Domain 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Select the vulnerabilities that can influence routing. (Select all that apply.)

A

Route Inection, ARP poisoning, fingerprinting
Fingerprinting is when a port scanner uses a tool such as Nmap that can reveal the presence of a router and which dynamic routing and management protocols it is running.

Route injection means that traffic is misdirected to a monitoring port (sniffing), sent to a blackhole (non-existent address), or continuously looped around the network, causing DoS.

Address resolution protocol (ARP) poisoning or internet control message protocol (ICMP) redirect is tricking hosts on the subnet into routing through the attacker’s machine, rather than the legitimate default gateway. This allows the attacker to eavesdrop on communications and perform replay or man in the middle (MitM) attacks.

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2
Q

Management has setup a feed or subscription service to inform users on regular updates to the network and its various systems and services. The feed is only accessible from the internal network. What else can systems administrators do to limit the service to internal access?

A

Provission SSO access
Provisioning single sign on (SSO) access on the feed will provide access to logged in users as soon as the feed is configured on their email application or Intranet portal.

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3
Q

Two project managers are on the phone, discussing plans for a new site. The call changes over to video, as a way for one site manager to show a schematic on a wall. Compare types of communication services and determine which service the project managers are using.

A

Unified communications and or HTTPS (depending on question and answer).
The project managers are utilizing Unified Communications (UC). These solutions are messaging applications that combine multiple communications channels and technologies into a single platform. These communications channels can include voice, messaging, interactive whiteboards, data sharing, email, and social media.
HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is used to encrypt Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connections. Websites for banking, email, or shopping should use HTTPS to encrypt data for protection of the data being submitted.

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4
Q

Consider the principles of web server hardening and determine which actions a system administrator should take when deploying a new server. (Select all that apply.)

A

Use SSH for uploading files, Use the configuration templates provided, secure a guest account.
Most web servers must allow access to guests. The guest account must be secured so that it cannot be used to modify any data on the server.

A secure means of uploading files and configuration changes needs to be used, such as Secure Shell (SSH).

Web servers should be deployed using configuration templates where possible. This will assist the administrator with hardening the system.

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5
Q

A system administrator completes a file transfer by negotiating a tunnel before the exchange of any commands. Evaluate the file transfer protocols to conclude which protocol the admin used. (Select all that apply.)

A

FTPES, FTPS
File Transfer Protocol over SSL (FTPS) implicitly negotiates a Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS) tunnel before the exchange of any File Transfer Protocol (FTP) commands. This mode uses the secure port 990 for the control connection.

Explicit FTP over SSL (FTPES) uses the AUTH TLS command to upgrade an unsecure connection established over port 21 to a secure one. This negotiates a SSL/TLS tunnel explicitly and is preferred over FTPS.

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6
Q

In which of the following cases can Transport Layer Security (TLS) be used to provide encrypted communication of services? (Select all that apply.)

A

File transfer, directory services, and web
File transfer services can use the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol to encrypt communication such as File Transfer Protocol Secure (FTPS). A TLS tunnel is negotiated before the exchange of any FTP commands.

Directory services can encrypt traffic, for example, using the Lightweight Directory Authentication Protocol Secure (LDAPS). Credentials are encrypted when in transit to a directory service like Windows Active Directory.

Web services use TLS to encrypt traffic between users and a bank’s web site, for example. The latest TLS version 1.3 is approved as of 2018.

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7
Q

A network engineer is securing communication between two applications on a private network. The applications will communicate using Internet protocol security (IPSec). Recommend the settings that will provide IP header integrity and encrypted data payload. (Select all that apply.)

A

ESP protocol, AH protocol, and Transport mode
The Authentication Header (AH) protocol performs a cryptographic hash on the whole packet, including the IP header, plus a shared secret key (known only to the communicating hosts) and adds this HMAC in its header as an Integrity Check Value (ICV).

The Encapsulation Security Payload (ESP) protocol provides confidentiality and/or authentication and integrity. It encrypts the data payload.

Transport mode secures communications between hosts on a private network (an end-to-end implementation). AH and ESP running transport mode provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for internal secure communication.

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8
Q

A developer writes code for a new application and wants to ensure protective countermeasures for SQL injection execute. What secure coding technique will provide this?

A

Input validation
Input validation verifies data is valid. Proper input validation uses a set of rules to validate entries in fields for proper use. In the event an entry is invalid, the application will reject the entry. It is a secure coding practice.

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9
Q

Repeated attempts to access a remote server at a branch office from an unknown IP address occurred. Logs from a network appliance show the same unknown traffic going to other areas of the internal network. Which of the following best provides an active and passive protection at the server level? (Select all that apply.)

A

HIDS and HIPS
Host Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) is software located on the host system and has an active response to threats. In the example of an unknown IP range trying to gain access to a server, the HIPS at the server level will block the connection.

Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) is also software located on the host system. It can log and notify admins or users about intrusion attempts without an active response, like denying or blocking.

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10
Q

Which of the following is NOT a concept in a Secure DevOps project?

A

Attestation
Attestation is similar to the secure boot process by checking files against a remote system. It is not a part of Secure DevOps.

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11
Q

A user reported the system being taken over for a few minutes (remotely) before deciding to power off the workstation. After reviewing the Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) during the time of the incident, there was no indication of unauthorized remote connections. What would be the benefits of installing a Host Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) at the end points? (Select all that apply.)

A
Protection from zero-day attacks and prevent malicious traffic between VMs
Virtual machines (VM) on a virtual stack communicate with each other immediately through a virtual switch where physical NIDS or NIPS do not exist. In this case, a Host Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) will prevent malicious traffic between the VM.

HIPS are equipped with heuristic monitoring techniques to protect against zero-day attacks. For example, it can gauge a baseline state of the system and take immediate action when an unknown service acts maliciously.

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12
Q

An administrator tries to remotely access a virtual Windows 2016 server, but the connection fails. The admin pings the server and there is no packet loss. Regular services, such as file shares, still work for users. Which of the following is most likely causing the connection failures?

A

Windows Firewall
A Windows Firewall is a host-based firewall application that can set in-bound and out-bound rules for the system. The Windows firewall has a rule for RDP (remote desktop protocol) connections that may be disabled, therefore blocking any incoming RDP attempts.

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13
Q

An organization deployed a new internal Line of Business (LOB) application that contains custom code. As part of a risk assessment, it requires testing the application for threat vulnerabilities. Considering the available testing approaches, which implementation would satisfy assessment requirements?

A

Fuzzing
Fuzzing is a dynamic analysis technique that checks code as it is running. When using fuzzing, the system is attacked with random data to check for code vulnerabilities.

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14
Q

Two virtual hosts run on a stack and each host runs a virtual machine (VM). Both VMs use shared storage, and an admin must provide stateful fault tolerance. The Enterprise services running on these VMs must work on both virtual hosts and continue working if one of the virtual hosts goes offline. What cluster set up would provide the functionality the organization requires?

A

An Active/Active configuration consisting of n nodes.
An active/active cluster provides Enterprise services to clients from both virtual servers. All services will transparently transfer to the other server if one virtual host goes offline.

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15
Q

A hacker infiltrated a commercial stock image company and found a file share full of free images that users could download via a web server. The hacker replaced each image with malicious code, hoping the free images will get downloaded onto unsuspecting users’ computers. Which of the following can prevent this attack method?

A

File integrity monitoring
File integrity monitoring is a feature available in most antivirus software or HIPS (Host-based Intrusion Prevention System). HIPS can capture a baseline of the image, any radical change (like an image) using hashing algorithms, will flag the incident, and quarantine the files.

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16
Q

Users are reporting jittery video communication during routine video conferences. What can a system administrator implement to improve video quality and overall use of the network bandwidth?

A

Use 802.1p header
Switches that support quality of service uses the 802.1p header to prioritize frames. This will improve video conferences and make efficient use of the overall network bandwidth.

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17
Q

A network administrator wants to set up a load balancing cluster to manage traffic to a web server farm. The load balancer will route traffic based on the type of requests coming in from internal users. Design a solution that would provide at minimum a failover solution and proper configuration for a load balancing cluster. (Select all that apply.)

A

create virtual IP address, set up an active/passive topology
An active/passive topology will ensure a proper failure capability. Requests will continually flow through one load balancer and through the secondary if the primary fails.

A virtual IP address ensures a smooth transition over to the secondary load balancer if the primary fails. Users or other services will only need to know one destination IP address to reach the web server farm.

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18
Q

A concentrator placed on a firewall or router combines multiple sensors to gather data for processing by an intrusion detection system. Identify this device.

A

Collector
A collector combines multiple sensors to collect internet traffic for processing by an Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and other systems. Depending on where the collector is placed determines the type of traffic analyzed.

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19
Q

Two virtual machines have a custom application set up for active/active clustering. Each physical node has the appropriate number of network adapters for clustering, as well as service communication to clients. Cisco backs the company’s infrastructure and has also made recommendations. Which of the following will most likely support these customer services? (Select all that apply.)

A

VIP, GLBP
Each server node has its own IP address, but externally a load-balanced service is advertising a Virtual IP (VIP) address. Clients go to an IP address or FQDN (fully qualified domain name) and will be routed accordingly between the servers in the cluster.

Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) is Cisco’s proprietary service to providing a load-balanced service with a VIP. The infrastructure is Cisco-based, so this service will most likely be implemented.

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20
Q

A user purchased a home wireless router. The user was not able to connect a laptop to the wireless router by pressing the Wi-Fi Protected Setup button. What can the user do to establish a proper connection with the wireless router? (Select all that apply.)

A

Enter pin manually, use compatible NIC
Wi-Fi protected access (WPS) works with applicable devices that are compatible. WPS is dependent on the type of wireless interface card (NIC) on the printer or laptop.

The user can connect to the wireless router without WPS using a passphrase or PIN that is printed on the router device. The user selects the wireless router in the laptop’s desktop, and enters the passphrase or PIN when prompted.

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21
Q

A network administrator placed three wireless access points (WAPs) on a single floor in a high-rise building. The floor has approximately 20 rooms with some offices separated by walls. What are some appropriate strategies to ensure all users have secure, uninterrupted access to the wireless network? (Select all that apply.)

A

separate channels by 20 MHZ, configure WPA3-enterprize security
Channels have ~5 MHz spacing, but Wi-Fi requires 20 MHz of channel space. Providing adequate spacing ensures maximum network bandwidth and minimum interference.

Wi-Fi Protected Access version 3 (WPA3) with enterprise security allows users to log in to a wireless access point using their own credentials. This passes authentication to a RADIUS server, for example, before allowing the user access.

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22
Q

A network administrator enables Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) on a Cisco Wireless Local Area Network (LAN) Controller. 802.1x is also enabled. How will the network admin complete setup for Enterprise mode?

A

Enter secret key for RADIUS server
A Remote Access Dial-in User Server (RADIUS) is required to complete the 802.1x setup. The wireless controller connects to the RADIUS server with a shared secret key, then credentials can be properly authenticated.

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23
Q

Which authentication protocol requires both a server and client-side public certificate?

A

EAP-TLS
Extensible Authentication Protocol with Transport Layer Security (EAP-TLS) requires a server and client-side public key certificate. An encrypted TLS tunnel is established between the supplicant and authentication server using this method.

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24
Q

What are the benefits of using Wi-Fi heat maps for wireless networks? (Select all that apply.)

A

Find location of strong signals, determine where to place access points, survey for signal strength, determine which channels overlap

A heat map can show where a signal is strong (red) or weak (green/blue), and which channel is being used and how they overlap.

A site survey is used to measure signal strength and channel usage throughout an area. This can be determined by using a heat map. A site survey starts with an architectural map of the site.

Wi-Fi requires 20 MHz of channel space. Reading the heat map can ensure adequate channel spacing between each access point to reduce channel interference.
Location of access points, especially those using the same channel, will compete for bandwidth. A heat map can determine weak spots so devices can be physically spaced out.

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25
Q

A company using Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) wireless security on their Wireless Access Points (WAPs) uses Lightweight EAP (LEAP) to authenticate users to the network. LEAP is vulnerable to password cracking. What other options does the company have to mitigate this vulnerability? (Select all that apply.)

A

PEAP and EAP FAST
Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST) is Cisco’s replacement for LEAP. It addresses LEAP vulnerabilities using Transport Layer Security (TLS) with Protected Access Credential (PAC) instead of certificates.

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol (PEAP) uses a server-side public key certificate to create an encrypted tunnel between the supplicant and authentication server. This an industry standard.

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26
Q

A retail company would like to have a coupon automatically sent to smartphones located within 500 feet of their store entrance. Recommend the technology that can achieve this function.

A

Geofencing
Geofencing is the practice of creating a virtual boundary based on real-world geography. An organization may use geofencing to create a perimeter around its office property.

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27
Q

A company uses AirWatch for a complete management of corporate-owned and personal devices, such as iPhones and laptops. They want the ability to approve which applications employees can install, secure the data if the laptop is stolen, and keep personal data separate from corporate data on personal phones. Which features of AirWatch benefit the company? (Select all that apply).

A

Full Drive Encryption (FDE), Application management, Containerization
AirWatch can set policies that say which applications on the mobile phone a user can use. It can also restrict the use of the App store icon on iPhone devices.

AirWatch with Windows 10 can manage and deploy full drive encryption that is beneficial for laptops. Hackers will not be able to decrypt the stolen laptop or hard drive without a recovery password or key.

Containerization allows the employer to manage and maintain the portion of an employee’s personal device that interfaces with the corporate network. An example of this is the use of Workspace One apps from VMware for mobile devices.

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28
Q

Risks can occur when using Wi-Fi from users connecting to certain access points. Which of the following illustrate this? (Select all that apply.)

A

Rogue access and open access
The risks from Wi-Fi come from users connecting to open access points or possibly a rogue access point imitating a corporate network. These allow the access point owner to launch any number of attacks, even potentially compromising sessions with secure servers (using an SSL stripping attack, for instance).

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29
Q

What authorization options are available for a user when making a credit card payment from an Android smartphone using Samsung Pay? (Select all that apply.)

A

Thumbprint, pin, password
A password is the most basic option to authorizing a payment using Samsung Pay. It is linked to the password also used to unlock the device.

A personal identifiable number (PIN) is another basic and simple-to-remember option to authorize a Samsung Pay payment. The minimum PIN length is four.

Using a thumbprint is a more advanced biometric option to authorize a Samsung Pay payment. Multiple fingerprints can be registered to use this option.

30
Q

An employer uses containerization techniques to deploy apps on a user’s smartphone. How may these containers help the company’s IT services? (Select all that apply.)

A

Manage content provided to users, push company wide notifications, and allow users to user their own device
Containerization allows the employer to manage and maintain the portion of the device that interfaces with the corporate network. In doing so, any device can be managed in a way to provide content directly to the users.
Containers provide the ability for secure sharing of company data and services on personal devices that users bring to work. Containers also assist data loss prevention (DLP) systems.

Container apps can provide automated push notifications directly from the company on any connected device.

31
Q

Analyze the scenarios and determine which attacks would likely cause Near Field Communications (NFC) vulnerabilities. (Select all that apply.)

A

Certain antenna configuration may pick up the radio frequency (RF) signals, An attacker may be able to corrupt data as it is being transferred, and an attacker with a reader may be able to skim information from the NFC device.
Certain antenna configurations may be able to pick up the Radio Frequency (RF) signals emitted by NFC from several feet away, giving an attacker the ability to eavesdrop from a more comfortable distance.

An attacker with a reader will be able to skim information from an NFC device in a crowded area, such as a busy train.

An attacker may be able to corrupt data as it is being transferred through a method like a Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack. This type of attack floods the area with an excess of RF signals to interrupt the transfer.

32
Q

A user owns an iOS mobile device and would like the ability to sideload applications. Evaluate the methods of obtaining privilege escalation on mobile devices and recommend what action the user should take.

A

Boot the device with a patched kernal while attached to a computer.
Jailbreaking is popular for iOS devices as they are more restrictive than Android. This gives users the ability to obtain root privileges, sideload apps, change or add carriers, and customize the interface. It is accomplished by booting the device with a patched kernel and can be done when the device is attached to a computer when it boots.

33
Q

What security issues can occur when using a Bluetooth device? (Select all that apply.)

A

Malware, Device Discovery, Authentication and authorization?
Device discovery occurs when a device can be put into discoverable mode, meaning that it will connect to any other Bluetooth devices nearby, which can pose a security issue.

Malware occurs when there are proof-of-concept Bluetooth worms and application exploits, which can compromise any active and unpatched system, regardless of whether discovery is enabled and without requiring any user intervention.

Authentication and authorization occur when devices authenticate using a simple passkey configured on both devices.

34
Q

Mobile device management (MDM) makes it possible for corporations to perform device reset and remote wipes on a corporate-owned mobile device. What else is MDM capable of controlling? (Select all that apply.)

A

camera use, microphone recording

Mobile device management (MDM) sets device policies for authentication, connectivity, and feature use like a camera. Disabling a camera on a corporate-owned device can assist with employee privacy.
MDM can also set device policies for microphone recordings. Disabling device features can help mitigate risk of exposure to vulnerabilities that may allow malicious actors to take advantage of them if the device ever becomes compromised.

35
Q

A malicious actor was able to hack an old television set with a mobile device and cause an interruption by changing the channels. How did the malicious actor most likely perform the hack?

A
use an infrared signal
An infrared (IR) signal such as an IR blaster on a capable smartphone can interact with the IR receiver on a television set to manipulate the current channel viewing.
36
Q

The company policy requires secured smartphones to protect them from unauthorized access in case they are lost or stolen. To prevent someone from accessing a smartphone, what type of security control should admin utilize?

A

screen lock
Access control can be implemented by configuring a screen lock that can only be bypassed using the correct password, PIN, or swipe pattern.

37
Q

Evaluate the methods of obtaining privilege escalation on mobile devices and conclude which is an example of jailbreaking.

A

A user boots the device with a patched kernel while the device is attached to a computer.

38
Q

Cloud service providers make services available to multiple regions around the world. The concept of zone-redundant storage assumes what type of high availability service level?

A
Regional replication and High availability
Regional replication (also called zone-redundant storage) replicates your data across multiple data centers within one or two regions.

Replicating data to a different zone in a region, or in multiple regions, makes the data highly available. This is especially true for customers who are around the world but need quicker access to data from the nearest cloud data center.

39
Q

Cloud services are highly vulnerable to remote access. Many automated services will communicate with the cloud platform using application programing interfaces (APIs), which are at risk to external take over and other remote attacks. As a cloud administrator, enforce strong policies to mitigate these risks. (Select all that apply.)

A

Install third party password manager and assign secret keys.
Assigning secret keys is a part of proper cloud secrets management techniques. Assigning secret keys to service accounts for use with programmatic access is ideal when working with application programming interfaces (APIs).

A third-party password manager can store account secrets keys, along with their regular account credentials so they are safe and rotated (or changed) on a regular basis.

40
Q

Which of the following provides both data loss prevention (DLP) and cloud access security broker (CASB) for client access to websites and cloud applications?

A

Next generation secure web gateway.
A next-generation secure web gateway (NSWG) includes the features of a standard SWG, as well as data loss prevention (DLP) and a cloud access security broker (CASB), to provide a wholly cloud-hosted platform for client access to websites and cloud apps.

41
Q

A company is planning a hybrid cloud environment where a single cloud storage resource is purchased for the sole purpose of storing backups off-site. Only the on-site backup appliance will have access to the cloud storage. What should the IT team consider when designing a secure network that isolates communication between the backup solution and cloud platform?

A

Firewall filtering at layer 3.
Firewall filtering at layer 3 of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model can isolate communication between the on-site backup solution and the cloud storage service via IP address. This prevents other services or external threats from access the cloud resource.

42
Q

Which of the following makes it possible for cloud service providers (CSP) to create a virtual instance and container simultaneously?

A

Dynamic resource allocation
Dynamic resource allocation is the on-demand service capabilities that cloud service providers can provide. CSPs can create a virtual instance or container with X amount of resources any time.

43
Q

A cloud administrator wants to directly connect a cloud server instance with another cloud server instance and privately on Amazon Web Services (AWS). How can this be configured without going through an Internet gateway?

A

Configure VPC endpoint interface
A virtual private cloud (VPC) endpoint is a means of publishing a service that is accessible by instances in other VPCs using the AWS internal network and private IP addresses. An interface endpoint makes use of AWS’s PrivateLink feature to allow private access.

44
Q

Which policies can assist in preventing external threats from using stolen employee credentials of a world-wide organization in a different country? (Select all that apply.)

A

Geotagging and Lockout policy

45
Q

A user cannot log on to the network due to an IP address at a different office. Which of the following would prevent this type of account restriction?

A

Geolocation?

46
Q

Which of the following can be used with Kerberos authentication and a personal identification number (PIN) to securely log a user into a workstation?

A

Smart Card
Smart-card authentication means programming cryptographic information onto a card equipped with a secure processing chip. Smart-card logon works with Kerberos authentication.

47
Q

Which policies can assist in preventing external threats from using stolen employee credentials of a world-wide organization in a different country? (Select all that apply.)

A

Smart card and Risky login policies.
A risky login (also known as impossible travel time) policy tracks the location of login events over time. If these do not meet a threshold, the account will be disabled, notifying the real user of an account issue.

A smart card policy will only allow a user to login if the proper smart card and included user certificate is presented to the authentication service.

48
Q

A user cannot log on to the network due to an IP address at a different office. Which of the following would prevent this type of account restriction?

A

Network location
A network location identifies a user or device based on an IP address, subnet, virtual LAN (VLAN), or organizational unit (OU). This can be used as an account restriction mechanism.

49
Q

A virtualization product allows remote users to log in to a web portal from the Internet to access multiple corporate applications using a single sign-on (SSO) feature. Employees can log in to the portal, and each department has access to their respective applications. What design components make it possible for the remote users to log in and gain access to their work just like they would at the office? (Select all that apply.)

A

The use of an Identity provider and the use of identity attributes.
The identity provider is the service that provisions the user account and processes authentication requests. In this scenario, various protocols and frameworks are available to implement federated identity management across web-based services.
Identity attributes enable access management systems to make informed decisions about whether to grant or deny an entity access. A person’s role is an example of an identity attribute.

Identity attributes enable access management systems to make informed decisions about whether to grant or deny an entity access. A person’s role is an example of an identity attribute.

50
Q

The current network uses Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) to provide multiple types of authentication protocols. If an administrator deploys a wireless access point (WAP), which of the following would allow for port-based network access control?

A

IEE 802.1x
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 802.1X Port-based Network Access Control (NAC) protocol provides the means of using an Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) method when a device connects to an Ethernet switch port, wireless access point (WAP), or virtual private network (VPN) gateway.

51
Q

The keys for unlocking an encrypted solid-state drive (SSD) will most likely be stored where?

A

TPM
A trusted platform module (TPM) is a secure cryptoprocessor enclave implemented on a PC, laptop, smartphone, or network appliance. It is commonly used to store the keys to unlock an encrypted hard drive or solid-state drive.

52
Q

What type of attacks do Kerberos authentication protect against? (Select all that apply.)

A

Replay attacks and Man-in-the-middle attacks

Kerberos protects against replay attacks by timestamping the keys involved.

Kerberos protects against man-in-the-middle attacks by performing mutual authentication between the principal and the Application Server (AS).

53
Q

Which authentication protocol provides efficient authorization methods and encrypted data packets when managing network routers?

A

TACACS+
Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+) is specifically designed for network administration of routers. TACACS+ data packets are encrypted and make it easier for network admins to work with multiple routers simultaneously.

54
Q

How does Security Association Markup Language (SAML) allow a Service Provider (SP) to trust an Identity Provider (IdP) in a federated network?

A

SAML tokens are signed with an eXtensible Markup Language (XML) digital signature.
Security Association Markup Language (SAML) authorizations or tokens are written and signed with the eXtensible Markup Language (XML) signature specification; this digital signature allows the service provider to trust the identity provider.

55
Q

How does Kerberos protect against an On-path attack?

A

By performing mutual authentication
Mutual authentication assures that the client and the server are authenticated to one another, and an attacker cannot intercept the communications exchanged between the two.

56
Q

What is the primary difference between OAuth and OpenID Connect (OIDC)?

A

OAuth provides authorization services only, while OpenID connect (OIDC) provides federated authentication.
The “auth” in OAuth stands for “authorization,” not authentication. This is an easy method to distinguish between OAuth and OpenID Connect (OIDC). OAuth facilitates the transfer of information between sites with authentication delegated to the OAuth provider, not the OAuth consumer. OIDC authenticates federated applications.

57
Q

In a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which option best describes how users and multiple Certificate Authorities (CA) share information and exchange certificates?

A

Trust Model
The trust model is a concept of the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to show how users and different Certificate Authorities (CA) can trust one another. This is detailed in a certificate’s certification path leading back to the root CA.

58
Q

A company with multiple types of archived encrypted data is looking to archive the keys needed to decrypt the data. However, the company wants to separate the two in order to heavily guard these keys. Analyze the scenario to determine the most likely key placement.

A

Key escrow
Key escrow refers to the archiving of a key (or keys) with a third party. This is a useful solution for organizations that do not have the capability to store keys securely but are able to fully trust the third party.

59
Q

There are various formats for encoding a certificate as a digital file for exchange between different systems. One difference is storing both public and private keys versus only storing a public key. Which of the following stores both public and private keys? (Select all that apply.)

A

.PFX and .P12
The Public Key Cryptography Standards (PKCS) #12 or .P12 format allows the export of the private key with the certificate. This would be used either to transfer a private key to a host that could not generate its own keys, or to back up/archive a private key.

The .PFX extension uses the same binay format as .P12 and is commonly used in Windows. MacOS and iOS commonly use the .P12 extension.

60
Q

A network administrator is importing a list of certificates from an online source so employees can trust and communicate securely with public websites. Another set of certificates were imported in order to trust and securely communicate with intranet sites and other internal resources. Which type of certificate is currently being imported?

A

Root
Public root certificates allow for users to trust a public website using a chain of trust to the root authority. Private organizations must load employee web browsers with internal root certificates to verify internal websites.

61
Q

A new business owner recently completed an extended validation process to set up a trusted, valid website for secure public communication. The owner complained about how a domain validation would have been an easier process. Analyze and explain how a domain validation represents an easier solution in this situation.

A
Email to a point of contact
Domain Validation (DV) is proving the ownership of a domain, which may be proved by responding to an email to the authorized point of contact. This process is highly vulnerable to compromise.
62
Q

A system admin received a support ticket regarding a website error. Browsing to company.com in Internet Explorer, the site looks safe and trusted. However browsing to payment.company.com, the website is no longer trusted. Knowing a wildcard certificate was installed, how would the admin resolve this error?

A

Update SAN
Subject Alternative Name (SAN) is an extension field on a web server certificate using multiple subdomain labels to support the identification of the server.

63
Q

Many certificates are used to verify identity. Which type of certificate could be issued to network appliances?

A

Machine
Regardless of function, it may be necessary to issue certificates to machines such as servers, PCs, smartphones, and tablets. Machine certificates may be issued to network appliances, such as routers, switches, and firewalls.

64
Q

A security engineer received a .cer file. After some troubleshooting, the engineer was able to install the certificate with Base64 encoding using a different extension. Which of the following extensions did the engineer most likely use?

A

.PEM
A DER-encoded binary file can be represented as ASCII characters using Base64 Privacy-enhanced Electronic Mail (PEM) encoding. PEM files support other extensions like .key, .cer, and .cert.

65
Q

A company has a two-level certificate authority (CA) hierarchy. One of the CA servers is offline, while the others are online. What is the difference and benefit to both power states? (Select all that apply.)

A

Online root adds CA and Online CA publishes a CRL
The root CA must be powered-on when adding a subordinate CA to a hierarchy. The root CA must sign and issue a certificate to the subordinate CA for it to be valid.

Online CAs become available on the network and can accept and process certificate signing requests, publish certificate revocation lists, and perform other certificate management tasks.

66
Q

WPA3 supported on most 802.11ax devices

A
  • Uses the AES Galois Counter Mode Protocol (GCMP) for encryption
  • personal authentication can use 128 or 192 bit AES
  • Enterprize authentication must use 192-bit AES
  • Uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) build on Diffie-Hellman key agreement method
  • supports Enhanced Open, which enable encryption for OAuth method
67
Q

WPA2 and CCMP counter mode with cipher block chaining)

A
  • Lowest safest Wireless encryption stand that should be used.
  • use 128 bit AES cypher along with CCMP
  • CCMP has authenticated encryption, making replay attacks harder ensuring confidentiality and authentication of data
68
Q

EAP-Extensible Authentication Protocol

A
  • Doesn’t do authentication, it just handles message formats and negotiates authentication mechanisms
  • Used as a network authentication method for 802.1X
  • used in wireless and point to point connections
  • -USED TO TRANSMIT CERTS ON SMART CARDS
69
Q

PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol)

ONLY REQUIRES A SERVER SIDE PUBLIC KEY CERTIFIATE instead of having a cert on both a server & client side device

A
  • Uses MS-CHAPv2 for authentication for Active Directory
  • It access a CA to acquire a PKI cert, and then creates a TLS tunnel
  • Can use EAP-Generic Token Card (EAP-GTC) method to transfer a token for authentication against a network directory or through a one-time password mechanism
70
Q

EAP Types
EAP-FAST (Extensible Access Protocol-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling)
-Cisco’s replacement for LEAP

A

EAP-FAST (Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling)

  • uses a PAC (protected access credential and not a cert for mutual authentication. PAC is derived from a master key on an authentication server
  • PAC needs to be delivered to each user requiring access to the resouce.
71
Q

EAP Types

EAP-TLS (Extensible Access Protocol-Transport Layer Security)

A

-Enables mutual authentication through certificates
-certs must be configured on BOTH CLIENT AND SERVER side of the connection
-not ideal in larger environments as users must know how to configure cert.
But…certs can be configured on TPM’s or SMART cards

72
Q

EAP Types

EAP-TTLS (Extensible Access Protocol-Tunneled Transport Layer Security)

A
  • Only requires SERVER SIDE CERTS for authentication
  • has optional mutual authentication and provides protection of the communication within a tunnel to help protect against man in the middle attacks
  • Similar to PEAP in that both use tunnels
  • can use PAP, CHAP, or other inner authentication protocols while PEAP as to use EAP MS-CHAP or EAP GTC for authentication