Domain 3 - Security Architecture and Engineering Flashcards
Define Brewer-Nash model
The Brewer-Nash model allows access controls to change dynamically based upon a user’s actions.
What is the “ m of n “ control?
Harry would like to retrieve a lost encryption key from a database that uses m of n control, with m = 4 and n = 8. What is the minimum number of escrow agents required to retrieve the key?
In an m of n control system, at least m of n possible escrow agents must collaborate to retrieve an encryption key from the escrow database.
Digital signatures that are approved part of the federal Digital Signature Standard under FIPS 186-4
RSA
ECDSA
DSA
Another term for sandbox
Confinement
_______ is the degree of confidence that an organization has that its security controls are correctly implemented. It must be continually monitored and reverified.
A Trust
B Credentialing
C Verification
D Assurance
D.
Assurance is the degree of confidence that an organization has that its security controls are correctly implemented. It must be continually monitored and reverified.
Define Maintenance Hook
Maintenance hooks, otherwise known as backdoors, provide developers with easy access to a system, bypassing normal security controls. If not removed prior to finalizing code, they pose a significant security vulnerability if an attacker discovers the maintenance hook.
Define Biba model (two) attributes
a. Simple Integrity Property NO READ DOWN
b. *(star) Integrity Property NO WRITE UP
INTEGRITY ONLY!!NO READ DOWN, NO WRITE UP**
Define Bell-LaPadula model attributes
a. Simple Security Property. NO READ UP! Example: Secret cannot read up to TOP Secret
b. *(star) Security Property. NO WRITE DOWN Example: Moving TOP SECRET data to Secret level
CONFIDENTIALITY of DATA ONLY!!NO READ UP, NO WRITE DOWN**
Define Clark-Wilson model attributes
a. Preventing unauthorized users from making modifications to data or programs
b. Preventing authorized users from making improper or unauthorized modifications
c. Maintaining internal and external consistency of data and programs
INTEGRITY ONLY!!SUBJECT|PROGRAM|OBJECT**
What does TPM hardware restrict users from doing?
Prevents someone from accessing an encrypted drive by installing it in another computer.
Definition: Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware security technique that stores an encryption key on a chip on the motherboard
Asymmetric cryptosystem
sender of a message always encrypts the message using the recipient’s public key.
Recipient decrypts with recipients private key
Sender creates digital signature using sender private key. Recipient verifies signature using sender public key
What is a “salt” in terms of passwords?
salt is a random value added to a password before it is hashed by the operating system
What type of fire suppression system fills with water when the initial stages of a fire are detected and then requires a sprinkler head heat activation before dispensing water?
A. Wet Pipe
B. Dry Pipe
C. Deluge
D. Preaction
D.
A preaction fire suppression system activates in two steps. The pipes fill with water once the early signs of a fire are detected. The system does not dispense water until heat sensors on the sprinkler heads trigger the second phase.
What IPSEC configuration provides confidentiality for the content of packets?
ESP
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) protocol provides confidentiality and integrity for packet contents. It encrypts packet payloads and provides limited authentication and protection against replay attacks.
What are the 5 defining characteristics of cloud based technologies?
- On demand self service
- Broad Network Access
- Resource Pooling
- Rapid Elasticity
- Measured Service
What are the 3 cloud service models that everyone agrees on?
- SAAS (Software as a service)
- PAAS (Platform as a Service)
- IAAS (Infrastructure as a Service)
What are the four cloud deployment models?
- Private
- Community (Private cloud within Private
Cloud) - Public (World Wide Web)
- Hybrid (Mix of two or more of above)
Define Type I Hypervisor
Native Bare Metal
Example: eSXI, HYPER V
Define Type II Hypervisor
Hosted on a client O/S
Example: Virtual Box, Parallels. Application that runs on top of OS that provides virtualization
Define this OWASP attack type:
When un-trusted data is sent to an interpreter as part of a command query.
Injection.
SQL, NOSQL, OS, LDAP
Define this OWASP attack type:
Application functions related to authentication and session management are often implemented incorrectly, allowing attackers to compromise passwords, keys, or session tokens, or to exploit other implementation flaws to assume other users’ identities temporarily or permanently.
Broken Authentication
Attackers may steal or modify weakly protected data to conduct credit card fraud, identity theft, or other crimes. Sensitive data may be compromised without extra protection, such as encryption at rest or in transit, and requires special precautions when exchanged with the browser.
Sensitive Data Exposure
Define this OWASP attack type:
Many older or poorly configured XML processors evaluate external entity references within XML documents. External entities can be used to disclose internal files using the file URI handler, internal file shares, internal port scanning, remote code execution, and denial of service attacks.
XML External Entities (XXE)
Applications and in particular XML-based web services or downstream integrations might be vulnerable to attack if:
• The application accepts XML directly or XML uploads, especially from
untrusted sources, or inserts untrusted data into XML documents, which is then parsed by an XML processor.
• Any of the XML processors in the application or SOAP based web services has
document type definitions (DTDs) enabled. As the exact mechanism for disabling DTD processing varies by processor, it is good practice to consult a reference such as the OWASP Cheat Sheet ‘XXE Prevention’.
• If your application uses SAML for identity processing within federated
security or single sign on (SSO) purposes. SAML uses XML for identity assertions, and may be vulnerable.
• If the application uses SOAP prior to version 1.2, it is likely susceptible
to XXE attacks if XML entities are being passed to the SOAP framework.
Define this OWASP attack type:
Restrictions on what authenticated users are allowed to do are often not properly enforced. Attackers can exploit these flaws to access unauthorized functionality and/or data, such as access other users’ accounts, view sensitive files, modify other users’ data, change access rights, etc…
Broken Access Control
Define this OWASP attack type:
The most commonly seen issue. The result of insecure default configurations, incomplete or ad hoc configurations, open cloud storage, misconfigured HTTP headers, and verbose error messages containing sensitive information. Not only must all operating systems, frameworks, libraries, and applications be securely configured, but they must be patched and upgraded in a timely fashion.
Security Misconfiguration
Define this OWASP attack type:
flaws occur whenever an application includes untrusted data in a new web page without proper validation or escaping, or updates an existing web page with user-supplied data using a browser API that can create HTML or JavaScript.
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Define this OWASP attack type:
Often leads to remote code execution. Even if deserialization flaws do not result in remote code execution, they can be used to perform attacks, including replay attacks, injection attacks, and privilege escalation attacks.
Insecure Deserialization
Define this OWASP attack type:
Components, such as libraries, frameworks, and other software modules, run with the same privileges as the application. If a vulnerable component is exploited, such an attack can facilitate serious data loss or server takeover. Applications and APIs using components with known vulnerabilities may undermine application defenses and enable various attacks and impacts.
Using Components with Known Vulnerabilities
Define this OWASP attack type:
Insufficient logging and monitoring,
coupled with missing or ineffective integration with incident response, allows attackers to further attack systems, maintain persistence, pivot to more systems, and tamper, extract, or destroy data.
Insufficient Logging & Monitoring
Where should server rooms be located in a building?
a. should be located in or near center of building
b. should not be on ground floor if possible
c. should not be on top floor if possible
d. should not be in basement if possible
e. should be away from water, gas, sewer runs if possible
f. walls of space should have a MINIMUM fire rating of 1 hour
How many bits of keying material does the Data Encryption Standard use for encrypting information?
A. 56 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
A.
DES uses a 64-bit encryption key, but only 56 of those bits are actually used as keying material in the encryption operation. The remaining 8 bits are used to detect tampering or corruption of the key.
Which one of the following is not one of the basic requirements for a cryptographic hash function?
A. The function must work on fixed-length input.
B. The function must be relatively easy to compute for any input.
C. The function must be one way.Your selection is incorrect
D. The function must be collision free.
A.
Hash functions must be able to work on any variable-length input and produce a fixed-length output from that input, regardless of the length of the input.
CC Evaluation Assurance Levels (EALs)
EAL 1
Functionally tested
CC Evaluation Assurance Levels (EALs)
EAL 2
Structurally tested
CC Evaluation Assurance Levels (EALs)
EAL 3
Methodically tested & checked
CC Evaluation Assurance Levels (EALs)
EAL 4
Methodically designed, tested, reviewed
CC Evaluation Assurance Levels (EALs)
EAL 5
Semi-formally designed & tested
CC Evaluation Assurance Levels (EALs)
EAL 6
Semi-formally verified, designed, & tested
CC Evaluation Assurance Levels (EALs)
EAL 7
Formally verified, designed, tested
What does GPR (Ground Potential Rise) protect from?
Lightning Strikes
Whats an ideal temperature range?
60 - 75 degrees
15 - 23 degrees Celsius
Whats an ideal humidity range?
40 - 60%
How many stages are there to a fire?
4
- Incipient Stage
- Smoke Stage
- Flame Stage
- Heat Stage
What is Class A Fire extinguishers used for and whats the suppression material?
Common Combustibles;
Water and Soda Acid
What is Class B Fire extinguishers used for and whats the suppression material?
Liquids;
C02, Halon Equivalent, soda acid
