Domain 4 question 1st test Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following coding error classifications is most valuable in determining the impact on overall revenue cycle?

a. errors by coding guideline

b. percentage of cases that could have been improved if queried

c. errors by coding professional

d. errors that produced changes in MS-DRG assignment

A

errors that produced changes in MS-DRG assignment

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2
Q

A patient was seen in the emergency department for chest pain. It was suspected that the patient may have gastrosophageal reflux disease (GERD). The final diagnosis was “Rule out GERD.” The correct ICD-10-CM diagnosis code is:

K21.9, Gastro-esophageal reflux disease without esophagitis

R07.9, Chest pain, unspecified

R10.11, Right upper quadrant pain

Z03.89, Encounter for observation for other suspected diseases and conditions ruled out

A

R07.9, chest pain, unspecified

Because this patient was seen only in the emergency department, he or she would be classified as an outpatient.
Diagnoses documented as “probable,” “suspected,” “questionable,” “rule out,” “working diagnosis,” or other
similar terms in the outpatient setting indicate uncertainty and would not be coded as if existing. Rather, code the condition to the highest degree of certainty for that encounter or visit, such as signs, symptoms, abnormal test results, or other reason for the visit. In this case, unspecified chest pain would be coded (Schraffenberger and Palkie 2022, 105).

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3
Q

A patient has liver metastasis due to adenocarcinoma of the rectum. The rectum was resected two years ago. The patient has been receiving radiotherapy to the liver with some relief of pain.
The patient is being admitted at this time for management of severe anemia due to the malignancy. The principal diagnosis listed on this admission is:

Liver metastasis
Adenocarcinoma of the rectum
Anemia
Admission for radiotherapy

A

Liver metastasis

When an admission or encounter is for the management of anemia associated with the malignancy, and the treatment is only for anemia, the appropriate code for the malignancy is sequenced first as the principal or first-listed diagnosis followed by the appropriate code for the anemia (such as D63.0, Anemia in neoplastic disease) according to ICD-10-CM Coding Guideline 1.C.2.c. 1 (Schraffenberger and Palkie 2022, 147-148).

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4
Q

The determination of the reimbursement amount based on the beneficiary’s insurance plan benefits is called:

Charge capture
Adjudication
Adjustment
Revenue management

A

Adjudication
is the determination of the reimbursement amount based on the beneficiary’s insurance plan benefits. When clean claims are submitted, electronic adjudication can occur. Four outcomes may occur from adjudication: payment, suspend, reject, or deny. If the outcome is payment, then the reimbursement for the claim is paid without review or further processing (Casto and White 2021, 170).

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5
Q

The discharged, not filed billed report is a daily report used to track accounts that are:

Awaiting payment in accounts receivable
Paid at different rates
( In bill hold or in error and awaiting billing
Pulled for quality review

A

In bill hold or in error and awaiting billing

The accounts not selected for billing report is a daily report used to track the many reasons that accounts may not be ready for billing. This report is also called the discharged, not final billed (DNFB) report. Accounts that have not met all facility-specified criteria for billing are held and reported on this daily tracking list. Some accounts are held because the patient has not signed the consents and authorizations required by the insurer.
Still others are not billed because the primary and secondary insurance benefits have not been confirmed (Schraffenberger and Kuehn 2011, 436; AHIMA 2017, 81).

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6
Q

Which of the following is a function of the outpatient code editor?

Validate the patient’s gender with the procedure codes
Validate the patient’s encounter number
Identify unbundling of codes
Identify cases that do not meet medical necessity

A

Validate the patient’s gender with the procedure codes

The Medicare Outpatient Code Editor (OCE) is a software program designed to process data for the Medicare Hospital Outpatient Payment System pricing and to audit facility claims data. The OCE audits claims for coding and data entry errors. The extensive edits in the OCE are applied to claims, individual diagnoses and procedures, and code sets. The procedure and sex conflict edit occurs when the sex of the patient does not match the sex designated for the procedure code reported (Casto and White 2021, 218-219).

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7
Q

The coding professional assigned separate codes for individual tests when a combination code exists. This is an example of which of the following?

Upcoding
Complex coding
Query
Unbundling

A

Unbundling

Unbundling occurs when individual components of a complete procedure or service are billed separately instead of using a combination code (Bowman 2017, 440).

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8
Q

Joe Carlson was admitted to Community Hospital. Two days later, he was transferred to Big Medical Center for further evaluation and treatment. He was discharged to home after three days with a qualified transfer DRG from Big Medical Center. Community Hospital will receive from Medicare:

The full DRG amount, and Big Medical Center will receive a per diem rate for the three-day stay

A per diem rate for the two-day stay, and Big Medical Center will receive the full DRG payment

The full DRG amount, and Big Medical Center will bill Community Hospital a per diem rate for the three-day stay

No payment; Community Hospital must bill Big Medical Center a per diem rate for the two-day stay

A

A per diem rate for the two-day stay, and Big Medical Center will receive the full DRG payment

There are two types of transfer cases under the inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS). The first category is a patient transfer between two IPPS hospitals. A type 1 transfer is when a patient is discharged from an acute IPPS hospital (Community Hospital in this case) and is admitted to another acute IPPS hospital (Big Medical Center) on the same day. Payment is altered for the transferring hospital and is based on a per diem rate methodology. The transferring facility receives double the per dim rate for the first day plus the per diem rate for each day thereafter for the patient LOS. The receiving facility receives the full PPS payment rate for the case (Casto and White 2021, 80).

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9
Q

Which of the following individuals assists in educating medical staff members on the documentation needed for accurate coding?

Physician champion

Compliance officer

Chargemaster coordinator

Data monitor

A

Physician champion

The health information manager must continuously promote complete, accurate, and timely documentation to ensure appropriate coding, billing, and reimbursement. This requires a close working relationship with the medical staff, perhaps through the use of a physician champion. Physician champions assist in educating medical staff members on documentation needed for accurate billing. The medical staff is more likely to listen to a peer than to a facility employee, especially when the topic is documentation needed to ensure appropriate reimbursement (Hess 2015, 123).

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10
Q

Patient accounting is reporting an increase in national coverage decisions (NCDs) and local coverage determinations (LCDs) failed edits in observation accounts. Which of the following
departments will be tasked to resolve this issue?

Health information management

Patient access

Patient accounts

Utilization management

A

HIM

Resolving failed edits is one of many duties of the health information management (HIM) department. Various
hospital departments depend on the coding expertise of HIM professionals to avoid incorrect coding and
potential compliance issues (Casto and White 2021, 167-168).

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11
Q

A patient had a placenta previa with delivery of twins. The patient had two prior cesarean sections. This was an emergency C-section due to hemorrhage. The appropriate principal diagnosis would be:

Normal delivery

Placenta previa

Twin gestation

Vaginal hemorrhage

A

Placenta previa

In cases of a cesarean delivery, the selection of the principal diagnosis should be the condition established after study that was responsible for the patient’s admission. If the patient was admitted with a condition that resulted in the performance of the cesarean procedure, that condition should be selected as the principal diagnosis. If the reason for the admission or encounter was unrelated to the condition resulting in the cesarean delivery, the condition related to the reason for the admission or encounter should be selected as the principal diagnosis even if a cesarean was performed (Schraffenberger and Palkie 2022, 493).

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12
Q

A patient is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and congestive heart failure. The patient subsequently develops respiratory failure. The patient undergoes intubation with ventilator management. Which of the following would be the correct sequencing and coding of this case?

Congestive heart failure, respiratory failure, ventilator management, intubation

Respiratory failure, intubation, ventilator management

Respiratory failure, congestive heart failure, intubation, ventilator management

Shortness of breath, congestive heart failure, respiratory failure, ventilator management

A

Congestive heart failure, respiratory failure, ventilator management, intubation

CH is the principal diagnosis and must be sequenced first as shortness of breath is a symptom of CH, and the respiratory failure is a result of the CHF. The principal diagnosis is the reason for the admission to the hospital after study (Schraffenberger and Palkie 2022, 95).

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13
Q

Placenta previa with delivery of twins. This patient had two prior cesarean sections. She also has a third-degree perineal laceration. This was an emergent C-section due to hemorrhage associated with the placenta previa. The appropriate principal diagnosis would be:

Third-degree perineal laceration

Placenta previa

Twin gestation

Vaginal hemorrhage

A

Placenta previa

Placenta previa is the reason for the C-section and therefore is the principal diagnosis (Schraffenberger and Palkie 2022, 493).

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14
Q

A skin lesion was removed from a patient’s cheek in the dermatologist’s office. The dermatologist documents skin lesion, probable basal cell carcinoma. Which of the following actions should the coding professional take to code this encounter?

Code skin lesion.

Code benign skin lesion.

Code basal cell carcinoma.

Query the dermatologist.

A

Code skin lesion

In the outpatient setting, do not code a diagnosis documented as “probable.” Rather, code the conditions to the highest degree of certainty for the encounter (Schraffenberger and Palkie 2022, 105).

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15
Q

A patient is admitted for the treatment of dehydration secondary to chemotherapy for primary liver cancer. Intravenous (IV) fluids were administered to the patient. Which of the following should be sequenced as the principal diagnosis?

Dehydration

Chemotherapy

Liver carcinoma

Complication of chemotherapy

A

Dehydration

When the admission or encounter is for management of dehydration due to the malignancy and only the dehydration is being treated, the dehydration is sequenced first, followed by the code(s) for the malignancy (Schraffenberger and Palkie 2022, 148).

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16
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be used in performing an outpatient coding review?

OCE

MS-DRG

CMI

MDS

A

OCE

The outpatient code editor (OCE) is a software program that applies a set of logical rules to determine whether various combinations of codes are correct and appropriately represent the services provided (Casto and White
2021, 217-218).

17
Q

In reviewing a patient chart, the coding professional finds that the patient’s chest x-ray is suggestive of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The attending physician mentions the x-ray finding in one progress note, but no medication, treatment, or further evaluation is provided. Which of the following actions should the coding professional take in this case?

Query the attending physician and ask him to validate a diagnosis based on the chest x-ray results.

Code the COPD because the documentation substantiates it.

Query the radiologist to determine whether the patient has COPD.

Assign a code from the abnormal findings to reflect the condition.

A

Query the attending physician and ask him to validate a diagnosis based on the chest x-ray results.

This is an example of a circumstance in which the chronic condition must be verified. All secondary conditions must match the definition in the UHDDS for a secondary diagnosis, and whether the COPD does is not clear so the provider should be queried (Schraffenberger and Palkie 2022, 100-101; Brinda 2020, 186-187).

18
Q

According to CP, an endoscopy that is undertaken to the level of the midtransverse colon would be coded as a:

Proctosigmoidoscopy
Sigmoidoscopy
Colonoscopy
Proctoscopy

A

Colonoscopy

Colonoscopy includes examining the transverse colon. Proctosigmoidoscopy involves examining the rectum and sigmoid colon. Sigmoidoscopy involves examining the rectum, sigmoid colon, and may include portions of the descending colon (Smith 2021, 142).

19
Q

Assign codes for the following scenario: A 35-year-old male is admitted with esophageal reflux.
An esophagoscopy and closed esophageal biopsy were performed.

K21.9, 0DB58ZX
K20.90, 0DB58ZZ
K21.00, ODB58ZX K21.9, ODJ08ZZ, ——-ODB58ZX

A

K21.9, 0DB58ZX

The patient has esophageal reflux with no esophagitis mentioned, so K21.9 is the correct diagnosis code. For the ICD-10-PCS procedure code, a closed biopsy of the esophagus was performed via esophagoscopy, so ODB58ZX is the correct code. The Section is Medical and Surgical-character 0; Body System is Gastrointestinal–character D;
Root Operation is Excision–character B; Body Part is Esophagus -character 5; Approach-Via Natural or Artificial Opening Endoscopic–character 8; No Device-character Z; and the procedure was for diagnostic reasons (biopsy)
-character X (Schraffenberger and Palkie 2022, 43-44; Kuehn and Jorwic 2021, 27-29, 72-73).