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Driver/Operator Questions Flashcards

1
Q

NFPA 1582 Standards on Medical Requirements for firefighter, requires that driver/operator have a corrected far vision acuity of ____ with contacts or glasses

A

1/2

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2
Q

Who is held responsible of a driver/operator becomes involved in a MVC

A

The driver/operator

The fire department

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3
Q

Fire Apparatus are classified according to

A

Function for which it was designed

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4
Q

Fire department pumpers are commonly called all the following except

A

Truck

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5
Q

The main purpose of the fire department pumper is to

A

provide water at an adequate pressure for fire streams

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6
Q

According to NFPA 1901, Standards for Automotive Fire Apparatus, the min pump capacity for fire apparatus is

A

750 gpm

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7
Q

Apparatus which carry all standards engine company equipment, but also feature a larger than standard amount of rescue and extrication equipment are commonly called

A

Rescue pumpers

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8
Q

Municipal and industrial foam pumper may ne equipped with one of the following foam systems except

A

Under the pump

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9
Q

Pumping apparatus with elevated water devices typically range in height from

A

50-75 feet

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10
Q

According to NFPA 1901, apparatus must carry at least ___ in order to be considered a mobile water supply apparatus

A

1000 gallons

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11
Q

Weight distribution and load requirements generally limit mobile water supply apparatus to carry ___ or less for single rear-axle vehicles

A

1500 gallons

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12
Q

According to NFPA 1901 the min pump capacity for aerial apparatus should be

A

250 gpm at 150 psi

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13
Q

Most hydraulic tool’s pumps are not capable of supplying full power to the tool if the hose length between the pump and the tool exceeds

A

100 feet

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14
Q

NIMS categorizes pumping apparatus (including water tenders) by capability. This method is called

A

Apparatus typing

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15
Q

Using the FEMA Engine Typing Requirements, what would be the pump capacity of a Type III pumper

A

120 gpm

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16
Q

To extend the working life of their trucks, some fire departments employ smaller units called

A

Ladder-tenders

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17
Q

Typically the water capacity of a ladder tender is

A

300 gallons

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18
Q

Engine Tenders differ from Rescue Pumpers in that

A

They do not have the firefighter capabilities as a full-sized fire department pumper

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19
Q

To restore or replace that which had become inoperable best describes which of the following

A

Repair

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20
Q

If a fire apparatus requires waxes and polishes, it should not be applied to a new vehicle until the vehicle is at least

A

6 months old

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21
Q

Where does the “circle” or pre-trip walk-around end

A

Inside the cab by starting the apparatus and performing a functional check on apparatus system

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22
Q

In checking apparatus sirens and air horns, ear protection should be worn if any personnel will be exposed to noise levels in excess of

A

90 decibels

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23
Q

The process in which the load monitor shuts down less important equipment to prevent overload is referred to as

A

Load shedding

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24
Q

The amount of “play” in the steering wheel should not exceed more than __ in either directions

A

10 degrees

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25
Q

A steering wheel with the diameter of 20 inches should have no more play of

A

2 inches in either direction

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26
Q

NFPA 1901 braking test requires that new apparatus must ne brought to a complete stop

A

From a speed of 20 mph in a distance not to exceed 35 feet

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27
Q

On apparatus equipment with air brakes the NFPA 1901 Standards requires that air pressure to build up to a sufficient level to allow safe vehicle operations with a time span of ___ after starting the apparatus

A

60 sec

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28
Q

To test the road brakes the driver should allow the vehicles to move forward at a speed of about 5 mph. The driver then applies the brakes firmly. The apparatus should come to a stop with in about

A

20 feet

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29
Q

Battery connections should be cleaned with

A

Baking powder soda and water

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30
Q

Historically, the charging of vehicle batteries is a function that is commonly performed by

A

The driver/operator of the vehicle

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31
Q

Charging batteries produce which of the following explosive gases

A

Hydrogen

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32
Q

Which should be connected first when charging a battery

A

Positive (red)

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33
Q

All of the following inspections should be performed on a weekly basis except which of the following

A

Operate the controls to check or inspect the fire pump

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34
Q

Apparatus glass should be cleaned with all but which of the following

A

Dry towels

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35
Q

During a vehicle inspection the 1st position of the vehicle specifically checked should be the

A

Left (driver) side of the front cab

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36
Q

When should a driver/operator test the warning devices of apparatus

A

Only when the driver is in the cab and no one else is around

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37
Q

Approximately how many firefighter deaths per year are associated with vehicle collisions while responding to or returning from emergency calls

A

25

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38
Q

According to DOT approximately how may civilians are killed per year that are associated with emergency vehicle collisions, while responding to or returning from emergency calls

A

25

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39
Q

According to a study conducted by the Indiana University of Pennsylvania (IUP) the greatest number of collisions occur during

A

Daylight

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40
Q

Which of the following would not be considered one of the 5 basic causes of fire apparatus collisions

A

Poor road conditions

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41
Q

According to IFSTA all of the following are factors that may contribute to collisions that involve driver/operator as the cause except

A

Lack of confidence in one’s driving ability

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42
Q

Which of the following vehicles have a high incidence of serious collisions

A

Home built water tenders

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43
Q

When starting an emergency vehicle the 1st thing the driver/operator needs to know is

A

Where the apparatus is going

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44
Q

The first thing the driver/operator should do when starting a vehicle and begin the response is to

A

Disconnect the ground shore lines (external electric cords, air horns, etc.)

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45
Q

The apparatus starter control should be operated at intervals of no more than ___ with a rest time of ___ between try if the vehicle does not start sooner

A

30 sec

60 sec

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46
Q

If after starting the vehicle the oil pressure gauge does not indicate any reasonable amount of oil pressure with in ___ the driver/operator should stop the engine immediately and have the lubrication system checked by a trained mechanic

A

5-10 sec

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47
Q

When driving an automatic transmission emergency vehicle in leaving traffic the shift selector position should be

A

3 or 1-3

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48
Q

When driving an automatic transmission emergency vehicle over moderate grades at moderate speeds the shift selector position should be

A

4 or 4-1

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49
Q

When the throttle application is greater than necessary for a given set of conditions, the result is referred to as

A

Lugging

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50
Q

Which of the following statements is true

A

The lugging state should be avoided by the driver/operator because of the possibility of damaging the power plant

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51
Q

Over throttling a diesel engine results in all the following except

A

Reduction of fuel consumption

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52
Q

By choosing a gear that cruises the engine at 200-300 rpm lower than the recommended rpm will have all the following results except

A

Raise power loses from the fan, driveline and accessories

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53
Q

It is recommended that the engine of the apparatus should be shut down rather than allowing it to idle for long periods of time. long idling periods can result in the use of __ of fuel per hour

A

1/2 gallon

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54
Q

When an apparatus must ne idled for long periods of time because of extremely cold weather or during lighting operations, the driver/operator should

A

Set the idle at 900-1100 rpm

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55
Q

An engine should never be shut down immediately after full-load operations. The driver/operator should allow the engine temp to stabilize before it is shut down. What is the recommended idle time in order to accomplish this

A

3-5 min

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56
Q

NFPA 1500 Standard on fire department Occupational Safety and Health Program states that all riders of fire apparatus must be seated and belted. The Standard however provides 3 exception which of the following is not an exception to this standard

A

When pump and rolling with personnel stationed on top of the apparatus with hand-lines or master streams during wild land firefighting operations

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57
Q

Which of the following statements regarding hose-loading operations is not true

A

The apparatus must be driven carefully in reverse direction with a safety observer located at the rear left side of the apparatus

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58
Q

When backing up fire apparatus, which of the following would be considered the most desirable for insuring the highest degree of safety

A

Two spotters one with a portable radio to communicate with the driver and the other to assist the first spotter

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59
Q

The term referred to as the distance a vehicle travels while the driver is transferring his foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal after perceiving the need to stop the vehicle is called

A

Reaction distance

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60
Q

___ occurs as a result of the physical law that states that objects in motion and objects at rest tend to remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force

A

Weight transfer

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61
Q

When driving apparatus with ABS braking system and the driver must make an immediate stop how should he work the brake pedal

A

Maintain steady pressure on the brake

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62
Q

When operating an apparatus not equipped with ABS brakes and the apparatus starts to skid do all of the following except

A

Turn the apparatus steering wheel so that the vehicle faces in the opposite direction of the skid

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63
Q

Some apparatus built before the mid-1970s have an auxiliary braking system that road/slippery roads switches when the switch is set to the slippery road setting air pressure on the front steering axle is reduced by

A

50%

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64
Q

The system that helps improve traction on slippery roads by reducing drive wheel over spin is called

A

ATC

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65
Q

All the following statements regarding passing other vehicles are true except

A

Always travel on the outer most lane on a multilane road

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66
Q

When traveling at speeds grater than ___ an emergency vehicle may out run the effectiveness of its audible warning devices

A

50 mph

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67
Q

In a study conducted by the Driver’s Reaction Course Concluded that a siren sounding on a vehicle traveling at 40 mph will project ___ ahead of the vehicle

A

300 feet

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68
Q

In a study conducted by the Driver’s Reaction Course concluded that a siren sounding on a vehicle traveling at 60 mph will project __ ahead of the vehicle

A

12 feet

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69
Q

The use of warning devices should be restricted to true emergency responses. Warning devices should not be used on any of the following calls except

A

Car fires

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70
Q

T/F
Spot light moving across the back window of a vehicle will rapidly get the drivers attention. However, it should not be left on because it may blind the driver

A

True

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71
Q

The Opticom (TM) system controls traffic lights by

A

Sending light from special strobe lights called emitters on the apparatus to sensors mounted on the traffic signal

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72
Q

The SONEM 2000 system controls traffic lights by

A

Utilizing a microphone on the traffic light that “hears” the siren of the apparatus and in turn sends a signal to the traffic signal controller

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73
Q

If 2 pieces if apparatus are approaching a traffic signal equipped with the opticom system what will be the result

A

Vehicle tat trigger the system first will get the green light

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74
Q

When executing the alley dock exercise what is the width of the space the driver must back into

A

12 feet

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75
Q

In the apparatus station parking maneuver an apparatus by is simulated by allowing a __ foot min set back

A

20-30 feet

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76
Q

When setting up a serpentine course the markers should be spaced between __ depending on the size of the apparatus being used

A

30-38 feet

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77
Q

The confined space turn around is performed in an area that is a least __ wide and ___ long

A

50

100

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78
Q

Along the length of the diminishing clearance course the lane narrows from a width of __ to a diminished clearance of __

A

9 feet 6 inches

8 feet 6 inches

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79
Q

When concluding the diminishing clearance test the driver/operator must stop the vehicle with the front bumper within __ of the finish line

A

6 inches

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80
Q

What hazards do warning lights on apparatus as well as flood lights pose to firefighters once the apparatus has reached an emergency scene

A

They reduce the effectiveness of the reflective trims of firefighter’s protective clothing

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81
Q

Determining the proper position for the attack pumper begins with

A

Sizing up the incident

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82
Q

If the first due apparatus arrives where no fire conditions are evident (investigation mode) it is normally advisable to park

A

Near the main entrance to the occupancy

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83
Q

You arrive at abuilding and the structure is shoeing serious signs of collapse, How far away from the building should the perimeter of your collapse zone be, if the building stands 100 feet tall

A

150 feet

84
Q

Which type of fire apparatus should be given optimum position at a working structure fire

A

Aerial apparatus

85
Q

If a building is less than 5 stories tall, engine companies should be posted

A

On the side of the street closest to the building and aerial apparatus parked on outside

86
Q

Pumpers that are providing water for elevated stream operations should be positioned

A

As close to the aerial apparatus as possible

87
Q

True/False
When performing drafting operations the strainer and hard suction should be attached to the pumper before positioning it at the water source

A

True

88
Q

All on shore connection consisting of a length of pipe equipped with a strainer that extend into a water supply source is called

A

Dry hydrant

89
Q

A properly in stalled dry hydrant should position the strainer at least __ from the bottom, the top and the edge of the water

A

2 inches

90
Q

In most jurisdictions the most common water supply source is a

A

Swimming pool/ portable pond

91
Q

When attaching a large diameter hose line on the large diameter discharge of a hydrant the smaller diameter discharge should be

A

Gated on both sides

92
Q

A good way to min kinks when connecting soft sleeve from the apparatus intake to the hydrant discharge it to

A

Put 2 full twists in the hose when making the connection between the apparatus and the hydrant

93
Q

The large intake connection on a pumper is commonly referred to as the

A

Steamer connection

Intake header

94
Q

The type of pumping operation that occurs when 2 pumper are being supplied by the same hydrant and are connected to each other via intake to intake is called

A

Dual pumping

95
Q

The first step on setting up a dual pimping operation is

A

Pumper 1 connects to a hydrant steamer connection using a large intake hose

96
Q

Tandem pumping operations are normally utilized under all the following circumstances except

A

When the attack pumper is position very far from the hydrant

97
Q

Tandem pumping operations can be performed be placing pumpers as much as ___ away

A

300 feet

98
Q

The typical bank of air cylinder in a cascade system is

A

4-12 cylinders

99
Q

How close should mobile air supply apparatus park to a fire scene

A

Close enough to the scene so that the firefighter so not have to carry their SCBA tanks an extra ordinary distance

100
Q

Generally who becomes the “staging area manger” during an emergency incident

A

The company officer of the first company to arrive at the staging area

101
Q

You and your crew have been assigned a MVC on a 4 lane interstate highway 2 cars are blocking the extreme right hand lane, which lanes should be closed in order to allow firefighters to safely work at the scene

A

The lane immediately next to the incident

102
Q

The immediate area surrounding a hazardous materials incident is called the

A

Hot zone, red zone, exclusive zone

103
Q

The warm area is commonly called any of the following except

A

Staging zone

104
Q

What do ornament stars mounted on the sides of building indicate

A

That the building has structural problems and has a high collapse potential

105
Q

What determines the flow from a solid nozzle

A

The diameter of the hose line

Size of the discharge opening

106
Q

All of the following are important to know when discussing the mechanical principles of fog streams except

A

Propulsion

107
Q

To strike or dash about or against, clashing with the sharp collision or to come together with force best describes which of the following

A

Impinge

108
Q

The line bounding around surface or the outward boundary of an object distinguishes from its internal regions best describes which of the following

A

Periphery

109
Q

A turning or state of being turned, a turning from a straight line or given course or a bending or a deviation best describes which of the following

A

Deflection

110
Q

A fog stream nozzle that drives several jets of water together at a set angle to break the water up onto finely divided particles is called

A

Impinging stream

111
Q

___ are produced by deflecting water from the periphery to an inside circular stem in a periphery-deflected fog nozzle

A

Periphery-deflected streams

112
Q

High pressure fog nozzles are best used for fighting which of the following types of fire

A

Wildland fires

113
Q

High pressure fog nozzles generally only flow

A

8-15 gpm

114
Q

Master streams normally have a flow rate of

A

300 gpm or grater

115
Q

A __ consists of a short length of large diameter hose that has a large nozzle or large playpipe supported at the discharge end by a tripod

A

Deluge set

116
Q

A __ is mounted on the fire apparatus deck and is connected directly to the pump y permanent pipe

A

Turret pipe

117
Q

What size diameter hose normally supplies ladder pipes

A

3 inches

118
Q

True/False
Ladder pipes can be controlled by firefighter at the tip of the ladder and ladder pipes can be controlled by using a rope from the ground

A

True

119
Q

True/False

Movement of ladder pipes is limited to vertical up and down movement

A

True

120
Q

According to NFPA 1901 Standard for Automotive Apparatus which of the following nozzles are required to be carried on fire department pumpers
Cellar nozzles, water curtain, piercing, chimney

A

None

121
Q

Cellar water-curtain piercing and chimney nozzle are all considered

A

Broken stream nozzles

122
Q

Piercing nozzles are capable of deviling __ of water

A

100 gpm

123
Q

According to IFSTA, tests have revealed that the practical working limits for velocity of fire stream are within __ feet per second

A

60-120

124
Q

When it comes to approximating the nozzle reaction on the fire ground of a solid stream the rule of thumb is to use the following formula

A

NR= Q/3 Q= Total flow through nozzle

125
Q

FL may be caused by all of the following conditions, however, which of the following would be considered the primary determinant affecting the amount of FL with in a hose line

A

The volume of water flowing per min

126
Q

The combination of FL + EP loss is referred to as

A

Total pressure loss

127
Q

Which of the following formulas is used to calculate hose line FL

A

FL= CQ 2L

128
Q

You are about to test 50 foot length of hose to determine FL coefficients how much hose should be laid out in order to perform an accurate test

A

300 feet

129
Q

When determining FL coefficients using in line gauges how far from the second gauge should the nozzle be placed if you are testing hose in 100 foot length

A

100 feet

130
Q

When performing FL determinations which of the following may be used to measure flow from the hose line

A

Use GPM=29.7d 2 sqr NP
Pitot tube
Flowmeter

131
Q

When the total flow in a hose in is grater than 350 gpm how much additional FL is calculated for each appliance other than master streams

A

10 psi

132
Q

How much additional FL is calculated in a hose line when it is fitted with a master appliance

A

25 psi

133
Q

Which of the following formulas can be used to determine EP

A

EP=0.5xH

EP=5psi x(number of stories -1)

134
Q

FL must be taken into account when using which of the following hose layouts

A

Single hose lines
Multiple hose lines
Wye or manifold hose lines
Siamese’s hose lines

135
Q

When 2 hose lines of equal length are siamesed to supply a working fire stream the FL is approximately ___ of that of a single hose line at the same NP

A

25 psi

136
Q

When 3 hose lines of equal length are siamesd to supply a working fire stream the FL is approximately __ of that od a single hose lien at the same NP

A

10%

137
Q

As a driver/operator how much more pressure loss must be added to your calculations involving master streams devices

A

25%

138
Q

When using a master stream as part of the total hose configuration and using hoselines of unequal lengths or diameters friction loss is calculated

A

Average pressure loss of all the lines

139
Q

Which of the following formulas is used to calculate “Pump Discharge Pressure”

A

PDP=NP+TPL

140
Q

Ensure safety and efficiency fog nozzle should be operated at a NP of

A

100 psi

141
Q

Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating ‘Net Pump Discharge Pressure’

A

NPDP=PDP-intake reading

142
Q

What is the boiling point of water

A

212F

143
Q

The amount of heat required to raise 1lb of water 1F is known as

A

BTU

144
Q

The quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it changes from a liquid to a vapor is called

A

Latent heat of vaporization

145
Q

The temp at which a liquid absorbs enough heat to change to a vapor is called it

A

Boiling point

146
Q

How many BTUs is absorbed when 1lb of water is heated to 212F

A

970

147
Q

What is the weight of 1 gallon of water at 60F

A

8.33lbs

148
Q

How many BTUs are required to raise 1lb of water at 60F to 212F

A

152

149
Q

One gallon of water at 60F will absorb __ getting to 212F

A

1266

150
Q

Once water reached a temp of 212F how many BTUs/lb are required to convert 1 gallon of water to steam

A

8080

151
Q

How many BTUs of heat can water at a temp of 60F absorbed when it is converted to steam

A

9346

152
Q

If 1 gallon of water at a temp of 60F absorbs 9346BTU of heat, hoe much heat can be absorbed if water at a temp of 60F is projected from a fog nozzle pumping at 100gpm

A

934600 BTU

153
Q

When heated to 212F water will expand approximately __ times its original volume

A

1700

154
Q

What is the specific gravity of water

A

1

155
Q

If most flammable liquids have a specific gravity less than water then the flammable liquid would have a tendency to

A

Float on top of water

156
Q

All of the following statements regarding water are true except

A

Water has high levels of opacity and reflectivity that disallows radiant heat from passing through it

157
Q

The weight of 1 cubic foot of water is approximately

A

62.5lbs

158
Q

The speed in which water travels is referred as

A

Velocity

159
Q

Which of the following statements is not true

A

The pressure of a liquid on the bottom of a vessel is dependent on the shape of the vessel

160
Q

The height of water supply above it’s discharge orifice divided by 2,304 is referred to as

A

Head pressure

161
Q

The center line of the pump of the bottom of a static water supply source above or below ground level is called

A

Elevation

162
Q

Both pressure loss and pressure gain are referred to

A

Elevation pressure

163
Q

Altitude affects the production of fire streams because

A

Atmospheric pressure drops as the height above sea level increases

164
Q

The part of the total pressure loss while forcing water through pipe, fitting, fire hose, and adapters is called which of the following

A

Friction loss

165
Q

Fire department that use old hose may increase friction loss with in the hose by as much as

A

50%

166
Q

Which of the following statements regarding friction loss is not true

A

For a given flow velocity friction loss tends to decrease regardless of the pressure on the water

167
Q

Which of the following statements is not true

A

One of the physical properties of water is that it compresses easily

168
Q

Realistically, hose larger than __ cannot be used for hand lines

A

3 inches

169
Q

One can reduce friction loss by

A

Decreasing hose length
Increase hose diameter
Eliminating sharp bends in the hose

170
Q

In order to flow more water through a hose line after its speed has reached critical velocity it is necessary to

A

Parallel hose line by using Siamese connections to increase flow and reduce over all friction loss

171
Q

The amount of water needed for fire protection in small towns is __ than the amount of water needed for industrial and domestic use

A

Greater

172
Q

Which of the following would be considered an example of ground water supply

A

Springs

173
Q

Which of the following would not be considered on of the 3 methods of moving water in a system

A

Vacuum pumping system

174
Q

Which water pumping system uses one or more pumps to take water from a primary source and discharge it through a filtration and treatment process

A

Direct pumping system

175
Q

What is a fire department’s main concern regarding water treatment facilities

A

The fear that a maintenance error, natural disaster, loss of power supply or fire could disable the pumping stations or severely hamper the purification process

176
Q

Large mains with relatively wide spread spacing that convey large quantities of eater to many locations of a system that are locally distributed to smaller main are called

A

Primary feeds

177
Q

A grid arrangement of smaller water main that serve individual fire hydrants and blocks of consumers are called

A

Distributors

178
Q

Fire hydrants supply mains in residential areas should be at lest __ in diameter

A

6 inches

179
Q

Fire hydrants supply mains in business and industrial areas should e at least __ in diameter

A

8 inches

180
Q

Water main valves should be operated __ to keep them in good working order

A

At least once a year

181
Q

Residential business an industrial district fire hydrant supply mains should be closely gridded by cross connecting mains every

A

600 feet

182
Q

The water main valve that has the words open or shut indicating the valves present position is called

A

Post indicator valve (PIV)

183
Q

Control valves in water distribution systems are

A

Gate valves or butterfly valves

184
Q

Which water main valve rotes 90 degrees from the fully opened position to tightly shut

A

Butterfly valves

185
Q

Water pipes are usually made from which of the following materials

A 
Cast iron
Ductile iron
Asbestos cement
Steel
Plastic
Concrete
186
Q

The average of the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over a period of 1 year is called

A

The average daily consumption

187
Q

The max daily consumption of water is normally approximately __ times the average daily consumption

A

1 1/2

188
Q

In firefighter elevation refers to

A

The position of the nozzle in relation to the pumping apparatus

189
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the physical characteristics of water is not true

A

The lesser the surface area of water exposed the more rapidly heat is absorbed

190
Q

Which of the following governs the heat absorbing ability of water

A

Specific heat and latent heat of vaporization

191
Q

The tendency of a liquid to possess internal resistance to flow is known as

A

Viscosity

192
Q

Friction loss may be caused by all of the following conditions however which of the following would ne considered the primary determinant affecting the amount of FL within a hose

A

The volume of water flowing per min

193
Q

Differences in pressure due to changes such as hills, aerial ladders, gullies or multi story buildings, create a pressure loss known as

A

Elevation pressure

194
Q

The combination of FL an elevation pressure loss as referred to as

A

Total pressure loss

195
Q

IFSTA and NFPA use to help approximate FL for the various types of hose in use today

A

FL coefficients

196
Q

When using a master stream as part of the total hose configuration and using hose line of unequal lengths or diameters, FL is calculated by using the

A

Average pressure loss of all the lines

197
Q

Flow meters provide the driver/operator with

A

The volume of water flow, measured in gallons per m in, going through the discharge

198
Q

T/F
Discharges 3 1/2 inches or greater can be equipped with floe meters but they must also have an accompanying pressure gauge

A

True

199
Q

Which of the following are considered types of flow meters

A

Paddle Wheel

Spring Probe

200
Q

Some apparatus are equipped with a central flow meter monitoring device that allows the driver/operator to monitor all the following

A

The amount of water left in the tank that has yet to be pumped

201
Q

Which of the following applications in which the use of a flow meter would not be helpful to a driver/operator

A

Drafting

202
Q

Over the year driver/operators have used which of the following methods for calculating FL in 2 1/2 inch hose

A

Hand method

Counting finger methods

203
Q

When using the hand method how is each base of the finger numbered

A

In terms of hundreds of gpm

204
Q

The condensed Q formula was developed for fire ground operations to determine FL from which of the following size hose

A

3,4,5 inch

205
Q

Which of the following represents the condensed Q formula for 5 inch hose

A

FL per 100ft= Q2/15

206
Q

All of the following are true regarding using the GPM flowing methods except

A

The method can be used for both metric and US

driver (5 decks)

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