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Drugs > Drug classes > Flashcards

Drug classes Flashcards

1
Q

Gaviscon

A

Antacid - buffers stomach acid

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2
Q

H2 antagonist

A

Ranitidine - reduces gastric acid secretion

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3
Q

Proton pump inhibitors

A

Omeprazole, Lansoprazole, Pantoprazole - reduce gastric acid secretion

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4
Q

Loperamide

A

Anti-diahorreal - slows transit of the bowel contents & increases anal sphincter tone

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5
Q

Senna

A

Laxative - stimulates peristalsis

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6
Q

Mesalazine, Sulfasalazine

A

Aminosalicylates - anti-inflammatory & immunosuppressive effects on the bowel

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7
Q

Anti-emetics

A

Metoclopramide, Domperidone - D2 receptor antagonists in the chemoreceptor trigger zone - promote gastric emptying

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8
Q

Loop diuretics

A

Furosemide, Bumetanide, Torasemide - 1) Inhibit reabsorption from the ascending loop of Henle + 2) Dilate capacitance veins

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9
Q

Thiazide diuretics

A

Bendroflumethiazide - prevent sodium & water reabsorption at the early distal convoluted tubule

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10
Q

Potassium-sparing diuretics

A

Spironalactone - potentiates thiazide or loop diuretics by antagonising sodium & water absorption in the late distal tube

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11
Q

Beta blockers (B1 selective)

A

Atenolol, Bisoprolol, Metoprolol - 1) Reduce the force of contraction & speed of conduction of the heart to reduce cardiac work & oxygen demand + 2) Reduce renin secretion from the kidney

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12
Q

Beta blockers (non-selective)

A

Propanolol - B2 antagonism lowers peripheral resistance via vasodilation

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13
Q

Calcium channel blockers (vascular selective)

A

Amlodipine, Nifedipine - relax & vasodilate arterial smooth muscles to reduce arterial pressure by decreasing calcium entry & therefore reducing intracellular calcium concentration

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14
Q

Calcium channel blocker (cardiac selective)

A

Verapamil - reduces myocardial contractility & ventricular rate by suppressing cardiac conduction across the AV node - this reduces afterload & therefore reduces myocardial oxygen demand

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15
Q

Calcium channel blocker (mixed)

A

Diltiazem - reduces areterial pressure + reduces myocardial contractility & ventricular rate

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16
Q

ACE inhibitors

A

Ramipril, Lisinopril, Perindopril - 1) Reduce peripheral vascular resistance (afterload) + 2) Reduce aldosterone levels to promote sodium & water excretion

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17
Q

Angiotensin-1 receptor blockers

A

Losartan, Candesartan, Irbesartan - 1) Reduce peripheral vascular resistance (afterload) + 2) Reduce aldosterone levels to promote sodium & water excretion

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18
Q

Nitrate (short-acting)

A

GTN (glycerol trinitrate) - reduces cardiac work & myocardial oxygen demand by relaxing venous capacitance vessels to reduce preload & LV filling

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19
Q

Nitrate (long-acting)

A

ISMN (isosorbide mononitrate) - reduces cardiac work & myocardial oxygen demand by relaxing venous capacitance vessels to reduce preload & LV filling

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20
Q

Digoxin

A

Cardiac glycoside - 1) Negatively chronotropic (reduces heart rate) + 2) Positively ionotropic (increases force of contraction)

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21
Q

Amiodarone

A

Anti-dysrhythmics - 1) Suppress spontaneous depolarisation + 2) Slow conduction velocity + 3) Increase resistance to depolarisation in the AV node

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22
Q

Anti-platelet agent

A

Aspirin - reduces platelet aggregation and risk of arterial occlusion by irreversibly inhibiting COX

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23
Q

Clopidogrel

A

Anti-platelets - prevent platelet aggregation and reduce risk of arterial occlusion by binding irreversibly to ADP receptors on the surface of platelets

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24
Q

Heparins

A

Enoxaparin, Dalteparin, Fondaparinux, Unfractionated heparin - prevent the formation & propagation of blood clots by inhibiting thrombin & factor Xa

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25
Q

Oral anticoagulant

A

Warfarin - inhibits hepatic production of vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors & cofactors by inhibiting vitamin K epoxide reductase

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26
Q

Novel anticoagulant

A

Rivaroxaban - direct inhibition of activated factor X (factor Xa)

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27
Q

Statins

A

Simvastatin, Atorvastatin, Pravastatin, Rosuvastatin - reduce serum cholesterol levels by inhibiting HMG CoA reductase

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28
Q

B2 agonists (short-acting)

A

Salbutamol, Terbutaline - relax smooth muscle of the bronchi to improve airflow

29
Q

B2 agonists (long-acting)

A

Salmeterol, Formoterol - relax smooth muscle of the bronchi to improve airflow

30
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can B2-agonists be used as an adjuvant for?

A

Hyperkalaemia - stimulate Na+/K+-ATPase pumps on cell surface membranes, causing a shift of extracellular K+ to the intracellular component

31
Q

Ipratropium

A

Short-acting anticholinergic - reduces smooth muscle tone & secretions from the respiratory tract

32
Q

Tiotropium

A

Long-acting anticholinergic - reduces smooth muscle tone & secretions from the respiratory tract

33
Q

Corticosteroids

A

Prednisolone, Hydrocortisone, Dexamethasone, Beclometasone - modify the immune response by binding to cystolic glucocorticoid receptors that translocate to the nucleus & bind GC elements that regulate gene expresion

34
Q

Carbocysteine

A

Mucolytics

35
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant

A

Amitryptiline - inhibits neuronal reuptake or 5-HT & NA from the synapse (as well as many other receptors)

36
Q

SSRIs

A

Citalopram, Sertraline, Fluoxetine - preferentially inhibit 5-HT uptake from the synapse

37
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Diazepam, Lorazepam, Midazolam, Temazepam, Chlordiazepoxide - facilitate & enhance binding of GABA to the GABA-A receptor

38
Q

NSAIDs

A

Diclofenac, Ibuprofen, Naproxen, Etoricoxib - inhibit synthesis of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid by inhibiting cyclooxygenase - therapeutic benefits are principally mediated though COX-2

39
Q

Strong opioids (immediate-release)

A

Morphine (Oramorph) - activate opioid receptors in the CNS to reduce neuronal excitability & pain transmission - 1) Blunt response to hypoxia & hypercapnoea to reduce breathlessness + 2) Relieve pain 3) Reduce cardiac work & oxygen demand

40
Q

Strong opioids (slow-release)

A

Morphine (MST Continus) - activate opioid receptors in the CNS to reduce neuronal excitability & pain transmission - 1) Blunt response to hypoxia & hypercapnoea to reduce breathlessness + 2) Relieve pain 3) Reduce cardiac work & oxygen demand

41
Q

Weak opioids

A

Codeine, Tramadol, Dihydrocodeine - metabolised in the liver to produce relatively small amounts of morphine & dihydromorphine that act on opioid receptors & reduce pain transmission

42
Q

Tramadol (moderate strength) is a synthetic analogue of…

A

Codeine

43
Q

How do penicillins work?

A

B-lactam ring causes bacterial cell swelling, lysis & death by inhibiting enzymes responsible for cross-linking peptidoglycans in bacterial cell walls

44
Q

Broad spectrum penicillins (2 examples) - what makes them more broad than standard penicillins?

A

Amoxicillin - addition of an amino group to the side chain increases efficacy against aerobic Gram-negative bacteria
Co-amoxiclav - addition of clavulanic acid (B-lactamase inhibitor) further increases the spectrum to include B-lactamase producing bacteria)

45
Q

What is Tazocin a combination of?

A

Piperacillin (penicillin side chain converted to a form of urea to increase spectrum to include Pseudomonas aeruginosa) + Tazobactam (B-lactamase inhibitor, meaning it is active against B-lactamase producing bacteria)

46
Q

Penicillinase-resistant penicillin

A

Flucloxacillin

47
Q

Cephalosporins

A

Cephradine, Cefotaxime - B-lactam ring inhibits enzymes responsible for cross-linking peptidoglycans in bacterial cell walls, causing bacterial cell swelling, lysis & death

48
Q

Carbapenems

A

Meropenem, Ertapenem - B-lactam ring inhibits enzymes responsible for cross-linking peptidoglycans in bacterial cell walls, causing bacterial cell swelling, lysis & death

49
Q

How does trimethoprim work?

A

Slows bacteria growth by inhibiting bacterial folate synthesis (bacteriostatic)

50
Q

What is co-trimoxazole a combination of?

A

Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole - sulfamethoxazole also inhibits bacterial folate synthesis but at a different step to trimethoprim, meaning that the combination makes a more complete inhibition of folate synthesis - therefore bactericidal

51
Q

How does nitrofurantoin work?

A

Metabolised in bacterial cells by nitrofurantoin reductase, and its active metabolite damages bacterial DNA causing cell death (bactericidal)

52
Q

Tetracycline

A

Doxycycline - inhibits bacterial cell growth - binds to the 30S subunit, which prevents binding of tRNA to mRNA, meaning the protein synthesis is inhibited

53
Q

Aminoglycoside

A

Gentamicin - enters bacterial cells via an oxygen-dependent transport system, and binds irreversibly to the 30S subunit to inhibit protein synthesis - it is bactericidal but mechanism is not understood

54
Q

Macrolides

A

Clarithromycin, Erythromycin, Azithromycin - inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit to block translocation, which inhibits elongation of the polypeptide chain

55
Q

Quinolone

A

Ciprofloxacin - kills bacteria by inhibiting DNA synthesis

56
Q

Metronidazole - active against aerobic or anaerobic bacteria?

A

Anaerobic + Protozoa - aerobic bacteria are unable to reduce metronidazole to its damaging free radical

57
Q

How does metronidazole work?

A

Enters bacterial cell walls by passive diffusion where it is reduced to a nitroso free radical that binds to bacterial DNA & causes widespread damage, DNA degradation & cell death

58
Q

Glycopeptide

A

Vancomycin - inhibits synthesis of the cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria by inhibiting growth & cross-linking of peptidoglycan chains - Gram-negative bacteria have a different cell wall (lipopolysaccharide)

59
Q

Antithrombolytics/Antithrombotics can be divided into 2 classes

A

Anticoagulants - slow down clotting, thereby reducing fibrin formation and preventing clots from forming and growing
Antiplatelets - prevent platelets from clumping and also prevent clots from forming and growing

60
Q

Sinemet is a combination of

A

Levodopa (precursor of DA that can cross the BBB) + Carbidopa (peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor)

61
Q

Madopar is a combination of

A

Levodopa (precursor of DA that can cross the BBB) + Benserizide (peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor)

62
Q

Why is dopamine itself not given to treat PD?

A

It cannot cross the BBB, so levodopa is given instead (which is a DA precursor)

63
Q

Ropinrole and Pramipexol

A

DA agonists - relatively selective for the D2 receptor in the striatum

64
Q

Phenytoin

A

Anti-convulsant that inhibits spread of seizure activity by binding to inactive sodium channels and therefore preventing sodium influx into the neuron. This prevents action potential from being fired.

65
Q

Sodium valproate

A

Anti-convulsant that inhibits spread of seizure activity by binding to inactive sodium channels and therefore preventing sodium influx into the neuron. This prevents action potential from being fired.
It also increases the brain content of GABA (principal inhibitory neurotransmitter)

66
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Anti-convulsant that inhibits spread of seizure activity by binding to inactive sodium channels and therefore preventing sodium influx into the neuron. This prevents action potential from being fired.

67
Q

Paracetamol

A

Non-opioid pain killer - reduces the pain threshold in the CNS by weakly inhibiting COX-2

68
Q

Allopurinol

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor to lower plasma uric acid concentrations and reduce precipitation of uric acid in the joints & kidneys
(Xanthine oxidase metabolises xanthine, which is produced from purines, to uric acid)

69
Q

Cetirizine

A

Antihistamine for allergy

Drugs (6 decks)

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