Domain 6 Flash Cards

1
Q

Attack surface

A

Different security testing methods find different vulnerability types.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Artifact

A

piece of evidence such as text, or a reference to a resource which is submitted in response to a question

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Assessment

A

testing or evaluation of controls to understand which are implemented correctly, operating as intended and producing the desired outcome in meeting the security or privacy requirements of a system or org

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Audit

A

process of reviewing a system for compliance against a standard or baseline (e.g. audit of security controls, baselines, financial records) can be formal and independent, or informal/internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Black box testing

A

Testing where no internal details of the system implementation are used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Condition coverage

A

This criteria requires sufficient test cases for each condition in a program decision to take on all possible outcomes at least once. It differs from branch coverage only when multiple conditions must be evaluated to reach a decision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Covert security testing

A

Performed to simulate the threats that are associated with external adversaries. While the security staff has no knowledge of the covert test, the organization management is fully aware and consents to the test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chaos Engineering

A

discipline of experiments on a software system in production to build confidence in the system’s capabilities to withstand turbulent/unexpected conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Code testing suite

A

usually used to validate function, statement, branch and condition coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Compliance Calendar

A

tracks an org’s audits, assessments, required filings, due dates and related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Compliance Tests

A

an evaluation that determines if an org’s controls are being applied according to management policies and procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Data flow coverage

A

This criteria requires sufficient test cases for each feasible data flow to be executed at least once.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Decision (Branch) coverage

A

Considered to be a minimum level of coverage for most software products, but decision coverage alone is insufficient for high-integrity applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dynamic testing

A

When the system under test is executed and its behavior is observed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ethical Penetration Testing/Penetration Testing

A

security testing and assessment where testers actively attempt to circumvent/defaut a system’s security features; typically constrained by contracts to stay within specified Rules of Engagement (RoE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Examination

A

process of reviewing/inspecting/observing/studying/analyzing specs/mechanisms/activities to understand, clarify, or obtain evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Findings

A

results created by the application of an assessment procedure

18
Q

Functional order of controls

A

deter, deny, detect, delay, deterimine, and decide

19
Q

IAM system

A

identity and access management system combines lifecycle management and monitoring tools to ensure that identity and authorization are properly handled throughout an org

20
Q

ITSM

A

IT Service Management tools include change management and associated approval tracking

21
Q

Judgement Sampling

A

AKA purposive or authoritative sampling, a non-probability sampling technique where members are chosen only on the basis of the researcher’s knowledge and judgement

22
Q

Loop coverage

A

This criteria requires sufficient test cases for all program loops to be executed for zero, one, two, and many iterations covering initialization, typical running, and termination (boundary) conditions.

23
Q

Misuse case

A

A Use Case from the point of view of an Actor hostile to the system under design. Attempting to lead to integrity failures, malfunctions, or other security or safety compromises

24
Q

Multi condition coverage

A

This criteria requires sufficient test cases to exercise all possible combinations of conditions in a program decision.

25
Q

Mutation testing

A

mutation testing modifies a program in small ways and then tests that mutant to determine if it behaves as it should or if it fails; technique is used to design and test software through mutation

26
Q

Negative testing

A

Ensures the application can gracefully handle invalid input or unexpected user behavior.

27
Q

Overt security testing

A

Overt testing can be used with both internal and external testing. When used from an internal perspective, the bad actor simulated is an employee of the organization.

28
Q

Path coverage

A

This criteria requires sufficient test cases for each feasible path, basis path, etc., from start to exit of a defined program segment, to be executed at least once.

29
Q

Positive testing

A

Determines that your application works as expected.

30
Q

Plan of Action and Milestones (POA&M)

A

a document identifying tasks to be accomplished, including details, resources, milestones, and completion target dates

31
Q

Real user monitoring (RUM)

A

An approach to web monitoring that aims to capture and analyze every transaction of every user of a website or application. Passive monitoring technique that records user interation with an app or system to ensure performance and proper app behavior; often used as a predeploymment process using the actual user interface

32
Q

RoE Rules of Engagement

A

set of rules/constraints/boundaries that establish limits of participant activity; in ethical pen testing, an RoE defines the scope of testing, and to establish liability limits for both testers and the sponsoring org or system owners

33
Q

Statement coverage

A

This criterion requires sufficient test cases for each program statement to be executed at least once; however, its achievement is insufficient to provide confidence in a software product’s behavior.

34
Q

Static source code analysis
(SAST)

A

Analysis of the application source code for finding vulnerabilities without executing the application.

35
Q

Synthetic performance
monitoring

A

Involves having external agents run scripted transactions against a web application.

36
Q

SCF Script Check Engine

A

is designed to make scripts interoperable with security policy definitions

37
Q

Statistical Sampling

A

process of selecting subsets of examples from a population with the objective of estimating properties of the total population

38
Q

Substantive Test

A

testing technique used by an auditor to obtain the audit evidence in order to support the auditor’s opinion

39
Q

Threat modeling

A

A process by which developers can understand security threats to a system, determine risks from those threats, and establish appropriate mitigations. Threat modeling
Change management
Configuration management

40
Q

Testing

A

process of exercising one or more assessment objects (activities or mechanisms) under specified conditions to compare actual to expected behavior

41
Q

Trust Services Criteria (TSC)

A

used by an auditor when evaluating the suitability of the design and operating effectiveness of controls relevant to the security, availabiliity, or processing integrity of information and systems or the confidentiality or privacy of the info processed by the entity