Domain 5 - Identity & Access Management Flashcards
Which of the following is best described as an access control
model that focuses on subjects and identifies the objects that
each subject can access?
A. An access control list
B. An implicit denial list
C. A capability table
D. A rights management matrix
C. A capability table
C. Capability tables list the privileges assigned to subjects and
identify the objects that subjects can access. Access control lists
are object-focused rather than subject-focused. Implicit deny is
a principle that states that anything that is not explicitly allowed
is denied, and a rights management matrix is not an access
control model.
Jim’s organization-wide implementation of IDaaS offers broad
support for cloud-based applications. Jim’s company does not
have internal identity management staff and does not use
centralized identity services. Instead, they rely upon Active
Directory for AAA services. Which of the following options
should Jim recommend to best handle the company’s on-site
identity needs?
A. Integrate on-site systems using OAuth.
B. Use an on-premises third-party identity service.
C. Integrate on-site systems using SAML.
D. Design an internal solution to handle the organization’s
unique needs.
B. Use an on-premises third-party identity service.
B. Since Jim’s organization is using a cloud-based identity as a
service solution, a third-party, on-premises identity service can
provide the ability to integrate with the IDaaS solution, and the
company’s use of Active Directory is widely supported by thirdparty vendors. OAuth is used to log in to third-party websites
using existing credentials and would not meet the needs
described. SAML is a markup language and would not meet the
full set of AAA needs. Since the organization is using Active
Directory, a custom in-house solution is unlikely to be as
effective as a preexisting third-party solution and may take far
more time and expense to implement.
Which of the following is not a weakness in Kerberos?
A. The KDC is a single point of failure.
B. Compromise of the KDC would allow attackers to
impersonate any user.
C. Authentication information is not encrypted.
D. It is susceptible to password guessing.
C. Authentication information is not encrypted.
C. Kerberos encrypts messages using secret keys, providing
protection for authentication traffic. The KDC both is a single
point of failure and can cause problems if compromised because
keys are stored on the KDC that would allow attackers to
impersonate any user. Like many authentication methods,
Kerberos can be susceptible to password guessing.
Voice pattern recognition is what type of authentication factor?
A. Something you know
B. Something you have
C. Something you are
D. Somewhere you are
C. Something you are
C. Voice pattern recognition is “something you are,” a biometric
authentication factor, because it measures a physical
characteristic of the individual authenticating.
If Susan’s organization requires her to log in with her username,
a PIN, a password, and a retina scan, how many distinct
authentication factor types has she used?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
B. Two
B. Susan has used two distinct types of factors: the PIN and
password are both Type 1 factors, and the retina scan is a Type 3
factor. Her username is not a factor.
Charles wants to deploy a credential management system
(CMS). He wants to keep the keys as secure as possible. Which
of the following is the best design option for his CMS
implementation?
A. Use AES-256 instead of 3DES.
B. Use long keys.
C. Use an HSM.
D. Change passphrases regularly
C. Use an HSM.
C. Hardware Security Modules, or HSMs, are the most secure
way to store keys associated with a CMS. They provide enhanced
key management capabilities and are often required to be FIPS
certified. In addition to these advantages, an HSM can improve
cryptographic performance for the organization due to dedicated
hardware designed for just that purpose. Long keys and using
AES-256 are good practices, but an HSM provides greater
security and will require appropriate cryptographic controls
already. Changing passphrases can be challenging across an
organization; instead, securing the passphrases and keys is more
important and reasonable for most organizations.
Brian is a researcher at a major university. As part of his
research, he logs into a computing cluster hosted at another
institution using his own university’s credentials. Once logged
in, he is able to access the cluster and use resources based on his
role in a research project, as well as using resources and services
in his home organization. What has Brian’s home university
implemented to make this happen?
A. Domain stacking
B. Federated identity management
C. Domain nesting
D. Hybrid login
B. Federated identity management
B. Brian’s organization is using a federated identity
management approach where multiple organizations allow
identities to be used across the organizations. Each organization
needs to proof their own staff members’ identities and provide
them with rights and role information that will allow them to
use resources within the federated identity environment.
Place the following steps in the order in which they occur during
the Kerberos authentication process.
1. Client/server ticket generated
2. TGT generated
3. Client/TGS key generated
4. User accesses service
5. User provides authentication credentials
A. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
C. 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
D. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
A. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
A. During the Kerberos authentication process, the steps take
place in the following order: user provides authentication
credentials; client/TGS key generated; TGT generated;
client/server ticket generated; and user accesses service.
What major issue often results from decentralized access
control?
A. Access outages may occur.
B. Control is not consistent.
C. Control is too granular.
D. Training costs are high.
B. Control is not consistent.
B. Decentralized access control can result in less consistency
because the individuals tasked with control may interpret
policies and requirements differently and may perform their
roles in different ways. Access outages, overly granular control,
and training costs may occur, depending on specific
implementations, but they are not commonly identified issues
with decentralized access control.
Callback to a landline phone number is an example of what type
of factor?
A. Something you know
B. Somewhere you are
C. Something you have
D. Something you are
B. Somewhere you are
B. A callback to a landline phone number is an example of a
“somewhere you are” factor because of the fixed physical
location of a wired phone. A callback to a mobile phone would
be a “something you have” factor.
Kathleen needs to set up an Active Directory trust to allow
authentication with an existing Kerberos K5 domain. What type
of trust does she need to create?
A. A shortcut trust
B. A forest trust
C. An external trust
D. A realm trust
D. A realm trust
D. Kerberos uses realms, and the proper type of trust to set up
for an Active Directory environment that needs to connect to a
K5 domain is a realm trust. A shortcut trust is a transitive trust
between parts of a domain tree or forest that shortens the trust
path, a forest trust is a transitive trust between two forest root
domains, and an external trust is a nontransitive trust between
AD domains in separate forests.
Which of the following AAA protocols is the most commonly
used?
A. TACACS
B. TACACS+
C. XTACACS
D. Super TACACS
B. TACACS+
B. TACACS+ is the only modern protocol on the list. It provides
advantages of both TACACS and XTACACS as well as some
benefits over RADIUS, including encryption of all
authentication information. Super TACACS is not an actual
protocol.
Which of the following is not a single sign-on implementation?
A. Kerberos
B. ADFS
C. CAS
D. RADIUS
D. RADIUS
D. Kerberos, Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS), and
Central Authentication Services (CAS) are all SSO
implementations. RADIUS is not a single sign-on
implementation, although some vendors use it behind the
scenes to provide authentication for proprietary SSO
A user on a Windows system is
not able to use the Send Message functionality. What access
control model best describes this type of limitation?
A. Least privilege
B. Need to know
C. Constrained interface
D. Separation of duties
C. Constrained interface
C. Interface restrictions based on user privileges is an example
of a constrained interface. Least privilege describes the idea of
providing users with only the rights they need to accomplish
their job, while need to know limits access based on whether a
subject needs to know the information to accomplish an
assigned task. Separation of duties focuses on preventing fraud
or mistakes by splitting tasks between multiple subjects.
What type of access controls allow the owner of a file to grant
other users access to it using an access control list?
A. Role-based
B. Nondiscretionary
C. Rule-based
D. Discretionary
D. Discretionary
D. When the owner of a file makes the decisions about who has
rights or access privileges to it, they are using discretionary
access control. Role-based access controls would grant access
based on a subject’s role, while rule-based controls would base
the decision on a set of rules or requirements. Nondiscretionary
access controls apply a fixed set of rules to an environment to
manage access. Nondiscretionary access controls include rule-,
role-, and lattice-based access controls
Alex’s job requires him to see protected health information
(PHI) to ensure proper treatment of patients. His access to their
medical records does not provide access to patient addresses or
billing information. What access control concept best describes
this control?
A. Separation of duties
B. Constrained interfaces
C. Context-dependent control
D. Need to know
D. Need to know
D. Need to know is applied when subjects like Alex have access
to only the data they need to accomplish their job. Separation of
duties is used to limit fraud and abuse by having multiple
employees perform parts of a task. Constrained interfaces
restrict what a user can see or do and would be a reasonable
answer if need to know did not describe his access more
completely in this scenario. Context-dependent control relies on
the activity being performed to apply controls, and this question
does not specify a workflow or process.
Credentials —> Workstation —A—> KDC
At point A in the diagram, the client sends the username and
password to the KDC. How is the username and password
protected?
A. 3DES encryption
B. TLS encryption
C. SSL encryption
D. AES encryption
D. AES encryption
D. The client in Kerberos logins uses AES to encrypt the
username and password prior to sending it to the KDC
Workstation <—B—- KDC
At point B in the diagram, what two important elements does
the KDC send to the client after verifying that the username is
valid?
A. An encrypted TGT and a public key
B. An access ticket and a public key
C. An encrypted, time-stamped TGT and a symmetric key encrypted with a hash of the user’s password
D. An encrypted, time-stamped TGT and an access token
C. An encrypted, time-stamped TGT and a symmetric key encrypted with a hash of the user’s password
C. The KDC uses the user’s password to generate a hash and
then uses that hash to encrypt a symmetric key. It transmits
both the encrypted symmetric key and an encrypted timestamped TGT to the client.
What tasks must the client perform before it can use the TGT?
A. It must generate a hash of the TGT and decrypt the
symmetric key.
B. It must accept the TGT and decrypt the symmetric key.
C. It must decrypt the TGT and the symmetric key.
D. It must send a valid response using the symmetric key to
the KDC and must install the TGT.
B. It must accept the TGT and decrypt the symmetric key.
B. The client needs to accept the TGT for use until it expires and
must also decrypt the symmetric key using a hash of the user’s
password.
Jacob is planning his organization’s biometric authentication
system and is considering retina scans. What concern may be
raised about retina scans by others in his organization?
A. Retina scans can reveal information about medical conditions.
B. Retina scans are painful because they require a puff of air in the user’s eye.
C. Retina scanners are the most expensive type of biometric device.
D. Retina scanners have a high false positive rate and will cause support issues.
A. Retina scans can reveal information about medical conditions.
A. Retina scans can reveal additional information, including
high blood pressure and pregnancy, causing privacy concerns.
Newer retina scans don’t require a puff of air, and retina
scanners are not the most expensive biometric factor. Their false
positive rate can typically be adjusted in software, allowing
administrators to adjust their acceptance rate as needed to
balance usability and security.
Mandatory access control is based on what type of model?
A. Discretionary
B. Group-based
C. Lattice-based
D. Rule-based
C. Lattice-based
C. Mandatory access control systems are based on a latticebased model. Lattice-based models use a matrix of classification
labels to compartmentalize data. Discretionary access models
allow object owners to determine access to the objects they
control, role-based access controls are often group-based, and
rule-based access controls like firewall ACLs apply rules to all
subjects they apply to.
Greg wants to control access to iPads used throughout his
organization as point-of-sale terminals. Which of the following
methods should he use to allow logical access control for the
devices in a shared environment?
A. Use a shared PIN for all point-of-sale terminals to make
them easier to use.
B. Use OAuth to allow cloud logins for each user.
C. Issue a unique PIN to each user for the iPad they are issued.
D. Use Active Directory and user accounts for logins to the iPads using the AD userID and password.
D. Use Active Directory and user accounts for logins to the iPads using the AD userID and password.
D. Using an enterprise authentication system like Active
Directory that requires individuals to log in with their
credentials provides the ability to determine who was logged in
if a problem occurs and also allows Greg to quickly and easily
remove users who are terminated or switch roles. Using a shared
PIN provides no accountability, while unique PINs per user on
specifically issued iPads mean that others will not be able to log
in. OAuth alone does not provide the services and features Greg
needs—it is an authorization service, not an authentication
service.
What is the best way to provide accountability for the use of
identities?
A. Logging
B. Authorization
C. Digital signatures
D. Type 1 authentication
A. Logging
A. Logging systems can provide accountability for identity
systems by tracking the actions, changes, and other activities a
user or account performs.
Jim has worked in human relations, payroll, and customer
service roles in his company over the past few years. What type
of process should his company perform to ensure that he has
appropriate rights?
A. Re-provisioning
B. Account review
C. Privilege creep
D. Account revocation
B. Account review
B. As an employee’s role changes, they often experience
privilege creep, which is the accumulation of old rights and
roles. Account review is the process of reviewing accounts and
ensuring that their rights match their owners’ role and job
requirements. Account revocation removes accounts, while reprovisioning might occur if an employee was terminated and
returned or took a leave of absence and returned.
Biba is what type of access control model?
A. MAC
B. DAC
C. Role BAC
D. ABAC
A. MAC
A. Biba uses a lattice to control access and is a form of the
mandatory access control (MAC) model. It does not use rules,
roles, or attributes, nor does it allow user discretion. Users can
create content at their level or lower but cannot decide who gets
access, levels are not roles, and attributes are not used to make
decisions on access control.
Which of the following is a client/server protocol designed to
allow network access servers to authenticate remote users by
sending access request messages to a central server?
A. Kerberos
B. EAP
C. RADIUS
D. OAuth
C. RADIUS
C. RADIUS is an AAA protocol used to provide authentication
and authorization; it’s often used for modems, wireless
networks, and network devices. It uses network access servers to
send access requests to central RADIUS servers. Kerberos is a
ticket-based authentication protocol; OAuth is an open standard
for authentication allowing the use of credentials from one site
on third-party sites; and EAP is the Extensible Authentication
Protocol, an authentication framework often used for wireless
networks.
Henry is working with a web application development team on
their authentication and authorization process for his company’s
new application. The team wants to make session IDs as secure
as possible. Which of the following is not a best practice that
Henry should recommend?
A. The session ID token should be predictable.
B. The session ID should have at least 64 bits of entropy.
C. The session length should be at least 128 bits.
D. The session ID should be meaningless.
A. The session ID token should be predictable.
A. Web application development best practices currently
recommend the use of long session IDs (128 bits or longer) that
have sufficient entropy (randomness) to ensure that they will
not be easily duplicated or brute forced. It is also a best practice
to make sure the session ID itself is meaningless to prevent
information disclosure attacks. Session IDs should expire,
however, because a session that never expires could eventually
be brute forced even if all of these recommendations were met.
What type of access control best describes NAC’s posture
assessment capability?
A. A mandatory access control
B. A risk-based access control
C. A discretionary access control
D. A role-based access control
B. A risk-based access control
B. NAC’s posturing capability determines if a system is
sufficiently secure and compliant enough to connect to a
network. This is a form of risk-based access control, as systems
that are not compliant are considered higher risk and either are
placed in a quarantine and remediation network or zone or are
prohibited from connecting to the network until they are
compliant.
Angela uses a sniffer to monitor traffic from a RADIUS server
configured with default settings. What protocol should she
monitor, and what traffic will she be able to read?
A. UDP, none. All RADIUS traffic is encrypted.
B. TCP, all traffic but the passwords, which are encrypted.
C. UDP, all traffic but the passwords, which are encrypted.
D. TCP, none. All RADIUS traffic is encrypted.
C. UDP, all traffic but the passwords, which are encrypted.
C. By default, RADIUS uses UDP and only encrypts passwords.
RADIUS supports TCP and TLS, but this is not a default setting.
Alex has been employed by his company for more than a decade
and has held a number of positions in the company. During an
audit, it is discovered that he has access to shared folders and
applications because of his former roles. What issue has Alex’s
company encountered?
A. Excessive provisioning
B. Unauthorized access
C. Privilege creep
D. Account review
C. Privilege creep
C. Privilege creep occurs when users retain from roles they held
previously rights they do not need to accomplish their current
job. Unauthorized access occurs when an unauthorized user
accesses files. Excessive provisioning is not a term used to
describe permissions issues, and account review would help find
issues like this.
When an application or system allows a logged-in user to
perform specific actions, it is an example of what?
A. Roles
B. Group management
C. Logins
D. Authorization
D. Authorization
D. Authorization provides a user with capabilities or rights.
Roles and group management are both methods that could be
used to match users with rights. Logins are used to validate a
user.
Jim’s Microsoft Exchange environment includes servers that are
located in local data centers at multiple business offices around
the world as well as an Office 365 deployment for employees
who are not located at one of those offices. Identities are created
and used in both environments and will work in both. What type
of federated system is Jim running?
A. A primary cloud system
B. A primary on-premise system
C. A hybrid system
D. A multitenant system
C. A hybrid system
C. Hybrid systems use both on-premises and cloud identity and
services to provide resources and tools in both environments.
While they can be complex, hybrid systems also provide a
migration path to a fully cloud deployment or for a fault tolerant
design that can handle on-premises or cloud outages while
remaining functional.
Geoff wants to prevent privilege escalation attacks in his
organization. Which of the following practices is most likely to
prevent horizontal privilege escalation?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. Limiting permissions for groups and accounts
C. Disabling unused ports and services
D. Sanitizing user inputs to applications
A. Multifactor authentication
A. Multifactor authentication is most likely to limit horizontal
privilege escalation by making it difficult to access user accounts
and to authenticate to a compromised account. Limiting
permissions for groups and accounts can also help, but disabling
unused ports and services and sanitizing user inputs both
address threats that are most frequently associated with vertical
privilege escalation attacks.
What type of access control scheme is shown in the following table?
Highly Sensitive | Red | Blue | Green
Confidential | Purple | Orange | Yellow
Internal Use | Black | Gray | White
Public | Clear | Clear | Clear
A. RBAC
B. DAC
C. MAC
D. TBAC
C. MAC
C. Mandatory access controls use a lattice or matrix to describe
how classification labels relate to each other. In this image,
classification levels are set for each of the labels shown. A
discretionary access control (DAC) system would show how the
owner of the objects allows access. RBAC could be either rule- or
role-based access control and would use either system-wide
rules or roles. Task-based access control (TBAC) would list tasks
for users.
Michelle’s company is creating a new division by splitting the marketing and communications departments into two separate groups. She wants to create roles that provide access to resources used by each group. What should she do to maintain the appropriate security and rights for each group?
A. Put both the marketing and communications teams into the existing group because they will have similar access requirements.
B. Keep the marketing team in the existing group and create a new communications group based on their specific needs.
C. Keep the communications team in the existing group and create a new marketing group based on their specific needs.
D. Create two new groups, assess which rights they need to perform their roles, and then add additional rights if required.
D. Create two new groups, assess which rights they need to perform their roles, and then add additional rights if required.
D. Copying existing rights to new groups that have different
needs will often result in overly broad privileges. Michelle
should create new groups, move all staff into the appropriate
groups, and then ensure that they have the access and
permissions they need.
When a subject claims an identity, what process is occurring?
A. Login
B. Identification
C. Authorization
D. Token presentation
B. Identification
B. The process of a subject claiming or professing an identity is
known as identification. Authorization verifies the identity of a
subject by checking a factor like a password. Logins typically
include both identification and authorization, and token
presentation is a type of authentication.
Dogs, guards, and fences are all common examples of what type
of control?
A. Detective
B. Recovery
C. Administrative
D. Physical
D. Physical
D. Dogs, guards, and fences are all examples of physical
controls. While dogs and guards might detect a problem, fences
cannot, so they are not all examples of detective controls. None
of these controls would help repair or restore functionality after
an issue, and thus they are not recovery controls, nor are they
administrative controls that involve policy or procedures,
although the guards might refer to them when performing their
duties.
Susan’s organization is updating its password policy and wants
to use the strongest possible passwords. What password
requirement will have the highest impact in preventing bruteforce attacks?
A. Change maximum age from 1 year to 180 days.
B. Increase the minimum password length from 8 characters to 16 characters.
C. Increase the password complexity so that at least three character classes (such as uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and symbols) are required.
D. Retain a password history of at least four passwords to prevent reuse.
B. Increase the minimum password length from 8 characters to 16 characters.
B. Password complexity is driven by length, and a longer
password will be more effective against brute-force attacks than
a shorter password. Each character of additional length
increases the difficulty by the size of the potential character set
(for example, a single lowercase character makes the passwords
26 times more difficult to crack). While each of the other
settings is useful for a strong password policy, they won’t have
the same impact on brute-force attacks.
Alaina is performing a regularly scheduled review for service
accounts. Which of the following events should she be most
concerned about?
A. An interactive login for the service account
B. A password change for the service account
C. Limitations placed on the service account’s rights
D. Local use of the service account
A. An interactive login for the service account
A. Interactive login for a service account is a critical warning
sign, either of compromise or bad administrative practices. In
either case, Alaina should immediately work to determine why
the account logged in, what occurred, and if the interactive login
was done remotely or locally. A remote interactive login for a
service account in any professionally maintained environment is
an almost guaranteed sign of compromise. Password changes for
service accounts may be done as part of ongoing password
expiration processes, limitations should always be placed on
service accounts rights to ensure that they are only those
required, and a local use of the service account as part of the
service is a normal event.
When might an organization using biometrics choose to allow a
higher FRR instead of a higher FAR?
A. When security is more important than usability
B. When false rejection is not a concern due to data quality
C. When the CER of the system is not known
D. When the CER of the system is very high
A. When security is more important than usability
A. Organizations that have very strict security requirements
that don’t have a tolerance for false acceptance want to lower the
false acceptance rate, or FAR, to be as near to zero as possible.
That often means that the false rejection rate, or FRR, increases.
Different biometric technologies or a better registration method
can help improve biometric performance, but false rejections
due to data quality are not typically a concern with modern
biometric systems. In this case, knowing the crossover error
rate, or CER, or having a very high CER doesn’t help the
decision.