosiglitazone

226
Q

Name the DPP-4 inhibitors

A 
Alogliptin
Linagliptin
Sitagliptin
Vildagliptin
Saxagliptin
227
Q

Name the alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

Acarbose

Miglitol

228
Q

Name the SGLT-2 inhibitors

A

Dapagliflozin

Canagliflozin

229
Q

Name the inhaled anaesthetics

A 
Halothane
Enflurane
Isoflurane
Desflurane
Sevoflurane
Nitrous Oxide
230
Q

Name the BARBITURATES used as IV anaesthetics

A

Thiopental

Methohexital

231
Q

Name the benzodiazepines used in IV anaesthesia

A

Midazolam
Lorazepam
Diazepam

232
Q

Name the synthetic opioids used in IV anaesthesia

A

Fentanyl
Alfentanil
Remifentanil
Sulfentanil

233
Q

Name the alpha 2 agonists used in IV anasthesia

A

Clonidine

234
Q

Name the main IV anaesthetics

A

Etomidate
Propofol
Ketamine

235
Q

Name the 1st generation antipsychotics

A 
Fluphenazine
Chlorpromazine
Thiothixene
Flupenthixol
Haloperidol
Droperidol
236
Q

Name the 2nd generation antipsychotics

A 
Clozapine
Olanzapine
Quetiapine
Risperidone
Paliperidone
Ziprasidone
Lurasidone
Sertindole
Iloperidone
Aripiprazole
Cariprazine
Sulpiride
Tiapride
Amisulpiride
237
Q

Name the TCAs

A 
Trimipramine
Clomipramine
Desipramine
Imipramine
Amitryptyline
Amitryptyline
238
Q

Name the MAO inhibitors

A

Phenelezine
Tranylcypromine
Selegiline
Moclobemide

239
Q

Name the 5-HT3 receptor antagonists

A

Ondansetron
Granisetron
Dolasetron
Palonosetron

240
Q

Name the D2 receptor antagonists

A 
Chlorpromaize
Prochlorperazine
Promethazine
Thiethylperazine
Haloperidol
Droperidol
Metoclopramide
Domperidone
241
Q

Name the cannabinoids

A

Dronabinol

Nabilone

242
Q

Name the colloidal laxatives

A 
Methylcellulose
Gummi arabicum
Psyllium
Tragacantha
Dried Fruits
243
Q

Name the osmotic laxatives

A 
Mg-Sulfate
Na-sulfate
Na-phosphate
Lactulose
Sorbitol
Mannitol
Glycerin
244
Q

Name the laxative softening the stool (lubricants)

A

Paraffin oil

Docusate

245
Q

Name the opioid antagonists used in constipation

A

Methylnaltrexone

Alvimopan

246
Q

Name the laxatives that irritate/stimulate the intestinal wall

A 
Emodins
Castor oil
Phenolphtalein
Bisacodyl
Na-picosulphate
247
Q

Name the chloride channel activators

A

Lubiprostone

Linaclotide

248
Q

Name the opioid agents that decreased intestinal motility

A

Diphenoxylate
Loperamide
Atropine

249
Q

Name the antidiarrheal agents (adsorbing and astringent materials)

A

Activated charcoal
Tannic acid
Bolus alba
Bismuth subgallate

250
Q

Name the enkephalinase inhibitors

A

Racekadotril

251
Q

Name the hepatoprotective agents

A

Sylmarine

Silibiline

252
Q

Name the agents decreasing the ammonia level

A

Rifaximin
Lactulose
Neomycin

253
Q

Name the SSRIs

A 
Sertraline
Fluoxetine
Citalopram
Fluvoxamine
Paroxetine
254
Q

Name the SSNRIs

A

Venlafaxin
Desvenlafaxin
Duloxetine
Milnaciprine

255
Q

Name the SNRIs

A

Reboxetine

Atomoxetine

256
Q

What is the spectrum of action anti staph penicillins

A

Narrow spectrum, beta lactamase resistant

257
Q

What is the spectrum of action of aminopenicillins

A

Broad spectrum, beta lactamase sensitive

258
Q

Which penicillin penetrates the billiary tract?

A

Ampicillin

259
Q

How can we categorise the anti-psudomonnal penicillins

A

Carboxypenicillins - ticeracillin (Pseudomonnas only)

Ureidopenicllins - piperacillin (Pseudomonnas and Kleibsiella)

260
Q

What are the indications for anti-pseudomonnal penicillins

A

Sever pneumonia

Complicated urinary tract, intra-abdominal and skin and soft tissue infections

261
Q

Penicillins are synergistic with which antibiotics

A

Aminoglycosides: increased activity against pneumococcus and enterococcus

262
Q

How are penicillins eliminated

A

Kidney; tubular elimination. this is blocked by probenicid

263
Q

What is the spectrum of action of the basic penicillins

A

narrow spectrum, beta lactamase sensitive

264
Q

Which cephalosporin is eliminated in the bile?

A

Ceftriaxone

265
Q

How are cefuroxime, cefotetan and cefoxitin administered?

A

Parenterally

266
Q

Which second generation cephalosporin enters the CNS

A

Cefuroxime

267
Q

Name the parenteral 3rd generation cephalosporins

A

Ceftriaxone
Ceftazadine
Cefotaxime

268
Q

Name the oral 3rd generation cephalosporins

A

Cefixime

269
Q

Name the oral 2nd generation cephalosporin

A

Cefaclor

270
Q

What drugs are in the 1st and 2nd subtype of 3rd generation cephalosporins

A

1st stubtype: cefotaxime, ceftriaxone

2ns subtype: ceftazadine

271
Q

How are carbapenems administered?

A

Only parenterally

272
Q

What is the half life of Ertapenem and Imipenem?

A

Ertapenem - long: 1 day

Imipenem - short: 3/4 times daily

273
Q

Which carbapenem works against E. fecalis?

A

Imipenem

274
Q

How is aztreonam administered?

A

Parenteral

275
Q

Name the oral absorbable sulphonamides

A

Sulfamethoxazole
Sulfadiazine
Sulfadoxine

276
Q

Name the oral non-absorbable sulphonamides

A

Sulfasalazine

277
Q

Name the topical sulfonamides

A

Sulfacetamine
Silver sulfadiazine
Sulfafadimidine

278
Q

Name the polymyxins

A

Polymyxin B and E

Polymyxin E = Colistin

279
Q

How is tigecycline eliminated?

A

Biliary tract

280
Q

What antibiotic are aminoglycosdies synergistic with and why?

A

B lactamases (or vancomycin) as they penetrate the cell wall of gram negative aerobes

281
Q

Which aminoglycosides are 2nd line agents for TB

A

Amikacin
Streptomycin
Kanamycin

282
Q

Name the quinolones (non-fluronated)

A

Nalidixic acid

283
Q

Name the macrocyclics

A

Fidaxomycine

284
Q

Name the rifamicins

A

Rifampin
Rifabutin
Rifaximin

285
Q

Name the NRTI that causes nephrotoxicity

A

Tenofovir

286
Q

Name the NRTI (Thymidine analogs)

A

Zidovudine

Stavudine

287
Q

Name the NRTI (Cytidine analogs)

A

Emtricitabine

Lamivudine

288
Q

Name the NTRI (Purine analogs)

A

Abcavir

Tenofovir

289
Q

Name the 1st generation NNRTI

A

Nevirapin
Efavirenz
Delavirdine

290
Q

Name the 2nd generation NNRTI

A

Etravirin

Rilpivirin

291
Q

Name the protease inhibitors

A 
Ritonavir
Tipranavir
Lopinavir
Darunavir
Atazanavir
Indinavir
292
Q

Name the entry inhibitor

A

Maraviroc

293
Q

Name the fusion inhibitors

A

Enfuvirtide
Sifuvirtide
Ibalizumab

294
Q

Name the pg41 inhibitor

A

Enfuvirtide

Sifuvirtide

295
Q

Name the CCR5 inhibitor

A

Maraviroc

296
Q

Name the integrase inhibitors

A

Raltegravir
Elvitegravir
Dolutegravir

297
Q

Name the blood schizonticides

A 
Chloroquine
Quinine
Quinidine
Mefloquine
Halofantrine
Luemefantrine
Artemisinin
298
Q

Name the tissue schizonticides

A

Primaquine

299
Q

What drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase thymidylate synthase

A

Proguanil

300
Q

What does proguanil inhibit

A

Dihydroreductase thymidylate synthase

301
Q

Which folate synthesis inhibitors are used in the treatment of malaria

A

Pyrimethamine/Sulfadiazine

Proguanil

302
Q

Name the drugs used in E. histolytica infections

A

Idoquinol
Diloxanid Furoat
Nitroimidazoles (metronidazole, tinidazole)
Paromycin

303
Q

What is the mechanism of action of idoquinol and diloxanid furoat? What are the SEs?

A

Unknown

GI related

304
Q

What is the 1st line therapy for giardiasis?

A

Metronidazole

Nitazoxanid

305
Q

What is the mechaism of action of Nitazoxanid?

A

Unclear mechanism

306
Q

What is the 2nd line therapy for giardiasis?

A

Paromycin
Nitrofuran
Quinacrin

307
Q

What are the SEs of nitroguran and quinacrin? (2nd line agents for Giardiasis)

A

GI side effects

308
Q

What is the therapy of throchomonas vaginalis?

A

Metronidazole, tinidazole

309
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for toxoplasmosis in pregnancy?

A

Spiramycin

310
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for toxoplasmosis?

A

Trimethaprim/Sulfamethoxazole

Pyrimethamine/Clindamycin/Folinic acid

311
Q

What are the alternative treatments for toxoplasmosis?

A

Pyrimethamine/Sulfadiazine/Folinic acid

312
Q

What is the first line treatment for pneumocystis jirovecii?

A

Trimethaprim/Sulfamethoxazole

313
Q

What are the alternative drugs used in PJP infection?

A

Pentamidine or clindamycin + Primaquine or atovaquone

314
Q

What are the drugs used in visceral leishmaniasis?

A

Amphtericin B
Miltefosine
Pentamidine

315
Q

What are the drugs used in cutaneous leishmaniasis?

A

Pentamidine

Ketoconazole

316
Q

What are the drugs used in mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?

A

Sodium stibogluconate

Meglumin antimoniat

317
Q

What are the african trypanosomas?

A

T. Brucei
T. bruce gambiense
T. bruce rhodesiense

318
Q

What are the american trypanosomas?

A

T. cruzi

319
Q

What does T. brucei cause?

A

Sleeping sickness

320
Q

What does T. Cruzi cause?

A

Chagas disease

321
Q

What are the drugs used in the treatment of african trypanosomiasis?

A

Eflornithine
Melarsoprol
Pentamidine
Suramin

322
Q

What is Eflornithine mechanism of action?

A

Ornithine decarboxylase inhibitor

323
Q

What are the drugs used in the treatment of American trypanosomas infections?

A

Nifurtimox

Benznidazole

324
Q

What is the mechanism of action of nifurtimox

A

Generation of IC free radicals

325
Q

What is the mechanism of action of benznidazole?

A

inhibits protein synthesis and RNA synthesis

326
Q

Name the benzimidazoles (anti-helminthic drugs)

A

Albendazole
Mebendazole
Tiabendazole

327
Q

What is the mechanism of action of benzimidazoles?

A

they inhibit the polymerization of microtubules causing paralysis

328
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ivermectin?

A

Enhances GABA effect resulting in paralysis

329
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Levamisol?

A

Causes depolarising neuromuscular blockade resulting in paralysis

330
Q

What is the mechanism of action of pyrantel pamoate?

A

Release of Ach, AChE inhibition, depolarization blockage, spastic paralysis

331
Q

What is the mechanism of action of praziquantel?

A

Increase in Ca2+ permeability leading to spastic paralysis

332
Q

What is the mechanism of action of niclosamide?

A

inhibits oxidative phosphorylation

333
Q

What is the mechanism of action of bithionol?

A

Inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation

334
Q

Name the NRTIs used in the treatment of HBV?

A

Lamivudine
Tenofovir
Emtricitabine

335
Q

Name the AMP analog used in the treatment of HBV

A

Adefovir

336
Q

What is Adefovir?

A

AMP analogue used in the treatment of HBV

337
Q

What is Entecavir?

A

Guanosine analogue

338
Q

Name the guanosine analogue used in the treatment of HBV?

A

Entecavir

339
Q

What is Telbivudine?

A

Thymidine analog

340
Q

Name the Thymidine analogue used in the treatment of HBV

A

Telbivudine

341
Q

What is the name of the guanosine analogue used in HCV treatment?

A

Ribavirin

342
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ribavirin?

A

Guanosine analogue

343
Q

What is the NS5B polymerase inhibitor?

A

Sofosbuvir

344
Q

What is the non-nucleoside NS5B polymerase inhibitor?

A

Dasabuvir

345
Q

Name the protease inhibitor (NS3/4A) used in HCV treatment?

A

Simeprevir
Boceprevir
Paritaprevir
Grazoprevir

346
Q

Name the NS5A transcription complex inhibitors used in HCV treatment?

A 
Daclatasvir
Ledipasvir
Ombitasvir
Elbasvir
Velpatasvir
Pibrentasvir
347
Q

What was the original treatment of HCV?

A

Ribavirin and peglyated IFN-alpha

348
Q

Name the glycopeptide antibiotics

A

Vancomycin
Teicoplanin
Dalbavancin
Telavancin

349
Q

Name the urinary antiseptics

A

Phosphomycin

Nitrofuran

350
Q

Name the agents used for HSV1, HSV2 and VZV

A

Acyclovir
Valcyclovir
Penciclovir
Famciclovir

351
Q

Name the agents used for CMV

A

Ganciclovir
Valganciclovir
Foscarnet
Cidofovir

352
Q

Name the agents used for RSV

A

Ribavirin

Palivizumab

353
Q

Name the anti-influenza agents

A

Zanamivir
Oseltamivir
Amantadine

354
Q

Name the salicylates (NSAIDs with analgesic and marked anti-inflammatory effect)

A 
Acetylsalicyclic acid
Sodium salicylate
Magnesium salicylate
Sodium thiosalicylate
Diflunisal
Salicyclic acid
Methyl salicylate
355
Q

Name the acetic acid derivatives (NSAIDs with analgesic and marked anti-inflammatory effect)

A 
Indomethacin
Diclofenac
Sulindac
Tolmetin
Bromfenac
356
Q

Name the Enol acids (Oxicams)

A

Piroxicam
Tenoxicam
Lornoxicam
Meloxicam

357
Q

Name the Pyrazolones

A

Phenylbutazone
Aminophenazone
Metamizole

358
Q

Name the propionic acids (NSAIDs with analgesic and mild/moderate anti-inflammatory effects)

A 
Ibuprofen
Naproxen
Fenoprofen
Ketoprofen
Ketorolac tromethamine
Flurbiprofen
Oxaprozin
359
Q

Name the Fenamates

A

Mefanamic acid
Fludenamic acid
Niflumic acid

360
Q

Name the ‘other’ compounds used in analgesia

A

Nabumetone

Nimesulide

361
Q

Name the drugs with analgesic effect and no anti-inflammatory effects

A

Paracetamol (acetaminophen)
Celecoxib
Etoricoxib
Parecoxib

362
Q

Name the selective COX2 inhibitors (Coxims)

A

Celecoxib
Etoricoxib
Parecoxib

363
Q

Name the drugs used in acute gout attacks

A 
Cochicine
Oral steroids (Prednisone)
Indomethacine
364
Q

What does ASA do at high doses

A

Prevents the reabsorption of Uric Acid

365
Q

What does ASA do at low doses

A

Prevents the excretion of Uric acid

366
Q

Name the agents used in chronic gout treatment

A 
Allopurinol
Febuxostat
Pegloticase
Rasburicase
Probenecid
Sulfinpyrazone
Lesinurad
367
Q

Name the Xanthine Oxidase non-competitive inhibitors

A

Allopurinol

Febuxostate

368
Q

Name the biological agents used in chronic gout treatment that inactivate UA by converting it to the more hydrophilic/water soluble, allantoin

A

Pegloticase

Rasburicase

369
Q

Name the URAT1 and OAT4 inhibitor

A

Lesinurad

370
Q

Name the 1st generation retinoids

A

Tretinoin
Isotretinoin
Alitretinoin

371
Q

Name the 2nd generation retinoids

A

Acitretin

372
Q

Name the 3rd generation retinoids

A

Bexarotene
Adaplene
Tazarotene

373
Q

Name the calcineurin inhibitors (inhibitors of cytokine gene expression)

A

Cyclosporine A

Tacrolimus

374
Q

Name the inhibitors of cell proliferation

A

Sirolimus
Everolimus
Temsirolimus

375
Q

Name the JAK kinase inhibitors

A

Tofacitinib

Baricitinib

376
Q

Name the 5-ASA = mesalazazine derivatives

A

Sulphasalazine
Olsalazine
Balsalazide

377
Q

Which drug increases the pH of lysosomes

A

Chloroquine hydroxycholoroquine

378
Q

Name the S1PR receptor modulator

A

Fingolimod

379
Q

Name the drug which activates NrF2 (Nuclear factor like 2) and reduces oxidative stress

A

Dimethyl-fumarate

380
Q

Which drug is administered with cisplatin to prevent nephrotoxicity?

A

Amifostine

381
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Amifostine?

A

It deactivates the free radicals in the kidneys responsible for cisplatin induced nephrotoxicity

382
Q

Name the 2nd generation mixed D2 antagonists/5-HT antagonists that are Tricyclic compounds

A

Clozapines
Olanzapine
Quetiapine

383
Q

Name the 2nd generation mixed D2 antagonists/5-HT antagonists that are heterocyclic compounds

A 
Risperidone
Paliperidone
Ziprasidone
Lurasidone
Sertindole
Iloperidone
384
Q

Name the mixed 2nd generation D2 partial agonists/ 5-HT2A inverse agonist

A

Aripiprazole

385
Q

Name the mixed 2nd generation D3/D2 partial agonists

A

Cariprazine

386
Q

Name the selective 2nd generation D2/D3 antagonist

A

Sulpiride
Tiapride
Amisulpiride

387
Q

Name the barbiturates used in IV anaesthesia

A

Thiopental

Methohexital

388
Q

Name the benzodiazepines used in IV anaesthesia

A

Midazolam
Lorazepam
Diazepam

389
Q

Name the synthetic opioids used in IV anaesthesia

A

Fentanyl
Alfentanil
Sulfentanil
Remifentanil

390
Q

Name the alpha 2 agonist used in IV anaesthesia

A

Clonidine

391
Q

Name the IV anasthetics with short recovery time

A

Propofol
Ketamine
Etomidate

392
Q

Name the try-cyclic antidepressants

A 
Trimipramine
Clomipramine
Desipramine
Imipramine
Amitriptyline
Nortryptiline
393
Q

Name the tretracyclic antidepressants

A

Maprotiline

Amoxapine

394
Q

Name the unicyclic antidepressants

A

Bupropion

395
Q

What are the SSRI (Serotonin Flies into Cleft to Feel Pleasure)

A 
Sertraline
Fluoxetine
Citalopram 
Fluvoxamine
Paroxetine
396
Q

Name the SSNRIs

A

Venlafaxin
Desvenlafaxin
Duloxetine
Milnaciprine

397
Q

Name the SNRIs

A

Reboxetine

Atomoxetine

398
Q

Name the SRI + 5-HT2A receptor antagonist

A

Trazodone

399
Q

Name the SRI + 5-HT1A partial agonist

A

Vilazodone

400
Q

Name the SRI + 5-HT3A, 5-HT7 antagonist + 5-HT1A, 1B partial agonist

A

Vortioxetine

401
Q

Name the NERI + 5-HT2,3 + alpha 2 receptor antagonist

A

Mirtazapine

402
Q

Name the (melatonin) MT1 and MT2 agonist + 5-HT2C receptor antagonist

A

Agomelatine

403
Q

Name the drug which enhances the 5-HT reuptake

A

Tianeptine

404
Q

Name the 5-HT3 receptor antagonists used in antiemesis

A

Ondansetron
Granisetron
Dolasetron
Palonosetron

405
Q

Name the D2 receptor antagonists used in antiemesis

A
  1. Phenothiazines: Chlorpromazine, Prochlorperazine, Promethazine, Thiethylperazine
  2. Butyrophenones: Haloperidol, Droperidol
  3. Metoclopramide
  4. Domperidone
406
Q

Name the corticosteroids used in antiemesis

A

Dexamethasone

Methylprednisolone

407
Q

Name the NK1 receptor antagonists

A

Aprepitan

Fosaprepitan

408
Q

Name the Cannabinoids used in antiemesis

A

Dronabinol

Nabilone

409
Q

Name the H1 receptor antagonists used in vestibular vomiting prophylaxis

A

Diphenydramine
Meclizine
Promethazine

410
Q

Name the antimuscarinic agents used in vestibular vomiting prophylaxis

A

Scopolamine

411
Q

Name the benzodiazepines used before chemotherapy to induce and antiemetic effect

A

Lorazepam

Alprazolam

412
Q

Name the laxatives that enhance the bulk of the stool (colloidal laxatives)

A 
Methylcellulose
Dried fruites
Tragacantha
Psyllium
Gumma arabicum
413
Q

Name the osmotic laxatives

  1. Inorganic salts
  2. non absorbing carbohydrates
A
  1. Mg S, Na S, Na P

2. Lactulose, sorbitol, glycerin, Mannitol

414
Q

Name the laxatives which soften the stool (Lubricants)

A

Paraffin oil

Docusate

415
Q

Name the laxatives which irritate/stimulate the intestinal wall

A 
Natural compounds: 
1. Emodins e.g., Senna, Aloe, Rhubarb
2. Castor oil
Synthetic drugs:
1. Phenolphtalein, Bisacodul, Na-picosulphate
416
Q

Name the opioid antagonists used constipation

A

Methylnaltrexone

Alvimopan

417
Q

Name the chloride channel activators used in constipation

A

Lubiprostone

Linaclotide

418
Q

Name the adsorbing and astringent antidiarrheal drugs

A 
Adsorbing:
Activated charcoal
Tannic acid
Bolus alba 
Astringent: 
Bismuth subgallate
419
Q

Name the agents the mu receipt agonist decreasing motility in diarrhoea therapy

A

Diphenoxylate (can cause addiction at higher doses so give with atropine to prevent euphoric effects)
Loperamide (is not addictive)

420
Q

Name the parasympatholytics that decrease motility used in antidiarrheal therapy

A

Atropine

421
Q

Name the enkephalinase inhibitors which are used in antidiarrheal therapy

A

Racekadotril

422
Q

Name the ‘other’ antidiarrheal agents

A

Octreotide

Crofelemer

423
Q

Name the drugs that decrease ammonia level

A

Rifaximin (eliminates the nitrogen producing bacteria in the intestine)
Lactulose
Neomycin

424
Q

Name the hepatoprotective agents

A

Sylmarine

Silibiline

425
Q

Name the primary bile acids

A

Cholic acid

Chenodeoxycholic acid

426
Q

Name the secondary bile acids

A

Deoxycholic acid

Ursodeoxycholic acid

427
Q

Name the anxiolytics (Benzodiazapines)

A 
Oxazepam
Clonazepam
Alprazolam
Lorazepam 
Diazepam
Chlordiazepoxide
428
Q

Name the hypnotics (Benzodiazepines)

A 
Midazolam
Triazolam
Nitrazepam
Temazepam
Lorazepam
Flunitrazepam
429
Q

Name the central muscle relaxants (Benzodiazepines)

A

Diazepam

Tetrazepam

430
Q

Name the acute and chronic anti epileptics (Benzodiazepines)

A

Acute: Lorazepam, Diazepam
Chronic: Clonazepam

431
Q

Name the benzodiazepine that is used for the induction of general anaesthesia

A

Midazolam

432
Q

Name the benzodiazepine that is used as premedication before general anaesthesia

A

Diazepam

433
Q

Name the BZ GABAa receptor antagonist

A

Flumazenil

434
Q

Name the ultra short acting barbiturates

A

Thiopental
Methohexital
Hexobarbital

435
Q

Name the medium and short acting barbiturates

A

Cyclobarbital

Amobarbital

436
Q

Name the long acting barbiturates

A

Phenobarbitals

437
Q

name the non-benzodiazepine hypnotics

A

Zolpidem
Zaleplon
Eszopiclone

438
Q

Name the non-GABAergic hypnotics (MT1 and MT2 receptor agonists)

A

Ramelteon

439
Q

Name the Orexin antagonist

A

Suvorexant

440
Q

Name the drugs acting on voltage gated Na+ channels that are used for partial and generalised tonic-clonic seizures (narrow spectrum)

A 
Phenytoin
Fosphenytoin
Carbamazepine 
Oxcarbazepine
Eslicarbazepine
441
Q

Name the drug which induced GABA mediated hyperpolarization that is used for partial and generalised tonic-clonic seizures (narrow spectrum)

A

Phenobarbital

442
Q

Name the barbiturate that is used for partial and generalised tonic-clonic seizures (Narrow spectrum)

A

Primidone

443
Q

Name the selective irreversible GABA transaminase inhibitor used for partial and generalised tonic-clonic seizures

A

Vigabatrin

444
Q

Name the inhibitor of GABA uptake used for partial and generalised tonic-clonic seizures

A

Tiagabine

445
Q

Name drugs used for partial and generalised tonic-clonic seizures that work by inhibiting voltage gated calcium channels

A

Gabapentin
Pregabaline
Felbamate

446
Q

Name the prodrug that is converted to dopamine by DOPA decarboxylase

A

Levodopa

447
Q

Name the COMT inhibitors

A

Tolcapone

Entacapone

448
Q

Name the selective irreversible MAO-B inhibitors

A

Selegiline

Rasagiline

449
Q

Name the D2 receptor agonists (Ergot derivatives)

A

Bromocroptine
Pergolide
Cabergoline

450
Q

Name the D2 receptor agonists (Non-ergot derivatives)

A

Pramipexol
Ropinirole
Apomorphine
Rotigotine

451
Q

Name the antimuscarinic agents used in the treatment of parkinsonism

A

Benztropine
Procyclidine
Biperadine
Amantadine

452
Q

Name the reversible AChE inhibitors used in Alzheimer’s disease

A

Donepezil
Tacrine
Rivastigmine
Galantamine

453
Q

Name the NMDA receptor blocker used in Alzheimers

A

Memantine

454
Q

Name the vasodilators used in the treatment of Dementia

A

Piracetam
Vinpocetine
Nicergoline
Pentoxyfylline

455
Q

Name the calcium channel blockers used in dementia

A

Nimodipine

456
Q

Name the phosphodiesterase inhibitors that are used in spasm of GI, bile ducts and uterus

A

Papaverine

Drotaverine

457
Q

Name the parasympatholytics used in GI and uterine spasm

A

Atropine
Homatropine methylbromide
Butylscopolamine
Otiliniumbromide

458
Q

Name the calcium channel blockers used in GI and uterine spasm

A

Pinaverine

Alverine

459
Q

Name the non-prostaglandin agents which contract the pregnant uterus

A

Oxytocin

Ergotamine

460
Q

Name the prostaglandin agents which contract the uterus

A 
Dinoprostone
Misoprostol
Misoprostol/mifepristone
Sulprostone
Dinoprost
461
Q

Name the agents which relax the pregnant uterus

A 
Atosiban
Terbutaline
Progesterone Dihydroprogesterone
Indomethacin
Nifedipine
Mg sulfate
462
Q

Name the 2ng generation atypical antipsychotics

A 
Clozapine
Olanzapine
Quetiapine
Risperidone
Paliperidone
Ziprasidone
Lurasidone
Sertindole
Iloperidone
Aripiprazole
Cariprazine
Sulpiride
Tiapride
Amisulpiride
463
Q

Name the 1st generation anti psychotics

A 
Fluphenazine
Chlorpromazine
Thiothixene
Flupenthixol
Haloperidol
Droperidol
464
Q

Name the H2 receptor antagonists used in peptic ulcers

A

Cimetidine
Ranitidine
Nizatidine
Famotidine

465
Q

Name the PPI

A 
Omeprazol
Rabeprazol
Pantoprazol
Esomeprazol
Lansoprazol
466
Q

Name the M1 receptor antagonists used in peptic ulcer disease

A

Pirenzepine

Telenzepine

467
Q

Name the sodium compounds (antacids)

A

Bicarbonate of soda

Sodium citrate

468
Q

Name the magnesium compounds (antacids)

A

Magnesium hydroxide

469
Q

Name the aluminum compounds (antacids)

A

Aluminium hydroxide
Basic carbonate gel
Aluminum phosphate gel

470
Q

Name the calcium compounds (antacids)

A

Calcium carbonate

471
Q

Name the agents used in peptic ulcer treatment which enhance the gastric mucosal defence

A

Bismuth Chelate
Sucralfate
Misoprostol

472
Q

Name the broad spectrum anti epileptics

A

Valproate
Lamotrigine
Topiramate

473
Q

Name the drugs used in the treatment of absence seizures

A 
Clonazepam
Clobazam
Ethusoximide
(Valproate)
(Lamotrigine)
474
Q

Name the topoisomerase I inhibitors

A

Irinotecan

Topotecan

475
Q

Name the topoisomerase II inhibitors (Anthracyclines - antibiotics)

A

Doxorubicin
Epirubicin
Daunorubicin
Idarubicin

476
Q

Name the topoisomerase II inhibitors (Anthracenediones)

A

Mitoxantrone

477
Q

Name the topoisomerase II inhibitors (Epidophyllotoxins)

A

Etoposide

478
Q

Name the inhibitors of the mitotic spindle (Taxane derivatives)

A

Paclitaxel
Docetaxel
Cabazitaxel

479
Q

Name the inhibitors of the mitotic spindle (Vinca alkaloids)

A

Vincristine
Vinblastine
Vinorelbine

480
Q

Name the non competitive inhibitors of XO

A

Allopurinol

Febuxostat

481
Q

Name the biological agents that are used in the chronic treatment of gout (they convert uric acid to the more water soluble allantoin)

A

Pegloticase

Rasburicase

482
Q

Name the uricosuric agents

A

Probenecid

Sulfinpyrazone

483
Q

Name the tetracyclic antidepressants

A

Maprotiline

Amoxapine

484
Q

Name the unicyclic antidepressants

A

Bupropion

485
Q

Name the 2nd generation anti-psychotics Tricyclic compounds (dibenzepines)

A

Clozapine
Olanzapine
Quetiapine

486
Q

Name the 2nd generation anti-psychotics (other heterocyclic compounds)

A 
Risperidone 
Paliperidone
Ziprasidone
Lurasidone
Sertindole
Iloperidone
487
Q

Name the 2nd generation antipsychotic (D2 partial agonist, 5HT2A inverse agonist)

A

Aripiprazole

488
Q

Name the 2nd generation antipsychotic (D3/D2 partial agonist)

A

Cariprazine

489
Q

Name the 2nd generation antipsychotic (D2/D3 antagonists)

A

Sulpiride
Tiapride
Amisulpiride

490
Q

Name the 5-ASA

A

Sulfasalazine
Mesalazine
Olsalazine

491
Q

What does 5-ASA stand for

A

5- amino salocyclic acid

492
Q

Name the IL12/23 antagonist

A

Ustekinunab

493
Q

Name the local anaesthetics (esters)

A

Procoaine
Cocaine
Benzocaine

494
Q

Name the general anaesthetics (amides)

A 
Lidocaine
Prilocaine
Mepivacaine
Ropivicaine
Bupivacain
Atricaine
495
Q

Name the GLP-1 analogues

A 
Exenatide
Lixisenatide
Liraglutide
Albiglutide
Dulaglutide
496
Q

Name the Amylin analogue

A

Pramlinitide

497
Q

Name the estrogen receptor antagonist

A

Fulvestrant

498
Q

Name the SERMs

A

Tamaxifen
Raloxifen
Toremifen
Clomifen

499
Q

Name the natural oestrogen

A

estradiol
Estrone
Estriol

500
Q

Name the synthetic steroidal oestrogen’s

A

Ethinylestradiol

501
Q

Name the steroidal and non-steroidal aromatise inhibitors

A

Steroidal: Exemestane, formestane

Non-steroidal inhibitors: anastraxole, letrozole

502
Q

Name the CA inhibitors

A

Acetazolamide
Dorzolamide
Brinzolamide

503
Q

Name the loop diuretics

A

Ethacrynic acid
Furosemide
Bumetanide
Torsemide

504
Q

Name the thiazides

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

Bendroglumethiazide

PharmaFinal (2 decks)

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