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TERM 2 N1261 KNLG 1 > Drug Classes > Flashcards

Drug Classes Flashcards

1
Q

Which adverse events could happen if IV calcium is given too fast?

A

Cardiac dysrhythmia

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2
Q

Which lab test should be assessed prior to vitamin K administration?

A

PTT and INR

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3
Q

Which vitamin deficiency is related to GI malabsorption?

A

Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin)

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4
Q

Which supplement could assist with wound healing?

A

Zinc

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5
Q

Which vitamin would be ordered for a client with a history of alcoholism?

A

Vitamin B1 (thiamine)

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6
Q

Which drugs should oral calcium tablets NOT be administered along with?

A

Tetracyclines

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7
Q

Which vital sign should be monitored in a patient receiving intravenous magnesium?

A

Heart rhythm

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8
Q

What can be done to decrease GI upset with niacin?

A

Administer with milk or food

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9
Q

What adverse event should be monitored for in patients taking large doses of vitamin C?

A

Formation of kidney stones

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10
Q

Severely chapped and fissured lips are a sign of which vitamin deficiency?

A

Vitamin B2 (riboflavin)

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11
Q

When administering IV magnesium, what sign/symptom may indicate hypermagnesemia?

A

Decreased deep tendon reflexes

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12
Q

Which mineral may be used in higher doses to treat certain seizures and pre-eclampsia?

A

Magnesium

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13
Q

Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) is indicated for the treatment of which condition?

A

Pernicious anemia

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14
Q

Which signs or symptoms may indicate vitamin C toxicity?

A

Nausea and abdominal cramping

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15
Q

Vitamin K is used as an antidote for which drug?

A

Warfarin

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16
Q

The nurse would question a health care provider’s prescription for vitamin D for a patient with which condition?

A

Hyperparathyroidism (hypercalcemia)

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17
Q

Name 3 groups of oral antihyperglycemics

A
  1. Biguanides
  2. Sulfonylureas
  3. Glinides
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18
Q

Name an example of a biguanide drug

A

Metformin (Glucophage)

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19
Q

Name an example of a sulfonylurea drug

A

Gliclazide (Diamicron)

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20
Q

Name an example of a glinide drug

A

Repaglinide (GlucoNorm)

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21
Q

Is it ok to take oral antihyperglycemics on an as needed basis?

A

No, they should be taken at scheduled times and meals should not be skipped

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22
Q

What are 3 therapeutic effects of sulfonylurea drugs?

A
  1. Stimulate insulin secretion
  2. Enhance actions of insulin in various tissues
  3. Inhibit breakdown of insulin by liver
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23
Q

Which oral hypoglycemic drug has a quick onset and short duration of action, enabling the patient to take the medication 30 minutes before eating and to skip the dose if he or she does not eat?

A

Repaglinide (GlucoNorm)

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24
Q

What is the best time to take gliclazide (Diamicron)?

A

30 minutes before eating

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25
Q

What drug is used to treat hypoglycemia?

A

Glucagon

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26
Q

What blood sugar reading is considered hypoglycemia?

A

Under 4.0

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27
Q

What Hgb A1C level would indicate an adverse event while taking oral antihyperglycemics?

A

Less than 7%

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28
Q

If a patient is taking metformin but has to go for a contrast study, what should you expect would happen for the patient’s dose?

A

Hold for the day of the test and 48 hrs after

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29
Q

Why is table sugar not good for hypoglycemia?

A

Because sucrose is a more complex carbohydrate than glucose

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30
Q

What are the 2 most common adverse events associated with metformin?

A

GI upset, metallic taste

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31
Q

What is the definition of hypertension?

A

Persistent systolic >140 or diastolic >90

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32
Q

What are the two variables that determine blood pressure?

A

Cardiac output (CO) and systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

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33
Q

What adverse effect of antihypertensive drugs is the most likely to cause noncompliance?

A

Sexual dysfunction

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34
Q

What is the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors?

A

Dry cough

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35
Q

What 2 types of drugs are known to interact with ACE inhibitors?

A

Potassium, NSAIDs

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36
Q

ACE inhibitors should be used with caution in patients with what comorbid condition?

A

Renal insufficiency

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37
Q

What are the most common side effects of nitroglycerin that should not cause alarm?

A

Headache, flushing of the face, dizziness, and fainting

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38
Q

Patients taking nitroglycerin should avoid which substances?

A

Erectile dysfunction drugs

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39
Q

What is preload?

A

Blood return to the heart

40
Q

What are the instructions for using nitroglycerin during an acute anginal episode?

A
  1. Take one tablet
  2. If the chest pain not relieved in 5 minutes, call 911 immediately. The patient may take one more tablet while awaiting emergency care and a third tablet 5 minutes later
  3. Take no more than three tablets total.
  4. Always sit or lie down before taking this medication.
41
Q

What is afterload?

A

The force against which heart must pump

42
Q

What dosage form of nitro has the longest duration?

A

Transdermal patch

43
Q

What is done to prevent developing tolerance to nitroglycerin?

A

Take off patch for 8 hrs at night

44
Q

What nursing action should be done before administering isosorbide-5-mononitrate?

A

Take a blood pressure

45
Q

Noncardioselective beta blockers should be used with caution in patients with which condition?

A

Bronchial asthma

46
Q

What is the MOST APPROPRIATE use of sublingual nitroglycerin?

A

To prevent angina

47
Q

True/false: diltiazem is prescribed to stop episodes of angina

A

False

48
Q

Which 3 substances may cause interactions with isosorbide?

A
  1. Alcohol
  2. ED drugs
  3. Beta blockers
49
Q

Calcium channel blockers are prescribed to treat which kind of angina?

A

Vasospastic

50
Q

Name risk factors for postmenopausal osteoporosis

A
  1. Family history
  2. Glucocorticoid drugs
  3. Early menopause
  4. Malabsorption disorders
51
Q

When does bone loss begin?

A

Mid-30s

52
Q

How much calcium should premenopausal women be taking per day?

A

1000 mg

53
Q

How much calcium should peri and postmenpausal women be taking per day?

A

1200 mg

54
Q

Which group of drugs inhibit osteoclast activity and therefore prevents bone resorption?

A

Biphosphonates

55
Q

Name one example of a biphosphonate

A

Alendronate (Fosamax)

56
Q

Which group of drugs stimulate estrogen receptors on bone?

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)

57
Q

What are SERMs usually used for?

A

Prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis

58
Q

What are contraindications for SERMs?

A

Women of childbearing age, venous thromboembolic disorder

59
Q

What drug stimulates bone formation by modulating metabolism of Ca and Ph in a similar way to PTH, and is used in pts with highest risk of fracture?

A

Teriparatide

60
Q

Which drug is a monoclonal antibody that blocks osteoclast activation?

A

Denosumab

61
Q

What are 3 mechanisms of laxatives?

A
  1. Affect fecal consistency
  2. Increase movement through colon
  3. Facilitate defecation through rectum
62
Q

Which group of laxatives absorb water to distend the bowel and initiate reflex bowel activity?

A

Bulk forming laxatives

63
Q

Name 2 bulk forming laxatives

A
  1. Psyllium
  2. Methylcellulose (Metamucil)
64
Q

Which group of laxatives lowers surface tension of GI fluids so more water and fat absorbed into stool and intestines?

A

Stool softeners

65
Q

Which group of laxatives lubricate fecal material and intestinal wall and prevent absorption of water from intestines to promote bowel distension?

A

Lubricants

66
Q

Stool softeners and lubricants make up what category of laxatives?

A

Emollients

67
Q

Name one stool softener and one lubricant

A
  1. Docusate sodium
  2. Mineral oil
68
Q

Which laxative causes the bowel to hold more water, promoting bowel distension?

A

Hyperosmotics

69
Q

Name 4 hyperosmotics

A
  1. Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
  2. Lactulose
  3. Sorbitol
  4. Glycerin
70
Q

Which group of laxatives Increase osmotic pressure in small intestine by inhibiting water absorption and increasing both water and electrolyte secretions from bowel wall into bowel lumen?

A

Saline laxatives

71
Q

Name 3 saline laxatives

A
  1. Magnesium sulfate
  2. Magnesium phosphate
  3. Magnesium hydroxide (Philips Milk of Magnesia)
72
Q

Which group of laxatives stimulate nerves that innervate intestines to increase peristalsis and increase fluid in colon?

A

Stimulants

73
Q

Name 2 stimulant laxatives

A
  1. Senna (Senokot)
  2. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
74
Q

Which laxative would be used as preparation for colonoscopy?

A

PEG 3350

75
Q

What is a potential serious complication of methycellulose?

A

Possible obstruction

76
Q

How should bisacodyl be taken with regards to food?

A

On an empty stomach

77
Q

What are 2 adverse effects of methylcellulose?

A
  1. Fluid and electrolyte disturbances
  2. Gas formation
78
Q

Can senna be taken with other medications?

A

Avoid other medications within 1 hr.

79
Q

To avoid fecal impaction, psyllium (Metamucil®) should be administered with at least how many mL of fluid?

A

At least 240 mL of liquid plus additional liquid each day to prevent esophageal obstruction and fecal impaction.

80
Q

Related to its mechanism of action, what is an additive effect of lactulose?

A

Reduces ammonia levels by forcing ammonia from the blood into the colon (good for hepatic encephalopathy)

81
Q

Which condition in the client’s history would cause the nurse to question an order for magnesium hydroxide?

A

Renal insufficiency; they can be absorbed enough to cause hypermagnesemia

82
Q

Name 3 topical OTC drugs for acne

A
  1. Benzoyl peroxide
  2. Clindamycin
  3. Vitamin A acid
83
Q

What is silver sulfadiazine used for?

A

Treatment and prevention of infection in 2nd and 3rd-degree burns

84
Q

What is the generic name for Accutane?

A

Isotretinoin

85
Q

Bactroban is used for impetigo. What is the generic name?

A

Mupirocin

86
Q

Monistat is used in candidiasis. What is the generic name?

A

Miconazole

87
Q

Bioderm is used in bacterial infection. What is the generic name?

A

Bacitracin

88
Q

Jock itch or ringworm are common names for what infection?

A

Tinea cruris

89
Q

What assessment finding would indicate an allergic reaction to benzoyl peroxide?

A

Blistering

90
Q

What preparation of topical corticosteroid would provide the highest penetration?

A

Ointment

91
Q

What assessment findings would indicate an allergic reaction to bacitracin?

A

Itching and burning

92
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tretinoin?

A

Skin peeling

93
Q

Why does Dakin’s Solution, used in wound care, smell like bleach?

A

It is a dilute solution that acts to reduce the bacteria in the wound so it can heal

94
Q

How is dimeticone used to treat head lice?

A

Leave the medication on until dry, then shampoo normally and use a lice comb to remove dead lice and any eggs

95
Q

Name 3 actions in performing wound care for a burn with silver sulfadiazine

A
  1. Using sterile gloves
  2. Gently cleanse the wound to remove wound debris and previous layer of cream
  3. Perform hand hygiene before and after
96
Q

What is an appropriate use for lidocaine/prilocaine (EMLA) cream?

A

Reduce pain before needle insertion

TERM 2 N1261 KNLG 1 (3 decks)

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