Domain 8 Flashcards
When designing an object-oriented model, which of the following situations is ideal?
a. High cohesion, high coupling
b. High cohesion, low coupling
c. Low cohesion, low coupling
d. Low cohesion, high coupling
B. Coupling is a description of the level of interaction between objects. Cohesion is the strength of the relationship between the purposes of methods within the same class. When you are developing an object-oriented model, it is desirable to have high cohesion and low coupling.
Which of the following is a common way that attackers leverage botnets?
a, Sending spam messages
b. Conducting brute-force attacks
c. Scanning for vulnerable systems
d. All of the above
D. Botnets are used for a wide variety of malicious purposes, including scanning the network for vulnerable systems, conducting brute-force attacks against other systems, and sending out spam messages.
Which one of the following statements is not true about code review?
a. Code review should be a peer-driven process that includes multiple developers.
b. Code review may be automated.
c. Code review occurs during the design phase.
d. Code reviewers may expect to review several hundred lines of code per hour.
C. Code review takes place after code has been developed, which occurs after the design phase of the system’s development life cycle (SDLC). Code review may use a combination of manual and automated techniques, or rely solely on one or the other. It should be a peer-driven process that includes developers who did not write the code. Developers should expect to complete the review of around 300 lines per hour, on average.
Harold’s company has a strong password policy that requires a minimum length of 12 characters and the use of both alphanumeric characters and symbols. What technique would be the most effective way for an attacker to compromise passwords in Harold’s organization?
a. Brute-force attack
b. Dictionary attack
c. Rainbow table attack
d. Social engineering attack
D. A social engineering attack may trick a user into revealing their password to the attacker. Other attacks that depend on guessing passwords, such as brute-force attacks, rainbow table attacks, and dictionary attacks, are unlikely to be successful in light of the organization’s strong password policy.
Which process is responsible for ensuring that changes to software include acceptance testing?
a. Request control
b. Change control
c. Release control
d. Configuration control
C. One of the responsibilities of the release control process is ensuring that the process includes acceptance testing that confirms that any alterations to end-user work tasks are understood and functional prior to code release. The request control, change control, and configuration control processes do not include acceptance testing.
Which one of the following attack types attempts to exploit the trust relationship that a user’s browser has with other websites by forcing the submission of an authenticated request to a third-party site?
a. XSS
b. CSRF
c. SQL injection
d. Session hijacking
B. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF or CSRF) attacks exploit the trust that sites have in a user’s browser by attempting to force the submission of authenticated requests to third-party sites. Session hijacking attacks attempt to steal previously authenticated sessions but do not force the browser to submit requests. SQL injection directly attacks a database through a web application. Cross-site scripting uses reflected input to trick a user’s browser into executing untrusted code from a trusted site.
When using the SDLC, which one of these steps should you take before the others?
a. Functional requirements determination
b. Control specifications development
c. Code review
d. Design review
A. The SDLC consists of seven phases, in the following order: conceptual definition, functional requirements determination, control specifications development, design review, code review, system test review, and maintenance and change management.
Jaime is a technical support analyst and is asked to visit a user whose computer is displaying the error message shown here. What state has this computer entered?
a. Fail open
b. Irrecoverable error
c. Memory exhaustion
d. Fail secure
D. The error message shown in the figure is the infamous “Blue Screen of Death” that occurs when a Windows system experiences a dangerous failure and enters a fail secure state. If the system had “failed open,” it would have continued operation. The error described is a memory fault that is likely recoverable by rebooting the system. There is no indication that the system has run out of usable memory.
Which one of the following is not a goal of software threat modeling?
a. To reduce the number of security-related design flaws
b. To reduce the number of security-related coding flaws
c. To reduce the severity of non-security-related flaws
d. To reduce the number of threat vectors
D. Software threat modeling is designed to reduce the number of security-related design and coding flaws as well as the severity of other flaws. The developer or evaluator of software has no control over the threat environment, because it is external to the organization.
In the diagram shown here, which is an example of a method?
a. Account
b. Owner
c. AddFunds
d. None of the above
C. In the diagram, Account is the name of the class. Owner and Balance are attributes of that class. AddFunds and RemoveFunds are methods of the class.
Which one of the following is considered primary storage?
a. Memory
b. Hard disk
c. Flash drive
d. DVD
A. Primary storage is a technical term used to refer to the memory that is directly available to the CPU. Nonvolatile storage mechanisms, such as flash drives, DVDs, and hard drives, are classified as secondary storage.
Which one of the following testing methodologies typically works without access to source code?
a. Dynamic testing
b. Static testing
c. White box testing
d. Code review
A. Dynamic testing of software typically occurs in a black box environment where the tester does not have access to the source code. Static testing, white box testing, and code review approaches all require access to the source code of the application.
B. Inheritance occurs when a subclass (or child class) is able to use methods belonging to a superclass (or parent class). Polymorphism occurs when different subclasses may have different methods using the same interfaces that respond differently. Coupling is a description of the level of interaction between objects. Cohesion is the strength of the relationship between the purposes of methods within the same class. B. Inheritance occurs when a subclass (or child class) is able to use methods belonging to a superclass (or parent class). Polymorphism occurs when different subclasses may have different methods using the same interfaces that respond differently. Coupling is a description of the level of interaction between objects. Cohesion is the strength of the relationship between the purposes of methods within the same class.What concept in object-oriented programming allows a subclass to access methods belonging to a superclass?
a. Polymorphism
b. Inheritance
c. Coupling
d. Cohesion
B. Inheritance occurs when a subclass (or child class) is able to use methods belonging to a superclass (or parent class). Polymorphism occurs when different subclasses may have different methods using the same interfaces that respond differently. Coupling is a description of the level of interaction between objects. Cohesion is the strength of the relationship between the purposes of methods within the same class.
Bobby is investigating how an authorized database user is gaining access to information outside his normal clearance level. Bobby believes that the user is making use of a type of function that summarizes data. What term describes this type of function?
a. Inference
b. Polymorphic
c. Aggregate
d. Modular
C. Aggregate functions summarize large amounts of data and provide only summary information as a result. When carefully crafted, aggregate functions may unintentionally reveal sensitive information.
Which one of the following controls would best protect an application against buffer overflow attacks?
a. Encryption
b. Input validation
c. Firewall
d. Intrusion prevention system
B. The best protection against buffer overflow attacks is server-side input validation. This technique limits user input to approved ranges of values that fit within allocated buffers. While firewalls and intrusion prevention systems may contain controls that limit buffer overflows, it would be more effective to perform filtering on the application server. Encryption cannot protect against buffer overflow attacks.
Berta is analyzing the logs of the Windows Firewall on one of her servers and comes across the entries shown in this figure. What type of attack do these entries indicate?
a. SQL injection
b. Port scan
c. Teardrop
d. Land
B. The log entries show the characteristic pattern of a port scan. The attacking system sends connection attempts to the target system against a series of commonly used ports
Questions 17–20 refer to the following scenario:
Robert is a consultant who helps organizations create and develop mature software development practices. He prefers to use the Software Capability Maturity Model (SW-CMM) to evaluate the current and future status of organizations using both independent review and self-assessments. He is currently working with two different clients.
Acme Widgets is not very well organized with their software development practices. They have a dedicated team of developers who do “whatever it takes” to get software out the door, but they do not have any formal processes.
Beta Particles is a company with years of experience developing software using formal, documented software development processes. They use a standard model for software development but do not have quantitative management of those processes.
What phase of the SW-CMM should Robert report as the current status of Acme Widgets?
a. Defined
b. Repeatable
c. Initial
d. Managed
C. Acme Widgets is clearly in the initial stage of the SW-CMM. This stage is characterized by the absence of formal process. The company may still produce working code, but they do so in a disorganized fashion.
Questions 17–20 refer to the following scenario:
Robert is a consultant who helps organizations create and develop mature software development practices. He prefers to use the Software Capability Maturity Model (SW-CMM) to evaluate the current and future status of organizations using both independent review and self-assessments. He is currently working with two different clients.
Acme Widgets is not very well organized with their software development practices. They have a dedicated team of developers who do “whatever it takes” to get software out the door, but they do not have any formal processes.
Beta Particles is a company with years of experience developing software using formal, documented software development processes. They use a standard model for software development but do not have quantitative management of those processes.
Robert is working with Acme Widgets on a strategy to advance their software development practices. What SW-CMM stage should be their next target milestone?
a. Defined
b. Repeatable
c. Initial
d. Managed
B. The Repeatable stage is the second stage in the SW-CMM, following the Initial stage. It should be the next milestone goal for Acme Widgets. The Repeatable stage is characterized by basic life-cycle management processes.
Questions 17–20 refer to the following scenario:
Robert is a consultant who helps organizations create and develop mature software development practices. He prefers to use the Software Capability Maturity Model (SW-CMM) to evaluate the current and future status of organizations using both independent review and self-assessments. He is currently working with two different clients.
Acme Widgets is not very well organized with their software development practices. They have a dedicated team of developers who do “whatever it takes” to get software out the door, but they do not have any formal processes.
Beta Particles is a company with years of experience developing software using formal, documented software development processes. They use a standard model for software development but do not have quantitative management of those processes.
What phase of the SW-CMM should Robert report as the current status of Beta Particles?
a. Defined
b. Repeatable
c. Optimizing
d. Managed
A. The Defined stage of the SW-CMM is marked by the presence of basic life-cycle management processes and reuse of code. It includes the use of requirements management, software project planning, quality assurance, and configuration management practices.
Questions 17–20 refer to the following scenario:
Robert is a consultant who helps organizations create and develop mature software development practices. He prefers to use the Software Capability Maturity Model (SW-CMM) to evaluate the current and future status of organizations using both independent review and self-assessments. He is currently working with two different clients.
Acme Widgets is not very well organized with their software development practices. They have a dedicated team of developers who do “whatever it takes” to get software out the door, but they do not have any formal processes.
Beta Particles is a company with years of experience developing software using formal, documented software development processes. They use a standard model for software development but do not have quantitative management of those processes.
Robert is also working with Beta Particles on a strategy to advance their software development practices. What SW-CMM stage should be their next target milestone?
a. Defined
b. Repeatable
c. Optimizing
d. Managed
D. The Managed stage is the fourth stage in the SW-CMM, following the Defined stage. It should be the next milestone goal for Beta Particles. The Repeatable stage is characterized by the use of quantitative software development measures.
Which one of the following database keys is used to enforce referential integrity relationships between tables?
a. Primary key
b. Candidate key
c. Foreign key
d. Master key
C. Referential integrity ensures that records exist in a secondary table when they are referenced with a foreign key from another table. Foreign keys are the mechanism used to enforce referential integrity.
Which one of the following files is most likely to contain a macro virus?
a. projections.doc
b. command.com
c. command.exe
d. loopmaster.exe
A. Macro viruses are most commonly found in office productivity documents, such as Microsoft Word documents that end in the .doc or .docxextension. They are not commonly found in executable files with the .com or .exe extensions.
Victor created a database table that contains information on his organization’s employees. The table contains the employee’s user ID, three different telephone number fields (home, work, and mobile), the employee’s office location, and the employee’s job title. There are 16 records in the table. What is the degree of this table?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 16
C. The degree of a database table is the number of attributes in the table. Victor’s table has six attributes: the employee’s user ID, home telephone, office telephone, mobile telephone, office location, and job title.
Carrie is analyzing the application logs for her web-based application and comes across the following string:
../../../../../../../../../etc/passwd
What type of attack was likely attempted against Carrie’s application?
a. Command injection
b. Session hijacking
c. Directory traversal
d. Brute force
C. The string shown in the logs is characteristic of a directory traversal attack where the attacker attempts to force the web application to navigate up the file hierarchy and retrieve a file that should not normally be provided to a web user, such as the password file. The series of “double dots” is indicative of a directory traversal attack because it is the character string used to reference the directory one level up in a hierarchy.
When should a design review take place when following an SDLC approach to software development?
a. After the code review
b. After user acceptance testing
c. After the development of functional requirements
d. After the completion of unit testing
C. Design reviews should take place after the development of functional and control specifications but before the creation of code. The code review, unit testing, and functional testing all take place after the creation of code and, therefore, after the design review.
Tracy is preparing to apply a patch to her organization’s enterprise resource planning system. She is concerned that the patch may introduce flaws that did not exist in prior versions, so she plans to conduct a test that will compare previous responses to input with those produced by the newly patched application. What type of testing is Tracy planning?
a. Unit testing
b. Acceptance testing
c. Regression testing
d. Vulnerability testing
C. Regression testing is software testing that runs a set of known inputs against an application and then compares the results to those produced by an earlier version of the software. It is designed to capture unanticipated consequences of deploying new code versions prior to introducing them into a production environment.
What term is used to describe the level of confidence that software is free from vulnerabilities, either intentionally designed into the software or accidentally inserted at any time during its life cycle, and that the software functions in the intended manner?
a. Validation
b. Accreditation
c. Confidence interval
d. Assurance
D. Assurance, when it comes to software, is the level of confidence that software is free from vulnerabilities, either intentionally designed into the software or accidentally inserted at any time during its life cycle, and that the software functions in the intended manner. It is a term typically used in military and defense environments.
Victor recently took a new position at an online dating website and is responsible for leading a team of developers. He realized quickly that the developers are having issues with production code because they are working on different projects that result in conflicting modifications to the production code. What process should Victor invest in improving?
a. Request control
b. Release control
c. Change control
d. Configuration control
C. The change control process is responsible for providing an organized framework within which multiple developers can create and test a solution prior to rolling it out in a production environment. Request control provides a framework for user requests. Release control manages the deployment of code into production. Configuration control ensures that changes to software versions are made in accordance with the change and configuration management policies.
What type of database security issue exists when a collection of facts has a higher classification than the classification of any of those facts standing alone?
a. Inference
b. SQL injection
c. Multilevel security
d. Aggregation
D. Aggregation is a security issue that arises when a collection of facts has a higher classification than the classification of any of those facts standing alone. An inference problem occurs when an attacker can pull together pieces of less sensitive information and use them to derive information of greater sensitivity. SQL injection is a web application exploit. Multilevel security is a system control that allows the simultaneous processing of information at different classification levels.
What are the two types of covert channels that are commonly exploited by attackers seeking to surreptitiously exfiltrate information?
a. Timing and storage
b. Timing and firewall
c. Storage and memory
d. Firewall and storage
A. The two major classifications of covert channels are timing and storage. A covert timing channel conveys information by altering the performance of a system component or modifying a resource’s timing in a predictable manner. A covert storage channel conveys information by writing data to a common storage area where another process can read it. There is no such thing as a covert firewall channel. Memory is a type of storage, so a memory-based covert channel would fit into the covert storage channel category.
Vivian would like to hire a software tester to come in and evaluate a new web application from a user’s perspective. Which of the following tests best simulates that perspective?
a. Black box
b. Gray box
c. Blue box
d. White box
A. Black box testing begins with no prior knowledge of the system implementation, simulating a user perspective. White box and gray box testing provide full and partial knowledge of the system, respectively, in advance of the test. Blue boxes are a phone hacking tool and are not used in software testing.
Referring to the database transaction shown here, what would happen if no account exists in the Accounts table with account number 1001?
a. The database would create a new account with this account number and give it a $250 balance.
b. The database would ignore that command and still reduce the balance of the second account by $250.
c. The database would roll back the transaction, ignoring the results of both commands.
d. The database would generate an error message.
B. In this example, the two SQL commands are indeed bundled in a transaction, but it is not an error to issue an update command that does not match any rows. Therefore, the first command would “succeed” in updating zero rows and not generate an error or cause the transaction to rollback. The second command would then execute, reducing the balance of the second account by $250.
What type of malware is characterized by spreading from system to system under its own power by exploiting vulnerabilities that do not require user intervention?
a. Trojan horse
b. Virus
c. Logic bomb
d. Worm
D. Worms have built-in propagation mechanisms that do not require user interaction, such as scanning for systems containing known vulnerabilities and then exploiting those vulnerabilities to gain access. Viruses and Trojan horses typically require user interaction to spread. Logic bombs do not spread from system to system but lie in wait until certain conditions are met, triggering the delivery of their payload.
Kim is troubleshooting an application firewall that serves as a supplement to the organization’s network and host firewalls and intrusion prevention system, providing added protection against web-based attacks. The issue the organization is experiencing is that the firewall technology suffers somewhat frequent restarts that render it unavailable for 10 minutes at a time. What configuration might Kim consider to maintain availability during that period at the lowest cost to the company?
a. High availability cluster
b. Failover device
c. Fail open
d. Redundant disks
C. A fail open configuration may be appropriate in this case. In this configuration, the firewall would continue to pass traffic without inspection while it is restarting. This would minimize downtime, and the traffic would still be protected by the other security controls described in the scenario. Failover devices and high availability clusters would indeed increase availability, but at potentially significant expense. Redundant disks would not help in this scenario because no disk failure is described.
What type of security issue arises when an attacker can deduce a more sensitive piece of information by analyzing several pieces of information classified at a lower level?
a. SQL injection
b. Multilevel security
c. Aggregation
d. Inference
D. An inference problem occurs when an attacker can pull together pieces of less sensitive information and use them to derive information of greater sensitivity. Aggregation is a security issue that arises when a collection of facts has a higher classification than the classification of any of those facts standing alone. SQL injection is a web application exploit. Multilevel security is a system control that allows the simultaneous processing of information at different classification levels.
Greg is battling a malware outbreak in his organization. He used specialized malware analysis tools to capture samples of the malware from three different systems and noticed that the code is changing slightly from infection to infection. Greg believes that this is the reason that antivirus software is having a tough time defeating the outbreak. What type of malware should Greg suspect is responsible for this security incident?
a. Stealth virus
b. Polymorphic virus
c. Multipartite virus
d. Encrypted virus
B. Polymorphic viruses mutate each time they infect a system by making adjustments to their code that assists them in evading signature detection mechanisms. Encrypted viruses also mutate from infection to infection but do so by encrypting themselves with different keys on each device.
Questions 37–40 refer to the following scenario:
Linda is reviewing posts to a user forum on her company’s website and, when she browses a certain post, a message pops up in a dialog box on her screen reading “Alert.” She reviews the source code for the post and finds the following code snippet:
alert(‘Alert’);
What vulnerability definitely exists on Linda’s message board?
a. Cross-site scripting
b. Cross-site request forgery
c. SQL injection
d. Improper authentication
A. The message forum is clearly susceptible to a cross-site scripting (XSS) attack. The code that Linda discovered in the message is a definitive example of an attempt to conduct cross-site scripting, and the alert box that she received demonstrates that the vulnerability exists. The website may also be vulnerable to cross-site request forgery, SQL injection, improper authentication, and other attacks, but there is no evidence of this provided in the scenario.
Questions 37–40 refer to the following scenario:
Linda is reviewing posts to a user forum on her company’s website and, when she browses a certain post, a message pops up in a dialog box on her screen reading “Alert.” She reviews the source code for the post and finds the following code snippet:
alert(‘Alert’);
What was the likely motivation of the user who posted the message on the forum containing this code?
a. Reconnaissance
b. Theft of sensitive information
c. Credential stealing
d. Social engineering
A. The script that Linda discovered merely pops up a message on a user’s screen and does not perform any more malicious action. This type of script, using an alert() call, is commonly used to probe websites for cross-site scripting vulnerabilities.
Questions 37–40 refer to the following scenario:
Linda is reviewing posts to a user forum on her company’s website and, when she browses a certain post, a message pops up in a dialog box on her screen reading “Alert.” She reviews the source code for the post and finds the following code snippet:
alert(‘Alert’);
Linda communicates with the vendor and determines that no patch is available to correct this vulnerability. Which one of the following devices would best help her defend the application against further attack?
a. VPN
b. WAF
c. DLP
d. IDS
B. Web application firewalls (WAFs) sit in front of web applications and watch for potentially malicious web attacks, including cross-site scripting. They then block that traffic from reaching the web application. An intrusion detection system (IDS) may detect the attack but is unable to take action to prevent it. DLP and VPN solutions are unable to detect web application attacks.
Questions 37–40 refer to the following scenario:
Linda is reviewing posts to a user forum on her company’s website and, when she browses a certain post, a message pops up in a dialog box on her screen reading “Alert.” She reviews the source code for the post and finds the following code snippet:
alert(‘Alert’);
In further discussions with the vendor, Linda finds that they are willing to correct the issue but do not know how to update their software. What technique would be most effective in mitigating the vulnerability of the application to this type of attack?
a. Bounds checking
b. Peer review
c. Input validation
d. OS patching
C. Input validation verifies that user-supplied input does not violate security conditions and is the most effective defense against cross-site scripting attacks. Bounds checking is a form of input validation, but it is used to ensure that numeric input falls within an acceptable range and is not applicable against cross-site scripting attacks. Peer review and OS patching are both good security practices but are unlikely to be effective against a cross-site scripting attack.
What type of project management tool is shown in the figure?
a. WBS chart
b. PERT chart
c. Gantt chart
d. Wireframe diagram
B. PERT charts use nodes to represent milestones or deliverables and then show the estimated time to move between milestones. Gantt charts use a different format with a row for each task and lines showing the expected duration of the task. Work breakdown structures are an earlier deliverable that divides project work into achievable tasks. Wireframe diagrams are used in web design.
In the transaction shown here, what would happen if the database failed in between the first and second update statement?
a. The database would credit the first account with $250 in funds but then not reduce the balance of the second account.
b. The database would ignore the first command and only reduce the balance of the second account by $250.
c. The database would roll back the transaction, ignoring the results of both commands.
d. The database would successfully execute both commands.
C. A database failure in the middle of a transaction causes the rollback of the entire transaction. In this scenario, the database would not execute either command.
In the diagram shown here, which is an example of an attribute?
a. Account
b. Owner
c. AddFunds
d. None of the above
B. In the diagram, Account is the name of the class. Owner and Balance are attributes of that class. AddFunds and RemoveFunds are methods of the class.
David is working on developing a project schedule for a software development effort, and he comes across the chart shown here. What type of chart is this?
a. Work breakdown structure
b. Functional requirements
c. PERT chart
d. Gantt chart
D. The chart shown in the figure is a Gantt chart, showing the proposed start and end dates for different activities. It is developed based on the work breakdown structure (WBS), which is developed based on functional requirements. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT) charts show the project schedule as a series of numbered nodes.
In the diagram shown here, which is an example of a class?
a. Account
b. Owner
c. AddFunds
d. None of the above
A. In the diagram, Account is the name of the class. Owner and Balance are attributes of that class. AddFunds and RemoveFunds are methods of the class.
What software development model is shown in the figure?
Image reprinted from CISSP (ISC)2 Certified Information Systems Security Professional Official Study Guide, 7th Edition © John Wiley & Sons 2015, reprinted with permission.
a. Waterfall
b. Agile
c. Lean
d. Spiral
D. The illustration shows the spiral model of software development. In this approach, developers use multiple iterations of a waterfall-style software development process. This becomes a “loop” of iterations through similar processes. The waterfall approach does not iterate through the entire process repeatedly but rather only allows movement backward and forward one stage. The agile approach to software development focuses on iterative improvement and does not follow a rigorous SDLC model. Lean is a process improvement methodology and not a software development model.
TJ is inspecting a system where the user reported a strange error message and the inability to access files. He sees the window shown in this figure. What type of malware should TJ suspect?
a. Service injection
b. Encrypted virus
c. SQL injection
d. Ransomware
D. Messages similar to the one shown in the figure are indicative of a ransomware attack. The attacker encrypts files on a user’s hard drive and then demands a ransom, normally paid in Bitcoin, for the decryption key required to restore access to the original content. Encrypted viruses, on the other hand, use encryption to hide themselves from antivirus mechanisms and do not alter other contents on the system.
What approach to technology management integrates the three components of technology management shown in this illustration?
Image reprinted from CISSP (ISC)2 Certified Information Systems Security Professional Official Study Guide, 7th Edition © John Wiley & Sons 2015, reprinted with permission.
a. Agile
b. Lean
c. DevOps
d. ITIL
C. The DevOps approach to technology management seeks to integrate software development, operations, and quality assurance in a seamless approach that builds collaboration between the three disciplines.
