Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Maddie’s Pharm > DRUG LIST > Flashcards

DRUG LIST Flashcards

1
Q

Warfarin

A

Vitamin K antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SERM used in the treatment of breast cancer.

A

Tamoxifen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Entacapone

A

Catechol-O-methyl transferase inhibitors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tiotropium bromide

A

Long acting M3 anticholinergics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A non-biological, non-immunosuppressant that increases pH inside macrophage lysosomes.

A

Hydroxychloroquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An antibiotic used for anaerobes and an anti-protozoal

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ondansetron

A

5HT3 receptor antagonist acting on the gut visceral afferent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ramipril

A

ACE inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lispro

A

Rapid acting insulin analogue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Raloxifene

A

SERM used to treat post-menopausal osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Metformin

A

Biguanide for DMII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Trastuzumab

A

Monoclonal antibody used for the inhibition of HER2 signalling in breast cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Azathioprine

A

Antiproliferative immunosuppressant that is a T cell inhibitor metabolised by TPMT genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Monoclonal antibody used for the inhibition of HER2 signalling in breast cancer.

A

Trastuzumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Progesterone (and glucocorticoid) receptor antagonist used for termination of pregnancy.

A

Mifepristone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antiepileptic that binds to synaptic vesicles to inhibit the release of neurotransmitter.

A

Levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

-liptin

A

Dipeptidyl peptides-4 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Subcutaneous form of dopamine receptor agonist.

A

Apomorphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Iosartan

A

Angiotensin II receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Denosumab

A

Inhibition of the RANK ligand on osteoclasts to reduce osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Benzothiazapine calcium channel blocker

A

Diltiazem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acetylcysteine

A

Replaces hepatic glutathione in the case of paracetamol overdose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A somatostatin analogue that decreases GI secretions to decrease the output of a high output stoma.

A

Octreotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Trimethoprim

A

Abx used for uncomplicated UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lidocaine

A

Local anaesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An abx used for complicated UTIs

A

Nitrofurantoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Alteplase

A

Fibrinolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Class 1B antiarrhythmic - Na+ channel blocker

A

Lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Sulphonurea

A

Gliclazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

DOAC that is a direct IIa inhibitor

A

Dabigatran, argatroban.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Haloperidol

A

An antipsychotic that acts on the CTZ directly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dipeptidyl peptides-4 inhibitors

A

-liptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

An alkylating agent that forms cross links in DNA especially active in B and T cells. Given IV in SLE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Apomorphine

A

Subcutaneous form of dopamine receptor agonist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A strong agonist for the opioid receptors used as an analgesic and metabolised via CYP3A4.

A

Fentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Selective progesterone receptor modulator used in emergency contraception.

A

Ulipristal acetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Volatile analgesic and anaesthetic

A

N2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Aciclovir

A

An antiviral used to treat HSV and VZV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Adalimumab

A

Monoclonal antibody that blocks TNF alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

5(alpha)-Reductase inhibitor which blocks testosterone conversion. Used over many years it will shrink the prostate.

A

Dutasteride, finasteride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Parecoxib

A

Selective COX-2 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Blocks the If in the SA node, if highly expressed.

A

Ivabradine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Antiepileptic that is a sodium channel blocker, and anti-thyroid drug used in Graves’ Disease.

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

An antagonist to the opioid receptors used to treat opioid overdose.

A

Naloxone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Neuroprotective volatile anaesthetic that blocks GABA receptors

A

Xenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Metronidazole

A

An antibiotic used for anaerobes and an anti-protozoal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A moderate agonist to the opioid receptors.

A

Codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Very long acting insulin analogue

A

Degludec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Muscarinic receptor competitive antagonist acting on the vestibular nuclei.

A

Hyoscine hydrobromide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

An alkylating agent that forms cross links in DNA especially active in B and T cells. Given IV in SLE. LOV

A

Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Aliskirin

A

Direct Renin inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Clopidogrel

A

P2Y_12 / ADP receptor antagonists used to inhibit GP IIa/IIIb activation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Selective COX-1 inhibitor that is inhibitory to platelet aggregation at low doses, and analgesic at high doses.

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ethosuximide

A

Antiepileptic that is a calcium blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

5HT3 receptor antagonist acting on the gut visceral afferent.

A

Ondansetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A corticosteriod that acts on the CTZ directly.

A

Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Levetiracetam

A

Antiepileptic that binds to synaptic vesicles to inhibit the release of neurotransmitteR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Tazobactam

A

A beta-lactamase inhibitor abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Low molecular weight heparins

A

Bempiparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Metaclopramide

A

D2 receptor antagonist acting on the gut visceral afferents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Xenon

A

Neuroprotective volatile anaesthetic that blocks GABA receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Gentamicin

A

An aminoglycan abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Causes an erection in ~15 minutes when injected or used in a MUSE.

A

Alprostadil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

An aminoglycan abx

A

Gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

IV anaesthetics that block glutamate.

A

Ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Long acting beta 2 agonist

A

Salmeterol, formoterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Lithium

A

Mood stabiliser and ADH antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Simvastatin

A

Competitive inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A quinolone abx

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Verapamil

A

Phenylalkyamine calcium channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Calcineurin inhibitor

A

Ciclosporin and tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Atorvastatin

A

Competitive inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Lidocaine

A

Class 1B antiarrhythmic - Na+ channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

-olol

A

Beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Insulatard

A

Intermediate acting insulin analogue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Cyclizine

A

H1 receptor antagonist acting on the vestibular nuclei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Omeprazole

A

PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

N2O

A

Volatile anaesthetic and analgesic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

P2Y_12 / ADP receptor antagonists used to inhibit GP IIa/IIIb activation.

A

Clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Amioderone

A

Class 3 antiarrhymic drug - K+ channel blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Selective muscarinic antagonist to decrease the slope of If.

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Ketamine

A

IV anaesthetic that blocks glutamate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Stimulant laxative that increases the intestinal motility.

A

Docussate sodium, senna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Replacement therapy in Hashimoto’s

A

Levothyroxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Rapid acting insulin analogue

A

Lispro, Aspart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Amlodipine

A

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Long acting M3 anticholinergics.

A

Tiotropium bromide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Procainamide

A

Class 1A antiarrhythmic - Na+ channel blocker that can induce SLE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

LDOPA

A

Precursor to dopamine given in Parkinson’s Disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Monoclonal antibody that blocks TNF alpha.

A

Adalimumab, infliximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Doxazosin

A

Alpha adrenoceptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

D2 receptor antagonist acting on the gut visceral afferents.

A

Metaclopramide, Domperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Ipotrapium bromide

A

An anticholinergic used in the treatment of severe and acute asthma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Formoterol

A

Long acting beta 2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Sotalol

A

Class 3 antiarrhymic drug - K+ channel blockers and Beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Vitamin K antagonist

A

Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

A glycopeptide abx

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Isoniazid

A

Abx treatment for TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Selegiline

A

Monoamine oxidase B inhibitors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Domperidone

A

D2 receptor antagonist acting on the gut visceral afferents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Spironolactone

A

Aldosterone receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

NaCl channel affecting diuretic

A

Thiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Octreotide

A

A somatostatin analogue that decreases GI secretions to decrease the output of a high output stoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Esomeprazole

A

PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Ganciclovir

A

An antiviral used to treat CMV and EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Antiproliferative immunosuppressant that inhibits guanine synthesis to impair T and B cell proliferation.

A

Mycophenolate mofetil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Ciprofibrate

A

Peroxisome proliferation-activated receptor alpha activator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Alprostadil

A

Causes an erection in ~15 minutes when injected or used in a MUSE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

-ostigmine

A

Acetylcholineesterase inhibitors used to treat myasthenia Gravis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Clomiphrene

A

SERM used to treat anovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Ezetimibe

A

Reduces cholesterol absorption at the brush border.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Verapamil

A

Class 4 antiarrhymic drug - Na+ channel blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Prasugrel

A

P2Y_12 / ADP receptor antagonists used to inhibit GP IIa/IIIb activation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Salmeterol

A

Long acting beta 2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Mifepristone

A

Progesterone (and glucocorticoid) receptor antagonist used for termination of pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Fenofibrate

A

Peroxisome proliferation-activated receptor alpha activator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Alpha adrenoceptor blocker

A

Doxazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Gliclazide

A

Sulphonurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

DOAC that’s a direct Xa inhibitor.

A

Apixaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

A penicillin active against staph and strep

A

Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

An alkylating agent that forms cross links in DNA especially active in B and T cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Abx treatment for TB

A

Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Aspirin

A

Selective COX-1 inhibitor that is inhibitory to platelet aggregation at low doses, and analgesic at high doses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Short acting insulin analogue

A

Actrapid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

A non-NSAID, non-opioid analgesic with antipyretic effects.

A

Paracetamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Patch form of dopamine receptor agonists.

A

Rotigotine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Class 1C antiarrhythmic - Na+ channel blocker

A

Flecainide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Glargine

A

Long acting insulin analogue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Amantadine

A

Drug used to treat Parkinson’s Disease with uncertain MoA and little effect in tremor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Fentanyl

A

A strong agonist for the opioid receptors used as an analgesic and metabolised via CYP3A4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Infliximab

A

Monoclonal antibody that blocks TNF alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Barbiturates

A

Antiepileptics that are GABA potentiators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

RhoGAM

A

Given to Rh- mothers to prevent haemolytic disease of the newborn.

134
Q

An antiviral targeting neuraminidase Given as a pro-drug.

A

Oseltamivir

135
Q

Amoxicillin

A

A penicillin active against both Gram negatives and positives. Abx

136
Q

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

A

Amlodipine

137
Q

Phenylalkyamine calcium channel blocker

A

Verapamil

138
Q

Mepolizumab

A

Anti-IL-5 monoclonal antibody that reduces eosinophils in the treatment of severe asthma.

139
Q

A mixed agonist / antagonist for the opioid receptors used to treat opioid addiction and excreted through the biliary system.

A

Buprenorphine

140
Q

Adenosine receptor antagonist

A

Theophylline

141
Q

SERM used to treat post-menopausal osteoporosis

A

Raloxifene

142
Q

An osmotic laxative that retains fluid it came in with.

A

Macrogols eg Movicol.

143
Q

Adenosine

A

Natural nucleoside that binds A1 receptors to decrease the slope of If.

144
Q

A treatment for opioid addiction that reduces withdrawal effects.

A

Methadone

145
Q

Co-amoxiclav

A

A beta-lactamase inhibitor abx

146
Q

Bupivacaine

A

Local anaesthetics

147
Q

Diltiazem

A

Benzothiazapine calcium channel blocker

148
Q

Rapinirole

A

Non-Ergot dopamine receptor agonists.

149
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A

A quinolone abx

150
Q

Docussate sodium

A

Stimulant laxative that increases the intestinal motility.

151
Q

As osmotic laxative that draws fluid into the large bowel.

A

Lactulose

152
Q

Antiproliferative immunosuppressant that is a T cell inhibitor metabolised by TPMT genes

A

Azathioprine

153
Q

Beta blocker safe in pregnancy

A

Labetalol

154
Q

Alpha blocker used for symptomatic relief of LUTS by relaxing prostate smooth muscle.

A

Tamsulosin

155
Q

Tamoxifen

A

SERM used in the treatment of breast cancer.

156
Q

Tamsulosin

A

Alpha blocker used for symptomatic relief of LUTS by relaxing prostate smooth muscle.

157
Q

Acetylcholineesterase inhibitors used to treat myasthenia Gravis.

A

Pyridostigmine, neostigmine

158
Q

Beta blocker

A

Bisoprolol, Propanolol

159
Q

Volatile anaesthetics that block GABA receptors.

A

Xenon and N2O

160
Q

Monoclonal antibody blocking GP IIa/IIIb receptors.

A

Abciximab

161
Q

Catechol-O-methyl transferase inhibitors.

A

Entacapone

162
Q

Ibuprofen

A

A COX-1 selective NSAID used commonly.

163
Q

An antiviral targeting neuraminidase taken as a dry powder inhaler.

A

Zanamavir

164
Q

N2O

A

Volatile anaesthetic and analgesic that blocks GABA receptors

165
Q

Atropine

A

Selective muscarinic antagonist to decrease the slope of If.

166
Q

Phenytoin

A

Antiepileptic sodium channel blockers

167
Q

Ulipristal acetate

A

Selective progesterone receptor modulator used in emergency contraception.

168
Q

Digoxin

A

Enhances vagal activity to increas refractory period in the heart.

169
Q

H1 receptor antagonist acting on the vestibular nuclei.

A

Cyclizine

170
Q

Apixaban

A

Direct Xa inhibitor (DOAC)

171
Q

Blocks the M2 ion channel to prevent viral replication.

A

Amantadine, rimantadine

172
Q

Precursor to dopamine given in Parkinson’s Disease.

A

LDOPA or LevoDOPA.

173
Q

Class 3 antiarrhymic drug - K+ channel blockers.

A

Amioderone

174
Q

Morphine

A

A strong agonist for the opioid receptors used as an analgesic

175
Q

Angiotensin II receptor blocker

A

Iosartan, candesartan

176
Q

Class 4 antiarrhymic drug - Na+ channel blockers.

A

Verapamil

177
Q

Dabigatran

A

Direct IIa inhibitor (DOAC)

178
Q

Name five inhibitors of CYP450s.

A 
Omeprazole 
Disulfiram
Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Ciprofloxacin
179
Q

Aspart

A

Rapid acting insulin analogue

180
Q

Celecoxib

A

Selective COX-2 inhibitors

181
Q

An antipsychotic that acts on the CTZ directly.

A

Haloperidol

182
Q

A trimethoprim used for uncomplicated UTIs

A

Trimethoprim

183
Q

A strong agonist for the opioid receptors used as an analgesic and excreted coupled with glucuronic acid.

A

Morphine

184
Q

Pyridostigmine

A

Acetylcholineesterase inhibitors used to treat myasthenia Gravis.

185
Q

An alkylating agent that forms cross links in DNA especially active in B and T cells.

A

Cyclophosphamide

186
Q

-sartan

A

Angiotensin II receptor blocker

187
Q

ADH antagonist

A

Tolvaptan

188
Q

Nitrofurantoin

A

An abx used for complicated UTIs

189
Q

Drug used to treat Parkinson’s Disease with uncertain MoA and little effect in tremor.

A

Amantadine

190
Q

Mycophenolate mofetil

A

Antiproliferative immunosuppressant that inhibits guanine synthesis to impair T and B cell proliferation.

191
Q

Antiepileptic that increases GABA production.

A

Gabapentin

192
Q

Reduces cholesterol absorption at the brush border.

A

Ezetimibe

193
Q

Antiepileptic sodium channel blockers

A

Lamotrigine, sodium valproate, phenytoin, topiramate, carbamazepine.

194
Q

Montelukast

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonists.

195
Q

-parin

A

Low molecular weight heparins

196
Q

Rifampicin

A

Abx treatment for TB

197
Q

Aprepitant

A

Neurokinin 1 receptor antagonist that acts on the CTZ directly.

198
Q

Non-antigenic fibrinolytic

A

Alteplase

199
Q

Rimantadine

A

Blocks the M2 ion channel to prevent viral replication.

200
Q

Theophylline

A

Adenosine receptor antagonist

201
Q

Mood stabiliser and ADH antagonist

A

Lithium

202
Q

Vigabatrin

A

Antiepileptic that’s a GABA transaminase inhibitor.

203
Q

Replaces hepatic glutathione in the case of paracetamol overdose.

A

Acetylcysteine

204
Q

Class 1A antiarrhythmic - Na+ channel blocker that can induce SLE.

A

Procainamide

205
Q

Natural nucleoside that binds A1 receptors to decrease the slope of If.

A

Adenosine

206
Q

Procaine

A

Local anaesthetics

207
Q

Vernakalant

A

Atrial specific K+ channel blocker.

208
Q

An opioid receptor antagonist specific to the mew receptors in the myenteric plexus to reduce muscle tone of the GI tract.

A

Loperamide

209
Q

Given to Rh- mothers to prevent haemolytic disease of the newborn.

A

RhoGAM

210
Q

Short acting, fast onset beta 2 agonists

A

Terbutaline, salbutamol

211
Q

-teplase

A

Fibrinolytic

212
Q

Volatile analgesic and anaesthetic that blocks GABA receptors

A

N2O

213
Q

Alginates

A

Gaviscon

214
Q

Atrial specific K+ channel blocker

A

Vernakalant

215
Q

Hyoscine hydrobromide

A

Muscarinic receptor competitive antagonist acting on the vestibular nuclei.

216
Q

Antiproliferative immunosuppressant metabolised by TPMT genes.

A

Azathioprine

217
Q

Lansoprazole

A

PPI

218
Q

Aldosterone receptor antagonist

A

Spironolactone

219
Q

Ivabradine

A

Blocks the If in the SA node, if highly expressed.

220
Q

Trimethoprim + sulphamethoxazole combo used to MRSA and PCP

A

Co-trimoxazole

221
Q

Fluconazole

A

Antifungal used commonly for thrush

222
Q

Neurokinin 1 receptor antagonist that acts on the CTZ directly.

A

Aprepitant

223
Q

Levothyroxine

A

Replacement therapy in Hashimoto’s

224
Q

Rotigotine

A

Patch form of dopamine receptor agonist.

225
Q

Doxycycline

A

A tetracycline abx

226
Q

Direct Renin inhibitor

A

Aliskirin

227
Q

Short acting beta 2 agonists

A

Terbutaline, salbutamol

228
Q

Local anaesthetics

A

Lidocaine, procaine, bupivacaine

229
Q

ACE inhibitor

A

Ramipril

230
Q

Methadone

A

A treatment for opioid addiction that reduces withdrawal effects.

231
Q

Neostigmine

A

Acetylcholineesterase inhibitors used to treat myasthenia Gravis.

232
Q

-zosin

A

Alpha adrenoceptor blocker

233
Q

An anticholinergic used in the treatment of severe and acute asthma.

A

Ipotrapium bromide

234
Q

Tolvaptan

A

ADH antagonist

235
Q

Potassium sparing diuretic

A

Amiloride

236
Q

Loperamide

A

An opioid receptor antagonist specific to the mew receptors in the myenteric plexus to reduce muscle tone of the GI tract.

237
Q

Antiepileptics that are GABA potentiators.

A

Barbiturates, benzodiazepines

238
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor to inhibit cellular uptake of adenosine.

A

Dipyridamole

239
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Antiepileptic that is a sodium channel blocker, and anti-thyroid drug used in Graves’ Disease.

240
Q

Ethambutol

A

Abx treatment for TB

241
Q

Antigenic fibrinolytic

A

Streptokinase

242
Q

Codeine

A

A moderate agonist to the opioid receptors.

243
Q

Enhances vagal activity to increas refractory period in the heart.

A

Digoxin

244
Q

Azathioprine

A

Antiproliferative immunosuppressant metabolised by TPMT genes.

245
Q

Amantadine

A

Blocks the M2 ion channel to prevent viral replication.

246
Q

An antiviral used to treat HSV and VZV

A

Aciclovir

247
Q

Gabapentin

A

Antiepileptic that increases GABA production.

248
Q

Biguanide for DMII

A

Metformin

249
Q

Labetalol

A

Beta blocker safe in pregnancy

250
Q

Long acting insulin analogue

A

Glargine

251
Q

-vir

A

Antiviral

252
Q

Rasagaline

A

Monoamine oxidase B inhibitors.

253
Q

H2 receptor antagonist used to reduce acid output.

A

Ranitidine

254
Q

Intermediate acting insulin analogue

A

Insulatard

255
Q

Diuretic that blocks NKCC2

A

Furosemide

256
Q

Bisoprolol

A

Beta blocker

257
Q

Monoclonal antibody that causes B cell apoptosis

A

Rituximab

258
Q

-aban

A

Direct Xa inhibitor (DOAC)

259
Q

Anti-IgE monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of severe asthma.

A

Omalizumab

260
Q

Dutasteride

A

5(alpha)-Reductase inhibitor which blocks testosterone conversion. Used over many years it will shrink the prostate.

261
Q

Abciximab

A

Monoclonal antibody blocking GP IIa/IIIb receptors.

262
Q

Levodopa

A

Precursor to dopamine given in Parkinson’s Disease.

263
Q

Dipyridamole

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor to inhibit cellular uptake of adenosine.

264
Q

Monoamine oxidase B inhibitors.

A

Selegiline, rasagaline.

265
Q

-statin

A

Competitive inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase.

266
Q

A tetracycline abx

A

Doxycycline

267
Q

B vitamin used to treat familial hypercholesterolaemia.

A

Niacin

268
Q

A non-biological, non-immunosuppressant that inhibits T cell activation / proliferation, and reduced neutrophil degranulation.

A

Sulphasalazine

269
Q

Antifungal used commonly for thrush

A

Fluconazole

270
Q

Loop diuretic

A

Furosemide

271
Q

Inhibition of the RANK ligand on osteoclasts to reduce osteoporosis

A

Denosumab

272
Q

Senna

A

Stimulant laxative that increases the intestinal motility.

273
Q

Pramipexole

A

Non-Ergot dopamine receptor agonists.

274
Q

Amiloride

A

Potassium sparing diuretic

275
Q

Lamotrigine

A

Antiepileptic sodium channel blockers

276
Q

Ticagrelor

A

P2Y_12 / ADP receptor antagonists used to inhibit GP IIa/IIIb activation.

277
Q

A carbapenem abx

A

Meropenem

278
Q

Anti-IL-5 monoclonal antibody that reduces eosinophils in the treatment of severe asthma.

A

Mepolizumab

279
Q

Ranitidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist used to reduce acid output.

280
Q

Competitive inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase.

A

Atorvastatin, simvastatin.

281
Q

Oseltamivir

A

An antiviral targeting neuraminidase

282
Q

A penicillin

A

Penicillin, amoxicillin, flucloxacillin

283
Q

Macrogols eg Movicol

A

An osmotic laxative that retains fluid it came in with.

284
Q

Naloxone

A

An antagonist to the opioid receptors used to treat opioid overdose.

285
Q

Bempiparin

A

Low molecular weight heparins

286
Q

Niacin

A

B vitamin used to treat familial hypercholesterolaemia.

287
Q

Thiazide

A

NaCl channel affecting diuretic

288
Q

Non-Ergot dopamine receptor agonists.

A

Pramipexole, Rapinirole.

289
Q

Pyrazinamide

A

Abx treatment for TB

290
Q

Argatroban

A

Direct IIa inhibitor (DOAC)

291
Q

A cephalosporin with good CSF penetration. Abx

A

Ceftriaxone

292
Q

Sulphasalazine

A

A non-biological, non-immunosuppressant that inhibits T cell activation / proliferation, and reduced neutrophil degranulation.

293
Q

Hydroxychloroquine

A

A non-biological, non-immunosuppressant that increases pH inside macrophage lysosomes.

294
Q

Class 3 antiarrhymic drug - K+ channel blockers and beta blocker

A

Sotalol

295
Q

Omalizumab

A

Anti-IgE monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of severe asthma.

296
Q

Sodium valproate

A

Antiepileptic sodium and calcium channel blocker

297
Q

Ceftriaxone

A

A cephalosporin with good CSF penetration. Abx

298
Q

Meropenem

A

A carbapemen abx

299
Q

Furosemide

A

Loop diuretic

300
Q

-grel-

A

P2Y_12 / ADP receptor antagonists used to inhibit GP IIa/IIIb activation.

301
Q

Leukotriene receptor antagonists.

A

Montelukast

302
Q

Antiepileptic that’s a GABA transaminase inhibitor.

A

Vigabatrin

303
Q

Actrapid

A

Short acting insulin analogue

304
Q

Salbutamol

A

Short acting beta 2 agonists

305
Q

Rituximab

A

Monoclonal antibody that causes B cell apoptosis

306
Q

Propanolol

A

Beta Blocker

307
Q

A beta-lactamase inhibitor abx

A

Co-amoxiclav, piperacillin, tazobactam

308
Q

Morphine

A

A strong agonist for the opioid receptors used as an analgesic and excreted coupled with glucuronic acid.

309
Q

Dexamethasone

A

A corticosteriod that acts on the CTZ directly.

310
Q

Piperacillin

A

A beta-lactamase inhibitor abx

311
Q

Paracetamol

A

A non-NSAID, non-opioid analgesic with antipyretic effects.

312
Q

Lactulose

A

As osmotic laxative that draws fluid into the large bowel.

313
Q

Finasteride

A

5(alpha)-Reductase inhibitor which blocks testosterone conversion. Used over many years it will shrink the prostate.

314
Q

Flecainide

A

Class 1C antiarrhythmic - Na+ channel blocker

315
Q

Zanamavir

A

An antiviral targeting neuraminidase

316
Q

PPIs

A

Lansoprazole, omeprazole, esomeprazole

317
Q

Name five inducers of CYP450s.

A 
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine 
Barbiturates 
Rifampicin
St Johns Wort
318
Q

-coxib

A

Selective COX-2 inhibitors

319
Q

-asteride

A

5(alpha)-Reductase inhibitor which blocks testosterone conversion. Used over many years it will shrink the prostate.

320
Q

Buprenorphine

A

A mixed agonist / antagonist for the opioid receptors used to treat opioid addiction and excreted through the biliary system.

321
Q

Candesartan

A

Angiotensin II receptor blocker

322
Q

A penicillin active against both Gram negatives and positives. Abx

A

Amoxicillin

323
Q

Degludec

A

Very long acting insulin analogue

324
Q

SERM used to treat anovulation.

A

Clomiphrene

325
Q

Antiepileptics that are calcium blockers.

A

Ethosuximide, sodium valproate

326
Q

A COX-1 selective NSAID used commonly.

A

Ibuprofen

327
Q

Terbutaline

A

Short acting beta 2 agonists

328
Q

Peroxisome proliferation-activated receptor alpha activator.

A

Fenofibrate, ciprofibrate

329
Q

Selective COX-2 inhibitors

A

Celecoxib, parecoxib

330
Q

Vancomycin

A

A glycopeptide abx

331
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Antiepileptics that are GABA potentiators.

Maddie’s Pharm (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions