Domain 5 Notes Flashcards

1
Q

Process ownership assignment does not have a feature to

A

track the completion percentage of deliverables.

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2
Q

Whether the design cost of test cases will be optimized is not determined from

A

the assignment of process ownership. It may help to some extent; however, there are many other factors involved in the design of test cases.

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3
Q

For gap minimization, a specific requirements analysis framework should be in place and then applied; however, a gap may be found between the design and the as-built system that could lead to

A

system functionality not meeting requirements. This will be identified during user acceptance testing (UAT). Process ownership alone does not have the capability to minimize requirement gaps.

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4
Q

The involvement of process owners will ensure

A

that the system will be designed according to the needs of the business processes that depend on system functionality.

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5
Q

A sign-off on the design by the process owners is crucial before

A

development begins.

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6
Q

To ensure proper segregation of duties, developers should

A

be restricted to the development environment only

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7
Q

If code needs to be modified after user acceptance testing (UAT),

A

the process must be restarted in development.

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8
Q

While security controls should be a requirement for any application, the primary focus of the enterprise architecture (EA) is

A

to ensure that new applications are consistent with enterprise standards.

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9
Q

When selecting an application, the business requirements as well as the suitability of the application for the IT environment

A

must be considered.

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10
Q

If the business units selected their application without IT involvement, they would be more likely to choose a solution that

A

fit their business process the best with less emphasis on how compatible and supportable the solution would be in the enterprise, and this would not be a concern.

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11
Q

The primary focus of the EA is to ensure that technology investments are

A

consistent with the platform, data and development standards of the IT organization.

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12
Q

The EA defines both a current and future state in areas such as

A

the use of standard platforms, databases or programming languages.

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13
Q

If a business unit selected an application using a database or operating system (OS) that is not part of the EA for the business, this would

A

increase the cost and complexity of the solution and ultimately deliver less value to the business.

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14
Q

While any new software implementation may create support issues, the primary benefit of the EA is

A

ensuring that the IT solutions deliver value to the business.

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15
Q

Decreased support costs may be a benefit of the EA, but the lack of IT involvement

A

would not affect the support requirements.

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16
Q

Directive controls, such as IT policies and procedures, would not apply in a case

A

of automated control.

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17
Q

Corrective controls are designed to

A

correct errors, omissions and unauthorized uses and intrusions, when they are detected

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18
Q

Corrective controls provide

A

a mechanism to detect when malicious events have happened and correct the situation.

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19
Q

A compensating control is used

A

where other controls are not sufficient to protect the system.

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20
Q

A corrective control in place, like ab antivirus system which automatically determines if the latest signatures files are up to date, will

A

will effectively protect the system from access via an unpatched device.

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21
Q

Detective controls exist to

A

detect and report when errors, omissions and unauthorized uses or entries occur

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22
Q

Although missing a component of a release is indicative of a process deficiency, it is of more concern that the missed change

A

was promoted into the production environment without management approval.

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23
Q

Management approval of changes mitigates

A

the risk of unauthorized changes being introduced to the production environment.

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24
Q

Unauthorized changes might result in

A

disruption of systems or fraud.

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25
Q

It is imperative to ensure that

A

each change has appropriate management approval.

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26
Q

Most release/change control errors are discovered

A

during postimplementation review.

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27
Q

It is of greater concern that the change was promoted

A

without management approval after it was discovered.

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28
Q

Using the same change order number is not a relevant

A

concern.

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29
Q

A host-based intrusion prevention system (IPS) prevents unauthorized changes to the host. If a malware attack attempted to install a rootkit,

A

the IPS would refuse to permit the installation without the consent of an administrator.

30
Q

A network-based intrusion detection system (IDS) relies on attack signatures based on known exploits and attack patterns. If the IDS is not kept up to date with the latest signatures, or the attacker is able to create or gain access to an exploit unknown to the IDS,

A

it will go undetected.

31
Q

A web server exploit performed through the web application itself, such as a structured query language (SQL) injection attack, would

A

not appear to be an attack to the network-based IDS.

32
Q

A firewall by itself does not protect a web server because the ports required for users to access the web server must be open in the firewall. Web server attacks are typically performed over the same ports that are open for normal web traffic. Therefore,

A

a firewall does not protect the web server.

33
Q

Operating system (OS) patching will make exploitation of the server more difficult for the attacker and less likely. However, attacks on the web application and server OS may succeed based on issues unrelated to any unpatched server vulnerabilities, and the host-based IPS should

A

detect any attempts to change files on the server, regardless of how access was obtained.

34
Q

While an intrusion detection system (IDS) can be installed on the local network to ensure that systems are not subject to internal attacks, a company’s public web server would not normally be installed on the local network, but rather in

A

the demilitarized zone (DMZ).

35
Q

It is not unusual to place a network IDS outside of the firewall just to watch the traffic that is reaching the firewall, but this would

A

not be used to specifically protect the web application.

36
Q

Network-based IDSs detect attack attempts by monitoring network traffic. A public web server is typically placed on the protected network segment known as the demilitarized zone (DMZ). An IDS installed in the DMZ detects and reports on malicious activity originating from the Internet as well as the internal network, thus allowing

A

the administrator to take action.

37
Q

A host-based IDS would be installed on the web server, but a network-based IDS

A

would not.

38
Q

Although a hot site enables a business to meets its recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO), the cost to maintain a hot site is more than the cost to maintain a warm site, which

A

could also meet the objectives.

39
Q

A cold site, although providing basic infrastructure, lacks the

A

required hardware to meet the business objectives.

40
Q

A mirrored site provides fully redundant facilities with real-time data replication. It can meet the business objectives, but it is not

A

as cost-effective a solution as a warm site.

41
Q

A warm site is the most appropriate solution because it provides basic infrastructure and most of the required IT equipment to affordably meet the business requirements. The remainder of the equipment needed can be provided through vendor agreements within a few days.

A

A warm site is the most appropriate solution because The RTO is the amount of time allowed for the recovery of a business function or resource after a disaster occurs. The RPO is determined based on the acceptable data loss in case of a disruption of operations. The RPO indicates the earliest point in time that is acceptable to recover the data, and it effectively quantifies the permissible amount of data loss in case of interruption.

42
Q

Secret key encryption would require sharing of the same key at the source and destination and

A

involve an additional step for encrypting and decrypting data at each end.

43
Q

Using a dynamic Internet protocol (IP) address and port is not an effective control

A

because an attacker could easily find the new address using the domain name system (DNS)

44
Q

While the use of a cryptographic hash function may be helpful to validate the integrity of data files,

A

it would not be useful for a production support team connecting remotely.

45
Q

As ABC and XYZ are communicating over the Internet, which is an untrusted network, establishing

A

an encrypted virtual private network (VPN) tunnel would best ensure that the transmission of information was secure.

46
Q

Single sign-on authentication provides a single access point to system resources. It would not be best

A

in all situations.

47
Q

While password complexity requirements would help prevent unauthorized access, two-factor authentication

A

is a more effective control.

48
Q

Two-factor authentication is the best method to provide a secure connection because it uses two factors, typically

A

“what you have” (for example, a device to generate one-time-passwords), “what you are” (for example, biometric characteristics) or “what you know” (for example, a personal identification number [PIN] or password).

49
Q

Internet protocol (IP) addresses can always change or be spoofed and

A

therefore, are not the best form of authentication.

50
Q
The most important aspect in a signature-based intrusion
detection system (IDS) is its ability to
A

protect against known (signature) intrusion patterns. Such signatures are provided
by the vendor and are critical to protecting an enterprise
from outside attacks.

51
Q

One of the key disadvantages of IDS is its inherent inability

A

to scan for vulnerabilities at the application level.

52
Q

An IDS cannot break

A

encrypted data packets to identify the

source of the incoming traffic.

53
Q

A demilitarized zone is an internal network segment in which systems (e.g., a web server) accessible to the public are housed.
In order to provide the greatest security and efficiency, an IDS
should

A

be placed behind the firewall so that it will detect only those attacks/intruders that enter the firewall.

54
Q

Logging access to personal information is a good control in that it will allow access to be analyzed

A

analyzed if there is concern of unauthorized access. However, it will not prevent access.

55
Q

Restricting access to sensitive transactions will restrict

A

access only to some of the data. It will not prevent access to other data.

56
Q

The server and system security should be defined to allow

A

only authorized staff members access to information about

the staff whose records they handle on a day-to-day basis.

57
Q

System access restricted to business hours only restricts when

A

unauthorized access can occur and would not prevent such access at other times. It is important to consider that the data owner is responsible for determining who is allowed access via the written software access rules.

58
Q

The security officer serving as the database administer, while a control weakness, does not carry the same disastrous impact as the absence of

A

password controls.

59
Q

The absence of password controls on the two database servers, where production data reside, is

A

the most critical weakness.

60
Q

Having no business continuity plan for the mainframe system’s noncritical applications, while a control weakness, does not

A

carry the same disastrous impact as the absence of password controls.

61
Q

Most local area networks not backing-up regularly, while a

control weakness, does not carry the

A

same disastrous impact as

the absence of password controls.

62
Q

If a password is disclosed when single sign-on is enabled, there is a risk

A

that unauthorized access to all systems will be possible.

63
Q

User access rights should remain unchanged by single sign-on, as additional security parameters

A

are not implemented necessarily.

64
Q

One of the intended benefits of single sign-on is

A

the simplification of security administration.

65
Q

One of the intended benefits of single sign-on is the

A

unlikelihood of an increased workload.

66
Q

The standard bandwidth of an integrated services digital network data link would not

A

provide the quality of services required for corporate Voice-over Internet Protocol (VoIP) services.

67
Q

To ensure that quality of service requirements are achieved, the VoIP service over the wide area network should be protected from

A

packet losses, latency or jitter. To reach this objective, the network performance can be managed to provide quality of service and class of service support using statistical techniques, such as traffic engineering.

68
Q

Wired equivalent privacy is an encryption scheme related

A

to wireless networking.

69
Q

The VoIP phones are usually connected to a

A

corporate local area network and are not analog.

70
Q

Benefits of cloud computing are redundancy and the ability

A

to access systems and data in the event of a technical failure.