DRILLS 1.1 Flashcards by Realyn Zambas

When trying to determine whether a person has a
psychological disorder or not, it is important to
remember that:

A. Using one model of abnormality is more efficient
and provides more accurate results

B. One of the four general criteria of abnormality
(Distress, Dysfunction, Deviance, Danger) is enough to
determine a disorder

C. Cultural differences between assessor and assessed
should be observed

D. Biomedical treatments must always be given when
doing therapy

C. Cultural differences between assessor and assessed
should be observed

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The diathesis-stress model is one of many
perspectives explaining psychopathology. Which of the
following is TRUE of this model?

A. Genetics alone are largely responsible for a person
developing a disorder

B. The larger the vulnerability, the more stressful an
event should be to trigger a disorder

C. Social factors may buffer development of a disorder
even when vulnerability is triggered

D. One major genetic variation is likely responsible for
most disorders

C. Social factors may buffer development of a disorder
even when vulnerability is triggered

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According to the biological perspective, one of the
associated conditions leading to schizophrenia in
children is when their mothers are exposed to
during pregnancy. This is:

A. Influenza
B. Rubella
C. Pollution-related stress
D. Alcohol

A. Influenza

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Which of the following DOES NOT describe the
DSM-5?

A. Is criterion-referenced when it comes to disorder
descriptions
B. Adopts a prototypical approach
C. Helps in setting the stage for treatment planning
D. Is theory based when it comes to disorder etiology

D. Is theory based when it comes to disorder etiology

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The MMPI-2 examines________
instead of__
A. Patterns of responses: Individual responses
B. Individual responses: Patterns of responses
C. Unstructured responses: Structured responses
D. Structured responses: Patterns of responses

A. Patterns of responses: Individual responses

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The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5), serves what primary
purpose in clinical assessment?

A. Providing treatment guidelines for mental health
professionals
B. Categorizing and classifying mental disorders for
diagnostic purposes
C. Providing information on appropriate developmental
patterns
D. Assessing the effectiveness of psychotherapy
techniques

B. Categorizing and classifying mental disorders for
diagnostic purposes

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Which of the following statements is TRUE?

I. When treatments are found to be statistically significant in clinical trials, clinical significance is ensured

II. Case studies provide poor external validity but high internal validity

III. The heterogeneity of participants does not matter
when research points out that treatment is significant

IV. Case studies provide an opportunity to investigate
problems that do not occur too often

A. Only II and III is TRUE
B. Only I is TRUE
C. Only IV is TRUE
D. All of the Above is TRUE

C. Only IV is TRUE

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Which of the following order makes sense in clinical
work?

A. Assessment –> treatment planning –> case
conceptualization –> diagnosis

B. Assessment –> diagnosis –> case
conceptualization –> treatment planning

C. Assessment –>case conceptualization –>
treatment planning –> diagnosis

D. Assessment –> diagnosis –> treatment planning–
> case conceptualization

B. Assessment –> diagnosis –> case
conceptualization –> treatment planning

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Ling wanted to study the effect of some intervention
on decreasing the anxiety levels of a single subject.
She wanted to teach self-management skills and to determine how effective it is as a treatment. For this,she decided to use a withdrawal design. What could you say about the scenario?

A. Using a withdrawal design is appropriate because it
provides for high external validity

B. Using a withdrawal design is inappropriate because
it is only useful for large groups

C. Using a withdrawal design is appropriate because
she is working on reducing anxiety levels

D. Using a withdrawal design is inappropriate because
she is teaching self-management skills

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Dr. Wilson is conducting an assessment of a
patient who exhibits a lack of insight into their mental health condition, making it challenging to establish an accurate diagnosis. What is the term for this lack of awareness?

A. Avolition
B. Malingering
C. Anosognosia
D. Factitious disorder

C. Anosognosia

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Which of the following is TRUE regarding cross-
cultural research on psychopathology?

A. Treatment models have the same application across
cultures
B. The same disorder might be reported differently
across different societies
C. Abnormal behavior should be consistent with the
researcher’s idea of abnormality
D. The same model of abnormality should be applied
with different people

B. The same disorder might be reported differently
across different societies

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You are most likely to observe dementia pugilistica
among which of the ff?

A. Boxers
B. Police officers
C. Heavy drinkers
D. Runners

A. Boxers

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Among those with Alzheimer’s, difficulties such as
agitation, confusion, and combativeness become_______
late in the day. This phenomenon is called_____

A. Better: Moonriser syndrome
B. Worse: Degeneration syndrome
C. Better: Cognitive buffer syndrome
D. Worse: Sundowner syndrome

D. Worse: Sundowner syndrome

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This hypothesis tells us that the more
synapses/neural connections a person develops
throughout life, the more neuronal death must take
place before the signs of dementia are obvious:

A. Cognitive reserve hypothesis
B. Cognitive buffer hypothesis
C. Cognitive practice hypothesis
D. Cognitive processing hypothesis

A. Cognitive reserve hypothesis

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Higher educational attainment serves to_
for Alzheimer’s disease:

A. Be preventive
B. Shorten the duration
C. Provide a buffer
D. Have little to no effect

C. Provide a buffer

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Which neurotransmitter is most associated with the
motor difficulties of Parkinson’s?

A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Glutamate

B. Dopamine

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Unlike dementia, people who experience delirium
have symptoms with

RAPID ONSET

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This NCD is associated with cannibalism:

A. NCD due to Prion disease
B. NCD due to Lewy Bodies
C. NCD due to Pick’s disease
D. NCD due to health issues

A. NCD due to Prion disease

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People with this disorder were once described by
Bleuler as having a “tendency to turn inward”:

A. Borderline Personality Disorder
B. Antisocial Personality Disorder
C. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
D. Schizoid Personality Disorder

D. Schizoid Personality Disorder

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Beliefs related to spirituality or religion are
common for those with:

A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
B. Schizoid Personality Disorder
C. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

C. Schizotypal Personality Disorder

People with antisocial personality disorder have_____cortical arousal and ______levels of serotonin

A. Low: Low
B. Low: High
C. High: Low
D. High: High

A. Low: Low

A combination of which childhood-related disorders
increases the risk for antisocial PD?

A. ADHD-HI and conduct disorder
B. ADHD-PI and conduct disorder
C. Oppositional defiant disorder and ADHD
D. Oppositional defiant disorder and Reactive

A. ADHD-HI and conduct disorder

The term “stably unstable” is most associated
with:

A. Antisocial personality disorder
B. Histrionic personality disorder
C. Paranoid personality disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder

D. Borderline personality disorder

A person with_________would most likely get
low scores on tests measuring ego identity:

A. Narcissistic Personality disorder
B. Histrionic Personality disorder
C. Borderline Personality disorder
D. Schizotypal Personality disorder

C. Borderline Personality disorder

25. Looking into personality disposition, those with________are at a higher risk for PTSD: A. Hostility B. Anxiety C. Needs for control D. Fantasy life

B. Anxiety

26. Developmentally, a child must be at least _ to be diagnosed with reactive attachment disorder or disinhibited social engagement disorder: A. 9 months B. 2 years old C. 1 year and 6 months D. 6 months

A. 9 months

27. EMDR is a treatment which may help for what disorder? A. Conduct disorder B. Adjustment disorder C.Reactive attachment disorder D. Post-traumatic stress disorder

D. Post-traumatic stress disorder

28. Among the following, someone with reactive attachment disorder may be MOST mistaken to have which other childhood-related disorder? A. ADHD B. Autism C. Childhood-onset schizophrenia D. Oppositional defiant disorder

B. Autism

30. Serious social neglect is _ for the diagnosis of RAD and DSED: A. Necessary but not sufficient B. Sufficient and necessary C. Sufficient but not necessary D. Neither sufficient nor necessary

A. Necessary but not sufficient

31. This term is most associated with the wear and tear experienced on biological systems due to chronic stress: A. Allostatic load B. Alloplastic load C. Anankastic load D. Allogenic load

A. Allostatic load

32. The following are implicated in the stress response which can lead to long term mental health problems EXCEPT FOR? A. Hippocampus B. Pre-frontal cortex C. Cerebellum D. Amygdala

C. Cerebellum

33. When it comes to processing and expressing the turmoil experienced as part of PTSD, girls are more likely to express___while boys are more likely to show_____ A. Shame: Aggression B. Submissiveness: Anger C. Fear: Embarrassment D. Confusion: Distractibility

A. Shame: Aggression

34. The specifier "with delayed expression" is given if the full diagnostic criteria for PTSD are not met until at least______after the event: A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 9 months D. 12 months

B. 6 months

35. People with Autism Spectrum Disorder.. A. Have deficits in social communication which is the only major defining feature of ASD B. Are always accompanied by intellectual deficits C. Have little to no capacity in forming attachments with caregivers D. May use echolalia as a first step in language acquisition

D. May use echolalia as a first step in language acquisition

36. Which of the following activities would children with ASD most likely perform best at? A. Going on a field trip B. Sally-Anne Task C. Embedded Figures Test D. Completing a Jigsaw Puzzle

C. Embedded Figures Test

37. When looking at brain imaging studies, researchers have found out that this is largely responsible for why people with ASD may have rapid shifts from one stimuli to another: A. Smaller cerebellum B. Enlarged ventricles C. Enlarged amygdala D. Reduced corpus callosum area

A. Smaller cerebellum

38. Children with Attention Deficit/ Hyperactivity Disorder.. A. Are children who experience severe intellectual deficits B. Are those who are not capable of simple tasks needed to survive C. Are children who have the same attentional capacity as others D. Are those who have no problems with distractibility and sustained attention

C. Are children who have the same attentional capacity as others

39. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. ADHD-HI is the most common presentation B. ADHD-PI are more likely to be aggressive and defiant C. ADHD-C is the presentation most referred to treatment D. When a parent has ADHD, the risk for their child having ADHD is around 30%

C. ADHD-C is the presentation most referred to treatment

40.When a child with ADHD exhibits positive bias, research tells us that: A. The child thinks more positively when it comes to stress or trauma-related events making assessment difficult B. The child constantly demonstrates aggression related behaviors but only towards those who are not his/her friends C. The child eventually becomes naturally capable of interacting in a more appropriate manner with lower impairment D. The child displays more negative behaviors and persistent social impairment

C. The child eventually becomes naturally capable of interacting in a more appropriate manner with lower impairment

41. According to research (Beauchaine, Hinshaw, 8 Pang, 2010), about 30-50% of children who have ADHD eventually develop what? A. Conduct Disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Alzheimer's Disease D. Narcissistic PD

A. Conduct Disorder

42. Which of the following clearly differentiates between Oppositional Defiant Disorder and Conduct Disorder? A. ODD has much more severe features than CD B. CD has difficulties with emotion regulation as part of its features as compared to ODD C. When a person has features of both, only ODD can be given as diagnosis D. Hurting animals and theft is common for CD rather than ODD

D. Hurting animals and theft is common for CD rather than ODD

43. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Rates of completed suicide are much higher for people with bipolar disorder than for those with recurrent depression B. People with cyclothymic disorder never become bipolar C. Rapid cycling happens when the person experiences at least two manic and depressive episodes within a year D. An accumulation of negative life experiences is needed in order to experience depression---therefore, babies can't experience depression

A. Rates of completed suicide are much higher for people with bipolar disorder than for those with recurrent depression

44. Tyrus experienced manic and depressive episodes which seemingly was "non-stop". He would often experience pure manic episodes right after depressive episodes and vice versa. This causes severe distress on his part. On top of that, he also sees and hears things which aren't even there. Tyrus might be said to have ______and when diagnosed, he should be given a specifier of_________ A. Bipolar switching: w/ schizotypal features B. Non-stop switching: w/ schizotypal features C. Chronic switching: w/ psychotic features D. Rapid switching : w/ psychotic features

D. Rapid switching : w/ psychotic features

45. Manic episodes are often a neurotransmitter imbalance of... A. Low serotonin, Low norepinephrine B. High serotonin, Low Acetylcholine C. Low serotonin, High norepinephrine D. High serotonin, High dopamine

C. Low serotonin, High norepinephrine

46. Considering the course of a disorder, which of the following is a good predictor of full recovery among those with schizophrenia? A. Those with good premorbid functioning B. Those who receive early treatment in the residual phase C. Those without concurrent substance abuse in the active phase D. Those who develop the psychotic symptoms at an early age

A. Those with good premorbid functioning

47. What research has found out about schizophrenia is that: A. The largest contributions to the disorder are environmental and socio-cultural factors B. Having two parents with schizophrenia offers a smaller risk than having one parent with schizophrenia C. Identical twins have higher concordance rates than fraternal twins

C. Identical twins have higher concordance rates than fraternal twins

48. Which of the following statements is TRUE in terms of explaining schizophrenia? A. Biological perspectives explain that schizophrenia risk is higher in children when the father has influenza virus during sex B. Psychodynamic perspectives explain that schizophrenia happens when the ego becomes overwhelmed with neurotic anxiety and tries to re- establish super ego control C. Behavioral perspectives explain that schizophrenia develops as a response to too much punishments and double blind communication D. Cognitive perspectives explain that due to biological causes, schizophrenia develops out of drawing bizarre and incorrect conclusions

D. Cognitive perspectives explain that due to biological causes, schizophrenia develops out of drawing bizarre and incorrect conclusions

49. When a person with schizophrenia has auditory hallucinations, research has shown that.... A. Their delusions are rarely congruent with their hallucinations B. Voices that they hear are misinterpretations of external sound stimuli C. The Wernicke's area responsible for understanding speech gets stimulated D. They listen to their own inner voices and cannot recognize it as theirs

D. They listen to their own inner voices and cannot recognize it as theirs

50. This was an attempt at reducing psychotic and related behaviors by using principles of operant conditioning: A. Social Therapy B. Token Economy C. Milieu Therapy D. Assertive Community

B. Token Economy