Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Driver Apparatus > Driver Apparatus > Flashcards

Driver Apparatus Flashcards

1
Q

NFPA 1582 medical requires drivers to have ______?

A

20/40 with contact lenses or spectacles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

NFPA 1582 recommends rejecting any fire fighter with?

A

Hearing loss of 40 decibels or more at frequencies of 500-1000-2000 Hz in the unaided better ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

NFPA 1451

A

Standard for a Fire Service Vehicle Operations Training Program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

NFPA 1901 Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus states

A

Minimum pump capacity 750 gpm. Standard pump capacities are found in increments of 250 gpm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

NFPA 1901 specifies minimum portable equipment carried on trucks are:

A

Ground ladders, SCBA, Rescue/extrication tools and equipment, Forcible entry tools and equipment, Salvage Tools and equipment, Portable water tanks, First aid/ medical equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pumpers with elevating water devices are how tall

A

50 to 75 feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mini pumpers are?

A

Pumpers with pump capacity of no larger than 500 gpm, although some may have pumps rated up to 1000 gpm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Difference between Midipumper (Interface engines) and a Minipumper?

A

Size, pump capacity, and amount of equipment carried. Midipumpers equipped with pumps as large as 1000 gpm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Size of water tank on mobile water supply apparatus (water tenders or tankers) depends on ?

A

Terrain, Bridge weight limits, Monetary constraints, Size of other mobile water supply apparatus in the area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to NFPA 1901 mobile water supply apparatus must carry?

A

1000 gallons or more. Tank capacity of 1500 gallons or less for single rear-axle. 1500+ gallons for tandem rear axles, tri-axles, or tractor trailers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mobile supply apparatus can be used as______?

A

A nurse tender or for water shuttle operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Wild land apparatus have pump capacities of_____?

A

500 gpm or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Engine Type I

A

Pump Capacity 1000 gpm

Tank Capacity 400 Gal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Engine Type II

A

P.C. 500 gpm

T.C. 400 Gal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Engine Type III

A

P.C. 120 gpm

T.C. 500 Gal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Engine Type IV

A

P.C. 70 gpm

T.C. 750 gal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Engine Type V

A

P.C. 50 gpm

T.C. 500 gal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Engine Type VI

A

P.C. 50 gpm

T.C. 200 gal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Engine Type VII

A

P.C. 50 gpm

T.C. 125 gal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Quints are?

A

Apparatus equipped with aerial devices, ground ladders, fire pump, water tank, and fire hose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

NFPA 1901 specifies minimum pump capacity for aerial apparatus are:

A

250 gpm at 150 psi. To consider it a true quint it must have at least a 750 gpm pump.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Engine Tenders are

A

Rescue vehicles with pumps that are rated at 500 gpm or less and carry 500 gallons of water or less.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does an inverter do?

A

Converts vehicles 12 or 24 volt DC current into 110 or 220 volt AC current.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are Inverters advantages and Disadvantages?

A

Advantage: fuel efficiency and low or nonexistance noise during operation.

Disadvantage: small capacities and limited mobility from vehicle.

Provides 1500 watts or more of electric power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Portable generators have power capabilities of

A

Has a variety of power capabilities with 5000 watts of power being the largest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Vehicle mounted generators have power capabilities of:

A

Capacities up to 12,000 watts are common on pumpers.

Rescue vehicles have capacities of 50,000 watts or more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Lighting equipment divided into two catagories:

A

Portable lights range from 300 to 1,000 watts.

Fixed lights mounted to vehicles range from 500 to 1,500 watts per light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Maintenance means:

A

Keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Repair means:

A

To restore or replace that which has become inoperable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Glass care

A

Use warm soapy water or commercial glass cleaners. Don’t use dry towels or rags.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do you do a pretrip inspection?

A

Circle or walk around method. Start at drivers door and walk around in a clockwise pattern. Final step involves getting in cab, starting the apparatus, and performing a functional check on apparatus systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Inspection first starts where?

A

The left (driver’s) side of the front, or cab of vehicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does a load sequencer do?

A

Turns various lights on at specified intervals so that the startup electrical load for all of the devices does not occur at the same time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does a Load monitor do?

A

Watched the system for added electrical loads that threaten to overload the system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is load shedding?

A

When an overload condition occurs, the load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment to prevent overload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is free play?

A

The distance that the pedal must be pushed before the throw-out bearing actually contacts the clutch release fingers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is acceptable in steering wheel play?

A

No more than 10 degrees in either direction. (about 2 inches in either direction).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

NFPA 1901 braking test requires?

A

A complete stop from a speed of 20 mph in a distance not to exceed 35 feet. Parking brake to hold apparatus in place on a grade of 20 percent. Air brakes to build up pressure within 60 seconds of starting. Air horns should not work if air drops below 80 psi.

39
Q

How do you test road brakes?

A

Allow apparatus to move forward at about 5 mph and apply brakes. Apparatus should stop within about 20 feet. Air brakes can be checked the same way.

40
Q

What should your daily checks be?

A

Pump drive control, fluid level in priming oil tank, auxiliary fuel tank, all gauges and valves on pump in working order, fire pump and booster lines completely drained of water to prevent damage from freezing water, operate controls to check or inspect a fire pump, inspect water and foam tanks,, and other stuff.

41
Q

What should weekly checks be?

A

Flush pump with clear water, check and clean intake strainers, pump gear box for proper oil level and traces of water, pump primer, changeover valve , packing glands for excessive leaks, pump pressure control device, test the accuracy of the foam proportioning system.

42
Q

What percentage of fire fighter injuries and deaths are caused by vehicle collisions while responding to or returning from emergency calls?

A

20 to 25%

43
Q

The most frequent and most severe collisions occur where?

A

Intersections

44
Q

What are contributors to apparatus-related collisions?

A

poor road conditions, poor vehicle condition, and failure to obey traffic rules.

45
Q

What time of day do most collisions occur?

A

Broad daylight on dry roads.

46
Q

Collisions most likely occur during?

A

Ideal vision and road conditions

47
Q

Five basic causes of collision are:

A

Improper backing ( large percentage of collisions), reckless driving by the public, excessive speed by apparatus driver, Lack of driving skill and experience by the operator, poor apparatus design and maintenance.

48
Q

Excessive speed may lead to the following types of collisions:

A

Lose control on a curve or adverse road surface and unable to stop the apparatus in time to avoid a collision.

49
Q

Other factors that contribute to collisions that involve driver error:

A

Overconfidence in driving ability
Inability to recognize a dangerous situation
False sense of security because of a good driving record
Misunderstanding of apparatus capabilities
Lack of knowledge about how to operate the controls of the apparatus in an emergency.

50
Q

Fire apparatus drivers are subject to any:

A

stature, rule, regulation, or ordinance that governs any vehicle operator.

51
Q

Most driving regulations pertain to

A

dry, clear roads during daylight conditions.

52
Q

Drivers who don’t obey applicable driving regulations can be subject too.

A

Criminal and civil prosecution if apparatus is involved in a collision.

53
Q

Engine should be warmed up for how long before putting it into gear? (Mainly for winter locations)

A

3 to 5 minutes except for emergency responses.

54
Q

The first thing a driver needs to know is what?

A

Know where the apparatus is going.

55
Q

First step to take before starting the Vehicle is?

A

Disconnect all ground shore lines.

56
Q

If the oil pressure gauge doesn’t show pressure within _____ stop the engine immediately and have the lubricating system checked.

A

5 to 10 seconds of starting

57
Q

Overthrottling causes what?

A

excessive amount of carbon particles issuing from the exhaust (black smoke),
oil dilution,
and additional fuel consumption.

58
Q

Three exceptions to the seated and belted requirement?

A

Providing patient care in the back of an ambulance.

Loading hose back onto a fire apparatus.

Performing training for personnel learning to drive the tiller portion of a tractor drawn aerial apparatus.

59
Q

NFPA 1500 provides specific directions on how to load large diameter supply hose

A

Procedure must be contained in the SOPs of the Department.

One member must be assigned as a safety observer to the operation and be in voice communication with driver via radio.

Hose loading area closed to vehicular traffic.

Apparatus must be driven in a forward direction at a speed no greater than 5 mph.

No members allowed to stand while vehicle moving.

Members in hose bed must sit or kneel while apparatus moving.

60
Q

When backing up you should have_______?

A

At least one firefighter - and perferably two-behind the apparatus to act as spotters. One equipped with radio and positioned on the driver side approximately one vehicle length behind.

61
Q

What is visual lead time?

A

Scanning far enough ahead of apparatus, for the speed it is being driven, to ensure that evasive action can be taken if it becomes necessary.

62
Q

You should look ____ seconds ahead on city streets and ____ seconds ahead on highways and estimating where they will be in that time.

A

12 seconds for city

20 seconds for highway

63
Q

What is total stopping distance?

A

The sum of the driver’s reaction distance and the vehicles braking distance.

64
Q

What is reaction distance?

A

The distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal after perceiving the need for stopping.

65
Q

Other factors that influence a drivers ability to stop the apparatus:

A

Condition and slope of driving surface.

Speed being traveled.

Weight of the vehicle.

Type and condition of the vehicles braking system.

66
Q

Whenever a vehicle undergoes a change in speed or direction, ____ takes place relative to the rate and degree of change.

A

Weight transfer

67
Q

The most common causes of skids involve driver error:

A

Driving too fast for road conditions.

Failing to properly appreciate weight shifts of heavy apparatus.

Failing to anticipate obstacles

Improper use of auxiliary braking devices.

Improper maintenance of tire air pressure and adequate tread depth.

68
Q

How do you combat a skid when you are not equipped with ABS brakes?

A

Release brakes, allowing wheels to rotate freely and turn steering wheel so that the front wheels face in the direction of the skid.

69
Q

Dry road/ slippery road switches?

A

Reduce the air pressure on the front steering axle by 50% when the switch was in the slippery road position.

70
Q

Electromagnetic braking systems don’t engage at speeds of _____?

A

Under 2 mph.

71
Q

How far does an operating siren project?

A

300 feet at 40 mph

12 feet at 60 mph

Speeds over 50 mph may out run the siren.

72
Q

Where are audible sirens inappropriate?

A

Hospital zones or when no other traffic on the street, psychiatric emergencies.

73
Q

Two emergency vehicles are responding to a call, how far away should they be?

A

300 to 500 feet apart.

74
Q

Warning lights at night do what to firefighters protective clothing or vest?

A

Reduce the effectiveness of the reflective trim.

75
Q

Alley Dock test what?

A

Drivers ability to move the vehicle backward within a restricted area and into the alley, dock, or fire station.
Boundary area should be 40 feet wide, similar to curb to curb distance. Another simulated area 12 feet wide and 20 feet deep.

76
Q

Serpentine Course test what?

A

Simulates maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners. Markers should be between 30 and 38 feet apart.

77
Q

Confined Space Turnaround test what?

A

Drivers ability to turn vehicle 180 degrees within a confined space. Performed in an area that is at least 50 feet wide and 100 feet long.

78
Q

Diminishing Clearance test what?

A

Drivers ability to steer the apparatus in a straight line, judge distances from wheel to object, and to stop at a finish line. Arranged in two rows of stanchions that form a lane 75 feet long. the lane narrowsi from a width of 9 ft 6 inhes to a diminishing clearance of 8 ft 2 inces.

79
Q

In investigation mode where should the apparatus be positioned?

A

Stop near the best access point into the occupancy, often the main entrance.

80
Q

If a fire condition is evident where should the apparatus be positioned?

A

Look for the best tactical position in which to place the apparatus. According to SOPs, Rescue situations, Water supply.

81
Q

What is the collapse zone.

A

Collapse zone is equal to at least one and one-half times the height of the building. Apparatus should be positioned at the corners of the building.

82
Q

Indicators that a building may become unstable.

A

Bulging walls, large cracks in the exterior, falling bricks, blocks, or mortar, and interior collapses.

83
Q

Aerial apparatus should be positioned where?

A

Inside with buildings over five stories and outside with buildings less than five stories.

84
Q

In most jurisdicitons, the most common water supply source is _____?

A

A fire hydrant.

85
Q

What’s a good way to prevent kinks in the soft intake hose?

A

Put two full twists in the hose when making the connection between the hydrant and the pumper.

86
Q

What is dual pumping?

A

One strong hydrant may be used to supply two pumpers. Pumper 1 connects to hydrant steamer connection. Pumper 2 is positioned intake-to-intake with pumper 1. Pumper 2 is connected by intake hose to the unused large intake of Pumper 1. Hydrant is opened fully. Pumper 2 is supplied by the water not being used by pumper 1.

87
Q

Tandem pumping is_____?

A

The pumper directly connected to the water supply source pumps water through its discharge outlet into the intake of the second engine.

88
Q

In wildland fire fighting where should the attack begin from?

A

An anchor point.

89
Q

What are anchor points?

A

Roads, lakes, ponds, streams and previously burned areas.

90
Q

What are cascade systems?

A

Large breathing air cylinders that are connected together in banks. Range from a bank of 4 to 12 large cylinders. Air from the large cylinders are transferred to the smaller SCBA cylinders. Cascade systems have a limited duration before they themselves must be refilled.

91
Q

What are breathing air compressors?

A

Are engine-driven appliances that take in atmospheric air, purify it, and compress it. They continue to refill SCBA cylinders as long as their motors are running.

92
Q

What is Level I staging?

A

Staging applied to the intitial response to a fire or other incident involving more than one responding company. Used for any emergency response where two or more companies are dispatched.

93
Q

What is Level II Staging?

A

Used where large number of emergency vehicles are responding to the same incident.

Driver Apparatus (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions