Drug MOA Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mechanism of increased uric acid in cancer patients?

A

Tumor Lysis Syndrome.
- tumor intracellular components like Ca+, K+, Phos+, and nucleic acids spill out
- purines from the nucleic acids get converted into uric acid by xanthine oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Neupogen

A

Filgrastim
Colony Stimulating Factor will stimulate production of WBC to treat neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Neulasta

A

Pegfilgrastim
Colony Stimulating Factor will stimulate production of WBC to treat neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Emend

A

Aprepitant (PO)
Fosaprepitant (IV)

Substance P / Neurokinin 1 receptor antagonist thid mechanism augments the antimetic activity of both 5-ht-3 RA and corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Zuplenz film

A

Ondansetron
5-HT-3 RA that blocks serotonin both on peripheral vagal nerves and central chemoreceptor trigger zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sancuso

A

Granisetron
5-HT-3 RA that blocks serotonin both on peripheral vagal nerves and central chemoreceptor trigger zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Aloxi

A

Palonosetron
5-HT-3 RA that blocks serotonin both on peripheral vagal nerves and central chemoreceptor trigger zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Decadron

A

Dexamethasone
Corticosteroid for CINV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Compazine

A

Prochlorperazine
DA receptor antagonist that blocks DA in CNS that is a part of the chemo trigger zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Phenergan

A

Promethazine
DA receptor antagonist that blocks DA in CNS that is a part of the chemo trigger zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Reglan

A

Metoclopramide
DA receptor antagonist that blocks DA in CNS that is a part of the chemo trigger zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Zyprexa

A

Olanzapine
DA receptor antagonist that blocks DA in CNS that is a part of the chemo trigger zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Marinol

A

Dronabinol
activating cannabinoid receptors in the CNS and inhibiting the vomiting control in the medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ativan

A

Lorazepam
enhances GABA (an inhibitor neurotransmitter) to decrease neuronal excitability that will suppress anticipatory N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Miacalcin

A

Calcitonin
inhibits bone resorption
(for moderate to severe Hypercalcemia)

Ca > 12 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Zometa

A

Zoledronic acid IV 4 mg (may repeat dose in 7 days)
Bisphosphonate that blocks osteoclast mediated bone breakdown

Osteoporosis brand = Reclast dosed at 5 mg yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Xgeva

A

Denosumab 120 mg SC x3 for 1st month, then monthly

monoclonal antibody that blocks interaction between RANKL and RANK to prevent osteoclast formation

for moderate to severe hypercalcemia (Ca > 12 mg/dL)

Osteoporosis brand name is Prolia 60 mg SC every 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Selective-Estrogen Receptor Modulator for ER+/PR+ breast cancers

binds to estrogen receptors on tumors to prevent growth from estrogen binding and feeding the tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Raloxifene

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator used for prophylaxis in select post-menopausal women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fulvestrant

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Degrader that causes the estrogen receptors to downregulate and degrade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Arimidex

A

Anastrozole
Aromatase inhibitor that treats postmenopausal breast cancer by blocking the peripheral conversion of of androgens to estrogens

***does not block ovarian estrogen production!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Letrozole

A

Aromatase inhibitor that treats postmenopausal breast cancer by blocking the peripheral conversion of of androgens to estrogens

***does not block ovarian estrogen production!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Trastuzumab

A

Herceptin
binds to HER2 (oncogene) to block the dimerization to block the amplified cell growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lupron Depot

A

Leuprolide
GnRH Agonist or LH agonist that initially increase LH to increase testosterone but eventually will create a negative feedback loop to decrese testosterone production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Zoladex
Gosrelin GnRH Agonist or LH agonist that initially increase LH to increase testosterone but eventually will create a negative feedback loop to decrese testosterone production
26
Degarelix
GnRH Antagonist causing a rapid decrease in testosterone production
27
Relugolix
GnRH Antagonist causing a rapid decrease in testosterone production
28
Bicalutamide
Antiandrogens 1st gen MUST be used with GnRH competivitely blocks testosterone Bi Ni Flu
29
Nilutamide
Antiandrogens 1st gen MUST be used with GnRH competivitely blocks testosterone Bi Ni Flu
30
Flutamide
Antiandrogens 1st gen MUST be used with GnRH competivitely blocks testosterone Bi Ni Flu
31
Apalutamide
Antiandrogen 2nd gen do not cause upregulation of androgren receptors can be used as single treatment 2AED
32
Darolutamide
Antiandrogen 2nd gen do not cause upregulation of androgren receptors can be used as single treatment 2AED
33
Enzalutamide
Antiandrogen 2nd gen do not cause upregulation of androgren receptors can be used as single treatment 2AED
34
Taxanes (Paclitaxel, Docetaxel)
Block M-phase (mitosis) of cell cycle
35
Vinca Alkaloids (Vincristine, Vinblastine)
Block M-phase (mitosis) of cell cycle
36
Asparaginase
Block G1 (making of DNA/RNA/proteins) of cell cycle
37
Antimetabolites (Methotrexate, Fluoroucil, Capecitabine)
Block S phase (replication) of cell cycle AT in replicATe
38
Topoisomerase 1 inhibitors (Irinotecan, Topotecan)
Block S phase (replication) of cell cycle AT in replicATe
39
Topoisomerase 2 inhibitors (bleomycin, etopodise)
block DNA coiling and uncoiling causing the DNA to break in G2 phase (growth of DNA)
40
Alkylating Agents (cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide)
independent of cell cycle
41
Anthracyclines (Doxorubicin, Mitoxantrone)
independent of cell cycle
42
Platinium Compounds (Cisplatin, Carboplatin)
independing of cell cycle
43
Cyclophosphamide
Alkalyating agent that is independent of cell cycle that cross-link DNA strands to inhibit proteina and DNA synthesis ***hemorrhagic cystitis
44
Ifosamide
Alkalyating agent that is independent of the cell cycle that cross-links DNA strands to inhibit protein and DNA synthesis ***hemorrhagic cystitis = Mesna
45
Carmustine
Alkalyating agent that is independent of the cell cycle that cross links DNA ***pulmonary toxicity
46
Busulfan
Alkalyating agent that is independent of the cell cycle that cross links DNA ***pulmonary toxicity
47
Cisplatin
Platinum Compounds bind and cross link DNA strands in all cell cycle
48
Oxaliplatin
Platinum Compound bind and crosslink DNA strans in all cell cycle
49
Carboplatin
Platinum Compound bind and crosslink DNA strands in all cell cycle
50
Doxorubicin
Anthracycline that intercalates into DNA and inhibits Topo 2 and creates oxygen free radicals that damage cells **administer with Dexrazoxane to diminish cardiotoxicity
51
Mitoxantrone
Anthracycline that intercalates into DNA and inhibits Topo 2 and creates oxygen free radicals that damage cells **administer wiht Dexrazoxane to diminish cardiotoxicity
52
Irinotecan
Topo 1 inhibitor blocking phase S (replication) coiling and uncoiling of DS DNA. This prevents religation of the DS DNA SE: DIARRHEA and myleosuppresion
53
Bleomycin
Topo 2 inhibitor blocking phase G2 coiling and uncoiling of DS DNA to prevent religation of the DS DNA SE: Pulmonary fibrosis Hypersensitivity rxn
54
Vincristine
Vinca Alkaloid that blocks the MICROTUBULES during M phase SE: neuropathy vesicant constipation
55
Vinblastine
Vinca Alkaloid that blcks MICROTUBULES during M phase SE: myleosuppression neuropathy vesicant
56
Paclitaxel
Taxane that inhibit microtubule function in M phase SE: neuropathy hypersensitivity rxn myelosuppression
57
Docetaxil
Taxane that inhibit microtubule function in phase SE: neuropathy hypersensitivity rxn myelosuppression
58
Fluorouracil
inhibit pyrimidine synthesis by acting as uracil incorporating itself into RNA to inhibit cell growth and replication in S phase SE: myleosuppression, diarrhea, mucositis, hand foot syndrome **look for DPD deficiency
59
Capecitabine
Prodrug of Fluorouracil inhibit pyrimidine synthesis by acting as uracil incorporating itself into RNA to inhibit cell growth and replication in S phase SE: hand-foot syndrome diarrhea mucosistis myelosuppression **look for DPD deficiency
60
Trexall
Methotrexate Folate antimetabolite that blocks pyrine and pyrimidine biosynthesis during the S phase SE: Myelosuppression, heptotoxocity, nephrotoxicity, GI toxicity (mucositis), Teratogenicity