Domain 3: Hardware Quiz Flashcards
A company salesperson just returned to the United States after three months in Europe. Now the salesperson tells you that her PC, which worked fine in Europe, won’t turn on. What is the best solution?
Change the voltage from 230 to 115.
The computer will not work in the United States due to European licensing.
Install a power inverter to the power supply
Install a new power supply.
Change the voltage from 230 to 115
Most likely, the voltage selector was set to 230 V so that it could function properly in Europe (for example, in the UK). It needs to be changed to 115 V so that the power supply can work properly in the United States. Make sure to do this while the computer is off and unplugged. Note: For shorter trips, a person will most likely use a laptop, which would require the right adapter to convert the voltage properly.
A technician that is new to 3D printers needs to call service for a malfunctioning printer. The technician explains that the problem is with what looks to be a print-head. Which component does the tech report as a problem?
Motion Control
Build Plate
Bed
Extruder
Extruder
An extruder on a 3D printer is the equivalent of a print head in an inkjet printer. A motor in the extruder draws filament. It is melted and squirted onto the object.
A 3D printer has many moving parts. The gears, motors, and motion control enable the precise positioning of the extruder.
The print bed/build plate on a 3D printer is a flat glass plate onto which the material is extruded. The bed is usually heated to prevent the material from warping.
The bed/build surface on a 3D printer is a sheet placed onto the base plate to hold the object in position while printing but also allows its removal on completion.
Which of the following would you use if you needed a typical CPU for a PC that can access 16 GB of RAM?
x86-64
RISC
ARM
x86
x86-64
You would want an x86-64 CPU. This 64-bit CPU architecture can go beyond the 32-bit limitation of 4 GB of RAM and access as much as 256 TB of RAM (theoretically). Also, that is normally the type of CPU you would use in a PC. ARM-based CPUs are more often used with smartphones, tablets, and other mobile devices. Reduced instruction set computing (RISC) is a highly optimized technology used in ARM CPUs to make them more efficient. x86 is the older 32-bit version of PC-based CPUs. It is unlikely that you will see an x86 CPU, but you never know!
Which of the following is the proper order for the laser printing/imaging process?
Processing, charging, developing, exposing, fusing, transferring, cleaning
Developing, processing, charging, exposing, transferring, fusing, cleaning
Charging, exposing, developing, processing, transferring, fusing, cleaning
Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning
Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning
A user tries to connect a second monitor to a computer. The computer has an available digital visual interface (DVI) connector that outputs a digital signal and the monitor has a video graphics array (VGA) connector. A technician recommends an adapter for DVI to VGA and which type of cable?
DVI-A
DVI-I
USB-C
DVI-D
DVI-A
DVI-A is a technology that carries a digital signal to an analog device. This cable along with an adapter for a VGA connector is required.
DVI-D is available in both single link and dual link. A DVI-D cable is intended to be used between two digital devices. As VGA is analog, a DVI-D cable will not be useful.
DVI-I is a technology that is capable of connecting a digital source to a digital display or an analog source to an analog display. This scenario requires a digital to analog solution.
USB adapters to convert connector types, such as USB-C to USB-A but this is not applicable for this situation.
A technician is setting up a printer for a customer who prints professional graphics and presentations. Which print driver should be installed?
PCL
PostScript
SMB
ADF
PostScript
Know the difference between printer driver types: PostScript (less common, used for professional graphics and presentations) and PCL (more common, used for typical office printing). ADF, which stands for automatic document feeder, refers to a wonderful contraption that allows you to scan, copy, or fax multiple page documents without having to feed each page individually. SMB, which stands for Server Message Block, is a network file sharing protocol.
Which of the following connectors would you use to power a video card?
Molex
3.5-mm TRS
24-pin power
8-pin PCIe
8-pin PCIe
A video card is normally powered by a 6-pin or 8-pin PCIe connector. Lesser cards are simply powered by the PCIe bus. The 24-pin power connector is the main connector that leads from the power supply to the motherboard. Molex is used for fans, older IDE drives, and other secondary devices. 3.5 mm (or 1/8 inch) TRS is an audio connection.
A printer technician works in a corporate office. Their office has multiple types of printers that require regular maintenance. Which type of printer maintenance includes replacing and properly disposing of a toner print cartridge?
Laser printer maintenance
Impact printer Maintenance
3-D printer maintenance
Inkjet printer maintenance
Laser printer maintenance
Laser printers are printers that use toner for printing documents. Toner is kept in a cartridge that may need to be replaced during normal printer maintenance.
A 3D print process builds a solid object from successive layers of material. Though there are multiple types of 3-D printers with varying functions, common printer maintenance includes cleaning the print bed and extruder and replacing used filament.
Impact printers are printers that strike an inked ribbon against various forms of paper to leave a mark. Common maintenance includes replacing the ribbon and feeding in new tractor paper if used.
Inkjet printer maintenance commonly focuses on paper stocking and replacing or refilling ink cartridges.
A technician installs memory into a computer that supports a multi-channel configuration. A 4GB module is placed in bank A1 and a 16GB module is placed in bank B1. A diagnostic tool reports that 12GB is useable, but not as multi-channel. What mode does the system use in making all of the memory available?
Single-channel
Dual-channel
ECC
Flex
Flex
In flex mode, memory that is of equal value within each channel can work as dual-channel while the remainder of the memory will work in single-channel mode.
In a modern system, single-channel memory means that there is one 64-bit data bus between the central processing unit (CPU), memory controller, and RAM devices.
In a modern system with a dual-channel memory controller, there are two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the CPU. This means that 128 bits of data can be sent per transfer.
Error correcting code (ECC) RAM is used for systems that require a high level of reliability. For each data transfer, ECC RAM performs a hash calculation.
Which of the following technologies allows for a 256-bit-wide bus?
Quad-Channel
Task Manager
Virtual RAM
ECC
Quad-Channel
The quad-channel memory architecture can allow for a 256-bit-wide bus (64-bit per channel). However, this will only be the case if all four channels have memory installed to them. ECC, which stands for error correction code, can detect and correct errors in RAM. Virtual RAM is used in smartphones to “extend” the amount of usable RAM to the phone’s long-term storage. (It is known as virtual memory in Windows.) The Task Manager is a Windows program that is used to analyze the system.
Non-volatile storage devices hold data when the system is powered off. These devices are also referred to as mass storage. What are the three types of technologies that mass storage devices use? (Select all that apply.)
Solid-State
Magnetic
Optical
RAID
Magnetic, Optical, Solid-State
Magnetic drives, commonly called hard disk drives (HDDs), store data on metal or glass platters that are coated with a magnetic substance.
Optical drives, such as Compact Discs (CDs), DVDs, and Blu-Ray drives, use a laser to read data that has been encoded on the surface of the disc.
A solid-state drive (SSD) uses flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage.
A redundant array of independent disks (RAID) is not a mass storage device, rather it is a drive configuration with a given type of fault tolerance.
Several users of a shared printer complain that the printer is printing on both sides of a sheet of paper when it should only print on one side. What setting does a technician change?
Duplex
Quality
Badging
Orientation
Duplex
Duplex printing refers to the capability of a printer to print on both sides of a sheet of paper. The technician would adjust this setting to single-sided printing.
The orientation setting on a printer refers to having a print job use portrait or landscape mode.
Badging means the print device is fitted with a smart card reader. The employee must present their ID badge to the reader to start the print job.
The quality of a print job allows for the selection of the proper type of paper stock (size and type) to use and whether to use an economy or draft mode to preserve ink/toner.
An engineer configures 6 disks in a workstation to be part of a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) volume where one-sixth of the space on each disk will be used for parity. Which RAID type does the engineer implement?
10
5
1
0
5
RAID 5 requires a minimum of three drives but can be configured with more. When configuring RAID 5, an equal portion of each disk is used for parity.
RAID 0 requires a minimum of two drives but can be configured with more. As this type of RAID provides no redundancy, there is no parity information available.
RAID 1 is a mirrored drive configuration that uses two disks. A read operation may use either disk, however, a write operation is performed on both disks.
RAID 10 is a nested RAID configuration that combines the features of two basic RAID implementations. It pairs a logical striped volume (RAID 0) configured with two mirrored arrays (RAID 1).
A printer technician troubleshoots a laser printer and determines that the exposing stage of the print job is the issue with print jobs not looking correct. What does the technician suspect is happening?
The imaging drum is not being conditioned by the primary charge roller.
The OS driver is improperly encoding the page in a page description language.
The imaging drum is not properly losing its charge.
The toner is not being fed evenly onto a magnetized developer roller.
The imaging drum is not properly losing its charge.
In the exposing stage, as the laser receives the image information, it fires a short pulse of light for each dot in the raster to neutralize the charge that was applied by the PCR. In this stage, the imaging drum loses its charge when functioning properly.
During the processing stage, the OS driver encodes the page in a page description language and sends it to the print device for processing.
In the charging stage, the imaging drum is conditioned by the primary charge roller (PCR). The PCR is a metal roller with a rubber coating powered by a high voltage power supply assembly.
In the developing stage, the toner is fed evenly onto a magnetized developer roller from a hopper.
A technician works in a Windows environment and needs to consider how to make a print driver available for each supported client. Which type of driver requires that each specific version of Windows has its own driver?
Type 2
X64 (64-bit Windows)
Type 4
Type 3
Type 2
Type 2 printer drivers are older. Each specific version of Windows has its own driver. A technician would have to install the correct driver for each version of the Windows system that uses the printer.
Windows 10 began support for type 4 drivers. These drivers are designed where a single driver will work with multiple types of devices.
A type 3 driver is a Windows driver that supports multiple versions of Windows across the same platform (i.e. Windows x86 or Windows 64).
X64 Windows is a 64-bit Windows operating system. This OS style is designed to work with 64-bit processors. Various printer driver types can be installed on this OS platform.
To implement a Secure Boot process, which device should be listed first in the Boot Device Priority screen?
USB
Network
Hard Drive
CD-ROM
Hard Drive
To ensure that other users cannot boot the computer from removable media, set the first device in the Boot Device Priority screen to hard drive. (And consider Secure Boot and boot keys!)
What does multithreading do?
It gives you multiple cores within the CPU.
It enables four simultaneous threads to be processed by one CPU core
It enables two simultaneous threads to be processed by one CPU core.
It provides a high-speed connection from the CPU to RAM.
It enables two simultaneous threads to be processed by one CPU core.
Multithreading allows for an operating system to send two simultaneous threads to be processed by a single CPU core. The OS views the CPU core as two virtual processors. Multiple cores would imply multicore technology, which means there are two physical processing cores within the CPU package. HyperTransport is a high-speed connection used by AMD from the CPU to RAM.
A technician plugs a USB device into a computer and notices that the speeds are not as fast as expected. The USB port and device are USB 3.x devices, and the achieved speed is roughly 9 Gbps. What USB standard is in use?
USB 3.2 Gen 2x2
USB 3.2 Gen 1
USB 2.0
USB 3.2 Gen 2x1
USB 3.2 Gen 2x1
Variations of USB 3.x introduced new connector form factors and faster transfer rates than previous versions. USB 3.2 Gen 2x1 is capable of speeds up to 10 Gbps.
The USB 3.2 Gen 1 Superspeed USB standard is capable of up to 5 Gbps. The legacy designation of this standard is USB 3.0.
The USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 Superspeed USB is capable of 2 x 10 Gbps. While other standards can use a variety of connector types, this standard strictly uses USB-C.
USB 2.0 is a high speed standard that specifies a data rate of 480 Mbps that is shared between all devices attached to the same controller.
Which of the following best describes a specification for accessing storage while using PCI Express?
7200 RPM
3.5 Inch and 2.5 Inch
Hot-Swappable
NVMe
NVMe
Non-Volatile Memory Express (NVMe) is a specification for accessing storage while using PCI Express. Essentially, the M.2 slot on a motherboard taps into the PCI Express bus x4) and uses a portion of the total bandwidth associated with that bus. The platters in a hard disk drive (HDD) rotate at a certain speed. For example, 7200 RPM is common; other typical speeds include 5400 RPM and 10,000 RPM. Hot-swappable capability means drives can be removed and inserted while the system is on. SATA-based drives come in two main widths: 3.5-inch and 2.5-inch. 3.5-inch drives are used in desktop computers, network-attached storage, and other larger devices. 2.5-inch drives are used in laptops and other smaller devices.
If there is not enough system Random Access Memory (RAM), the memory space can be extended by using disk storage as a page file or swap space. What is this combination of addressable memory called?
ECC RAM
Dual-Channel memory controller
Address Space
Virtual RAM
Virtual RAM
The total amount of addressable memory (system RAM plus swap space) is referred to as virtual memory or virtual RAM. With virtual memory, the OS assigns memory locations to processes in 4-kilobyte chunks called pages.
Error correcting code (ECC) RAM is used for workstations and servers that require a high level of reliability.
Address space is the amount of memory locations the CPU can keep track of. A 32-bit CPU can access a 4GB address space, whereas a 64-bit CPU commonly uses a 48-bit address bus, allowing up to 256 Tb of memory.
With a dual-channel memory controller, there are two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the CPU.
A critical system is set to use secure boot. What properties are characteristic of the secure boot process? (Select all that apply.)
The microprocessor is hard coded with a unique key.
The firmware is configured with cryptographic keys.
The operating system boot loader is digitally signed.
It can be managed through the operating system.
The firmware is configured with cryptographic keys., The operating system boot loader is digitally signed.
Secure boot is a unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) feature designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. With secure boot, the computer firmware is configured with cryptographic keys.
With secure boot, the firmware can identify trusted code and ensure that the bootloader has been digitally signed by the OS vendor.
A trusted platform module (TPM) microprocessor is hard coded with a unique, unchangeable key, referred to as the endorsement key.
TPM can be enabled or disabled and reset via the system setup program. TPM can be managed from the OS as well.
A PC tech plugs a x8 PCIe adapter card into a x16 socket. What speed would the card be capable of running? (Select all that apply.)
x1
x8
x16
x4
x1, x8
A college would like to implement a secured print solution so that print jobs do not arrive at a printer until the printer is physically interacted with. This will help prevent students from potentially picking up faculty print jobs. Which two solutions does the IT department consider to accomplish this? (Select two.)
Badging
Driver
Permissions
PIN Code
PIN Code, Badging
A secured print job is held on the print device until the user authenticates directly with the print device. A PIN entry requires the user to input the correct password via the device control panel.
Secured print mitigates the risk of confidential information being intercepted from the output tray. Badging means the print device is fitted with a smart card reader that enables print output to be retrieved.
Drivers refer to the software required for a computer and computer application to communicate with a printer.
Permissions for a print job refer to the ability to send a job to the printer. Permissions are configured with software controls.
You have been tasked with connecting a newer Android smartphone to an external TV so that you can display the CEO’s smartphone screen during a meeting. Which of the following adapters would typically be the best solution?
Micro-USB to DVI
USB-C to DVI
Micro-USB to HDMI
USB-C to Ethernet
USB-C to HDMI
USB-C to HDMI
Typically, you would use USB-C to HDMI. If it is a newer Android smartphone, then chances are it will have a USB-C port. If you are attempting to connect it to a TV, HDMI is the most likely port to use. Micro-USB is used with some mobile devices, but newer devices (especially Android devices) have switched to USB-C. You wouldn’t want USB-C to DVI because TVs normally don’t have DVI inputs. USB to Ethernet helps convert from a computer or mobile device to the Ethernet network. These devices can ultimately allow a device or computer with a USB port to access the Internet. This wired connection might be favoured over wireless for its speed, quality connection, and low latency.
A technician builds a spare computer with an older motherboard and purchases a new modular power supply. What type of motherboard connector will the power supply most likely provide?
20+4 Pin
20 Pin
24 Pin
8 Pin
20+4 Pin
Most modular power supply units (PSUs) have a 20+4-pin P1 adapter cable for compatibility with older motherboards with a 20-pin port.
Most modern systems and newer motherboards are now based on the ATX12V version 2 specification. This defines a 24-pin (2x12) P1 form factor for a motherboard PSU connection.
Motherboards with a 20-pin power port have been replaced with newer boards that have a 24-pin port.
A PSU will usually have several Molex and/or SATA device power connectors and 4/6/8-pins used for motherboard peripherals such as the CPU and adapter cards.
A laptop technician replaces the power supply in a desktop system. To do this, the technician needs to know the output of the current power supply unit (PSU). What is the PSU output capability measured as?
Voltage
Efficiency
Power
Wattage Rating
Wattage Rating
The PSU’s output capability is measured as its wattage rating. Power is measured in watts (W), calculated for electrical components as voltage multiplied by current (V*I).
The voltage coming into a PSU is the input voltage. Though it is important to assess the power distribution for its output voltages, it is not how the PSU output capability is measured.
Power is the rate at which things generate or use energy. Power is measured in watts (W), calculated for electrical components as voltage multiplied by current (V*I).
The efficiency is calculated as wattage drawn from the power grid divided by the wattage the PSU is rated at. This is not, however, how the PSU output capability is measured.
A user complains that a computer is too slow when opening numerous applications. A technician suggests purchasing a new computer that features CMP capabilities to handle the user’s workload. Which statement describes the technician’s suggestion?
A multi-socket motherboard for multiple CPUs
Two processors combined in the same package
Multiple parallel thread capability within a process
A single execution unit and set of registers for processes
Two processors combined in the same package
A multi-core central processing unit (CPU) is multiple processors combined in one. This means that there are multiple execution units and registers. This is referred to as chip level multiprocessing (CMP).
A single-core CPU has a single execution unit and set of registers implemented on a single package. This essentially means that the system has a single processor.
The use of two or more physical CPUs is referred to as symmetric multiprocessing (SMP). An SMP-aware OS can then make efficient use of CPUs on a multi-socket motherboard.
Simultaneous multithreading (SMT) is referred to as HyperThreading by Intel. A thread is a stream of instructions generated by a software application. SMT allows the threads to run through the CPU at the same time.
An engineer plans a fiber cable implementation between two campus buildings. Due to the distance between the locations, the engineer selects single-mode fiber. What specifications does the engineer need to consider with this decision?
Large core, short distances, long wavelength
Large core, long distances, short wavelength
Small core, short distances, short wavelength
Small core, long distances, long wavelength
Small core, long distances, long wavelength
Single-mode fiber (SMF) has a small core (8-10 microns) and is designed to carry a long wavelength over long distances.
Multi-mode fiber (MMF) does not support such high signaling speeds or long distances as single-mode. MMF uses less expensive and less coherent LEDs or vertical cavity surface emitting lasers.
Multi-mode fiber (MMF) has a larger core than single-mode fiber (62.5 or 50 microns) and is designed to carry a short wavelength infrared light.
Single-mode cables support data rates up to 10 Gbps or better and cable runs many kilometers, depending on the optics and cable quality.
A hardware technician replaces the central processing unit (CPU) on an Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) motherboard. What must be applied when connecting the heat sink to the CPU?
CPU Socket
Thermal Paste
Pin Grid Array (PGA)
Locking Lever
Thermal Paste
During the installation of the heat sink on top of the CPU, a small amount of thermal grease must be applied in an X-pattern to allow for heat transference to be most successful.
The CPU locking lever is on the motherboard and is used to lock the CPU in place. This is done before the heat sink is installed.
The CPU socket is the socket on the motherboard where the CPU will be installed.
PIN Grid Array (PGA) is a type of CPU socket form factor that is used by AMD processors.
A new computer experiences a malfunction. A support engineer disassembles the computer to diagnose the problem. While troubleshooting, which component would the technician find as a 9-pin header on the motherboard?
USB Port
Audio Port
Drive Light Activity
Power Button
USB Port
Internal USB 2 connections are made via 9-pin headers, which accept up to two 4-pin port connections while the 9th pin is to orient the cable correctly.
The power button is not a 9-pinned header and is used to send a signal that can be interpreted by the OS as a command to shut down rather than switching the PC off.
Drive (HDD/SSD) activity lights are active when an internal storage disk is being accessed.
Audio ports allow speakers and/or headphones and a microphone to be connected to the computer.
