Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Security+ SYO-601 > Domain 3.0: Implementation > Flashcards

Domain 3.0: Implementation Flashcards

1
Q

you can make LDAP traffic confidential and secure by using ____ technology operating over port ___

A

TLS, 636 (port LDAPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

web traffic is unencrypted over ____ occurs by default over port ____

A

HTTP, 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

encrypted web traffic over ____ occurs by default over port _____

A

HTTPS, 443

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

FTP SSH uses ___ port ____ by default

A

TCP, 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

port security is a layer ___ traffic control feature that enables individual switch ports to be configured to allow only specified number of source MAC addresses coming in through the port

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_____ protection makes additional checks in Layer 2 switched networks

A

loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a ____ guard is a firewall feature to control network activity associated with DoS attacks

A

flood guard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

____ code analysis is a white box software testing process for detecting bugs early in the program development

A

static

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_____ code analysis is based on observing how the code behaves during execution

A

dynamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_____ is a black box software testing process by which semi random data is injected into a program or protocol stack to detect bugs

A

fuzzing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_____ provides a safe execution environment fo untrusted programs

A

sandboxing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

____ environments should be isolated from development environments

A

testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

____ environments reduce the risk of introducing issues before solutions are deployed in production

A

staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

______ can establish patterns of use that later can help identify variations that identify unauthorized access attempts

A

baselines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

____ ____ use embedded systems with an os on the included chip

A

smart cards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the ______ SDLC (software development life cycle) model starts with a defined set of requirements and a well developed plan, and adjustments are confined to the current development stage

A

waterfall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the ____ SDLC model starts with less rigorous guidelines and allows for adjustments during the process

A

agile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

____ ____ includes security in the SDLC, ensuring that security is built in during the development process

A

secure devOps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

a __ _____ continually compiles, builds, and tests each new version of code committed to the central repository without user interaction

A

CI server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

_______ means that a valuable program, configuration or server will never be modified in place

A

immutability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

___ _____ involves disabling unnecessary ports and services

A

system hardening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

to keep an attacker from exploiting software bugs, an organization must continually apply manufacturers’ ___ and _____

A

patches and updates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what port is Netstat commonly used for, purpose

A

15, lists active processes and who launched them, rarely used due to security concerns. Also same port as B2 Trojan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what port is FTP commonly used

A

20 or 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

port SSH/SFTP/SCP

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

port telnet

A

23
client/server app protocol that provides access to virtual terminals of remote systems on local area networks or the Internet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

port SMTP

A

25, simple mail transfer protocol, insecure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

port DNS

A

53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

port HTTP

A

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

port NTP (network time protocol) and purpose

A

123
time synchronization, replaced with NTPsec port 4460

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

port LDAP, purpose

A

389
lightweight directory access protocol
reading and writing directories over an IP network. to query and update an X.500 directory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

port HTTPS

A

443

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

port LDAPS

A

636

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

port FTPS

A

989 and 990

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

port RADIUS

A

1812

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

port RDP, purpose

A

3389, remote desktop protocol–connecting to another computer on the same network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

____ chips are secure cryptoprocessors used to authenticate hardware devices

A

TPM

38
Q

a ___ ____ checker tool computes a cryptographic hash and compares the result to known good values to ensure that the file has not been modified

A

file integrity

39
Q

____-_____ methods detect known signatures or patterns

A

signature-based

40
Q

a ___ _______ is used to allow multiple external users to access internal network resources using secure features that are built into the device. they are deployed when a single device needs to handle a very large number of VPN tunnels

A

VPN concentrator

41
Q

____ offers a method of enforcement which helps ensure that computers are properly configured

A

NAC (network access control)

42
Q

___ ____ is a model that provides a granular and dynamic access control, regardless of where the user or application resides, and doesn’t place trust in the entire network

A

zero trust

43
Q

a ____ ____ is a small network between the internal network and the Internet that provides a layer of security and privacy

A

screened subnet

44
Q

____ acts as a liaison between an internal network and the Internet across a routing device. it allows multiple computers to connect to the Internet using one IP address

A

NAT (network address translation)

45
Q

network segmentation, _____, and segmentation are effective controls an organization can implement to mitigate the effect of a network intrusion

A

isolation

46
Q

___ ____ are physically isolated machines or networks

A

air gaps

47
Q

network taps, ____, and mirror ports are the primary methods used to get network traffic to network monitoring tools

A

SPAN (switched port analyzer)

48
Q

the purpose of a ___ is to unite network nodes logically into the same broadcast domain, regardless of their physical attachment to the network

A

VLAN

49
Q

___ ___ is managed by 2 basic methods: knowledge based and behavior based detection

A

intrusion detection

50
Q

an ___ monitors packet data by using behavior-based (to identify anomalies) or knowledge-based methods, operating in network based or host based configurations

A

IDS (intrusion detection system)

51
Q

___ and _____ are designed to catch attacks in progress within a network, not just on individual machines or the boundary between private and public networks

A

NIDSs (network intrusion detection systems) and NIPSs (network intrusion prevention systems)

52
Q

____ ____ can be placed between the private network the Internet for Internet connectivity or can be placed internally for web content caching

A

proxy servers

53
Q

firewalls separate external and internal networks and include the following types:
_____-____ firewalls (network layer/layer 3)
____-____ firewalls, including circuit level (session layer/layer 5) and application level/level 7 gateways
____ _____ firewalls (application/layer 7)

A

packet filtering, proxy service, stateful inspection

54
Q

a _____ firewall works as a basic access control list filter

A

stateless

55
Q

_____ firewalls are a deeper inspection firewall type that analyze traffic patterns and data flows, often combining layered security and known as next gen firewalls

A

stateful

56
Q

_____ ____ methods, from the least secure to the most secure, include open authentication, shared authentication, EAP

A

wireless access methods

57
Q

___-___ requires a password shared by all devices on the network

A

WPA-personal

58
Q

____-___ requires certificates and uses an authentication server from which keys are distributed

A

WPA-enterprise

59
Q

___ and ___ favor CCMP over TKIP common to WPA. TKIP should still be used for systems that are unable to support ____

A

WPA2, WPA3, 802.1i

60
Q

EAP authentication protocols include EAP-TLS, _____, EAP-TTLS, and EAP-FAST. only ___ requires a client certificate, and only ___ does not require a server certificate

A

PEAP
EAP-TLS, EAP-FAST

61
Q

EAP is an _______ framework and is used by WPA, WPA2, and WPA3 for authentication

A

authentication

62
Q

_____ encapsulates EAP in a TLS tunnel and only requires a certicate on te server

A

PEAP

63
Q

______ and rooting mobile devices removes restrictions imposed by the manufacturer and can introduce risk

A

jailbreaking

64
Q

employees who leave an organization should have their accounts ____ but not deleted

A

disabled

65
Q

generic accounts used by multiple users must be _____

A

prohibited

66
Q

when working ____ controls, 2 models exist for the assignment of permissions and rights: ____ ____ and role/group based

A

logical, user

67
Q

too many failed authentication attempts should incur a penalty, such as account _______

A

lockout

68
Q

enforcing password history prevents users from _____ old passwords

A

reusing

69
Q

auditing user permissions is a common method for identifying access _____

A

violations

70
Q

a _____ system allows accessibility from each domain accounts in one area can be granted access rights to any other resource, whether local or remote within the domains

A

federation

71
Q

____ ____ ______ includes RADIUS or TACACS+

A

re,pte access authentication

72
Q

______ provides authentication and authorization functions in addition to network access accounting functions, but it does not provide further access control

A

RADIUS

73
Q

____ supports mutual authentication, protecting against on path attacks. port #

A

kerberos, port 88

74
Q

using ___ is strongly discouraged because user passwordds are easily readable

A

PAP

75
Q

____ provides authorization services and does not provide authentication such as ____ and ____

A

OAuth, OpenID, and SAML

76
Q

____ offers SSO capabilities

A

SAML

77
Q

the ___ is the source of a username and password and authenticates the user. the __ provides service to the user

A

IdP, SP

78
Q

access controls includes _____, ____, ____, and _____

A

MAC, DAC, ABAC, and RBAC

79
Q

____ and ____ cards provide smart card functions for identity and authentication

A

CACs, PIV

80
Q

implicit ____ is an access control practice in which resource availability is restricted to only logins that are explicitly granted access

A

deny

81
Q

PKI relies on _____ key cryptography using certificates, which are digitally signed blocks of data issued a CA (certificate authority)

A

asymmetric

82
Q

a ___ is generated and submitted before a CA (certificate authority) signs a certificate

A

CSR

83
Q

a root ___ should be taken offline to reduce the risk of key compromise because this would compromise the entire chain or system

A

CA

84
Q

the 3 types of validated certificates are: ___, ____, and ___

A

DV, OV, and EV

85
Q

___ certificates provide the highest level of trust and require the most effort for a CA (certificate authority) to validate

A

EV

86
Q

___ and PFX certificates are binary encoded; ___ and P7B certificates are ____ encoded, and the contents can easily be cut and pasted

A

DER
PEM
ASCII

87
Q

ensuring a certificates validity is accomplished through a ___ or ____

A

CRL, OCSP

88
Q

____ stapling puts the responsibility of ____ requests on the web server instead of on the issuing CA (certificate authority)

A

OCSP (for both)

89
Q

_________ protocol is a network file sharing protocol that allows applications on a computer to read and write to files and to request services from server programs in a computer network. Technically has 2 ports

A

SMB (server message block), port 139 (older version ran on top of NetBIOS allows computers to talk to each other over the same network)
port 445 (after Widows 2000, runs on top of TCP works over the Internet)

90
Q

____ _____ stores private key with a trusted 3rd party

A

key escrow

Security+ SYO-601 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions