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StRUT Test Answers > Domain 2 Session 1 Networking > Flashcards

Domain 2 Session 1 Networking Flashcards

1
Q

Which connector type is used on cables which transmit TV signals?
Choices:

A - SC
B - RJ-11
C - RJ-45
D - Coaxial

A

D - Coaxial

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2
Q

Which are types of twisted-pair connectors? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - LC
B - ST
C - RJ-11
D - RJ-45

A

C - RJ-11

D - RJ-45

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3
Q

Which fiber connector has a round shape?
Choices:

A - LC
B - SC
C - ST
D - MJ

A

C - ST

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4
Q

If a cable has an end that is a T568A end and another end that is a T568B end, which type of cable is being used?
Choices:

A - RJ-11 
B - RJ-45 
C - Crossover cable 
D - Twisted-pair cable 
E - Straight-through cable
A

C - Crossover cable

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5
Q

Striped colored wires are found in which pins?
Choices:

A - Odd pins
B - Even pins
C - Every third pin
D - The beginning and ending pins

A

A - Odd pins

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6
Q

In a crossover cable, what color wire is in Pin 4 on the end connected to a computer if a blue wire is in Pin 4 on the end of the cable connected to a switch?
Choices:

A - Blue
B - Green
C - Brown
D - Orange

A

A - Blue

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7
Q

MDI/MDIX mimics a __________ cable, without the use of one.
Choices:

A - coaxial
B - fiber-optic
C - crossover
D - twisted-pair

A

C - crossover

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8
Q

Which fiber optic cable will travel the longest distance?
Choices:

A - 10GBase-XR
B - 10GBase-LR
C - 10GBase-ER
D - 10GBase-SR

A

C - 10GBase-ER

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9
Q

In an S/UTP cable, how is the cable shielded?
Choices:

A - Shielding is around each pair
B - Shielding is around all four pairs
C - Shielding is only around the outside of the wires
D - Shielding is around each pair and then again around all four pairs

A

A - Shielding is around each pair

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10
Q

A technician needs to run twisted-pair cable though an open space between walls. Which type of cable must be used in this situation?
Choices:

A - PVC
B - CAT5
C - CAT5e
D - Plenum

A

D - Plenum

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11
Q

What can happen if two cables are too close to each other as cables are installed in a network infrastructure?
Choices:

A - EMI
B - ESD
C - Crosstalk
D - Attenuation

A

C - Crosstalk

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12
Q

Which twisted-pair cables transmit at speeds higher than 1 Gbps? Choose three answers.
Choices:

A - CAT 5 
B - CAT 6 
C - CAT 7 
D - CAT 6e 
E - CAT 7e
A

B - CAT 6
C - CAT 7
D - CAT 6e

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13
Q

What makes CAT 7 stand out from CAT 6 and Cat 6e cables?
Choices:

A - It is faster than CAT 6 and CAT 6e
B - It uses individual shielding for wire pairs
C - CAT 7 is more fire-suppressive than CAT 6 or CAT 6e
D - Signals travel a further distance than that of CAT 6 and CAT 6e

A

B - It uses individual shielding for wire pairs

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14
Q

When using a splitter for DSL in a home network, the splitter __________ quality due to __________ signal interference.
Choices:

A - increases; less
B - decreases; less
C - increases; more
D - decreases; more

A

A - increases; less

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15
Q

Which coaxial cable type is usually used for transmitting data between a TV and DVD player?
Choices:

A - RG-6
B - RG-9
C - RG-56
D - RG-59

A

D - RG-59

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16
Q

What is the main role of a coaxial cable splitter?
Choices:

A - Split two TV signals
B - Split two data signals
C - Split the TV signal from streaming data
D - Increase the distance signals can travel

A

C - Split the TV signal from streaming data

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17
Q

IPv4 addresses are __________ bits in length while IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length
Choices:

A - 8
B - 16
C - 24
D - 32

A

D - 32

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18
Q

Binary numbers should be read from __________ to __________.
Choices:

A - right; left
B - left; right
C - largest digit; smallest digit
D - smallest digit; largest digit

A

A - right; left

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19
Q

Which IPv6 address is not a legitimate address?
Choices:

A - 2001:34ea:89ac::e421:0001
B - 2001:45fb:67ac:d001:0006:d471:0001
C - 2001:34fa:67ac:d001:0000:c421:0010
D - 2001:93gb:78ac:d001:0000:e531:0001

A

D - 2001:93gb:78ac:d001:0000:e531:0001

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20
Q

How can the IPv6 address of 2011:0000:0000:2a43:e325:0000:0000:0001 be shown? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - 2011::2a43:e325::1
B - 2011::2a43:e325::0001
C - 2011:0000:0000:2a43:e325::1
D - 2011::2a43:e325:0000:0000:0001

A

C - 2011:0000:0000:2a43:e325::1

D - 2011::2a43:e325:0000:0000:000125::1

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21
Q

Which is not a private IP address?
Choices:

A - 10.1.1.4
B - 172.16.1.4
C - 172.32.1.4
D - 192.168.1.4

A

C - 172.32.1.4

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22
Q

Which is the IPv6 indicator for an APIPA address?
Choices:

A - fe70
B - fe80
C - ed80
D - ee80

A

B - fe80

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23
Q

Which should have static IP addresses? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - Server
B - Printer
C - Laptop
D - Desktop

A

A - Server

B - Printer

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24
Q

On which tab in the TCP/IP v4 Properties can a second IP address be set for a device?
Choices:

A - General
B - Second Address
C - Alternate Address
D - Alternate Configuration

A

D - Alternate Configuration

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25
Q

A device has an IP address of 192.168.1.4 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Which option describes the network portion?
Choices:

A - 192
B - 192.168
C - 192.168.1
D - 192.168.1.4

A

C - 192.168.1

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26
Q

Each subnet must have a __________ and a __________.
Choices:

A - host address; control address
B - network address; host address
C - network address; broadcast address
D - submissive address; control address

A

C - network address; broadcast address

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27
Q 
A class E subnet is reserved for which purpose?
Choices:

A - Public networks
B - Private networks
C - Multicast addressing
D - Government and experimental use

A

D - Government and experimental use

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28
Q

A technician needs to place 500 devices on a network. Using CIDR, what is the best host IP address?
Choices:

A - 192.168.0.1/21
B - 192.168.0.1/22
C - 192.168.0.1/23
D - 192.168.0.1/24

A

C - 192.168.0.1/23

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29
Q

What is the subnet mask of a 172.16.4.1/16 network?
Choices:

A - 255.255.0.0
B - 255.255.255.0
C - 255.255.252.0
D - 255.255.255.128

A

A - 255.255.0.0

30
Q

The default gateway acts as a __________.
Choices:

A - message encoder
B - message decoder
C - network guardian
D - switchboard operator

A

D - switchboard operator

31
Q

The default gateway address for a network is 10.0.2.2. The IPv4 address for a device on the network is 10.0.2.46. The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0. How will the default gateway handle the message from a device within the 10.0.2.2 network?
Choices:

A - Nothing, the addresses do not match up with one another, so the message will never actually
be sent
B - Both of the devices are on the same network, so the message will simply be forwarded to the
other device
C - Both of the devices are on the same network, so the message will be encoded for protection
from any sniffing devices
D - The devices are on two separate networks, so the default gateway will encode the message
and route it outside of the network

A

B - Both of the devices are on the same network, so the message will simply be forwarded to the
other device

32
Q

Which protocol uses UDP to transfer files?
Choices:

A - FTP
B - TFTP
C - HTTP
D - HTTPS

A

B - TFTP

33
Q

Which protocol uses port numbers 137-139 and 445?
Choices:

A - DNS
B - SMB
C - POP3
D - IMAP

A

B - SMB

34
Q

Which ports are reserved for the AFP protocol? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - Port 80
B - Port 427
C - Port 443
D - Port 548

A

B - Port 427

D - Port 548

35
Q

Which ports are used for the Internet? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - Port 20- FTP
B - Port 80- HTTP
C - Port 23- Telnet
D - Port 443- HTTPS

A

B - Port 80- HTTP

D - Port 443- HTTPS

36
Q

Which port is reserved for the DNS protocol?
Choices:

A - Port 25
B - Port 32
C - Port 45
D - Port 53

A

D - Port 53

37
Q

Which protocol is used to connect to remote systems without encryption?
Choices:

A - SSH
B - SMTP
C - IMAP
D - Telnet

A

D - Telnet

38
Q

On which port is the RDP protocol located?
Choices:

A - 23
B - 995
C - 1358
D - 3389

A

D - 3389

39
Q

Which ports and protocols are used for incoming email? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - Port 25- SMTP
B - Port 143- IMAP
C - Port 110- POP3
D - Port 465- SMPTS

A

B - Port 143- IMAP

C - Port 110- POP3

40
Q

TCP/IP is a/an __________.
Choices:

A - single protocol
B - suite of protocols
C - port for protocols
D - optional setting for TCP

A

B - suite of protocols

41
Q

802.11n can run at speeds of __________ and up to __________ on a dual link.
Choices:

A - 200 Mbps; 400 Mbps
B - 300 Mbps; 400 Mbps
C - 200 Mbps; 500 Mbps
D - 300 Mbps; 600 Mbps

A

D - 300 Mbps; 600 Mbps

42
Q

In the 802.11ac standard, each antenna can run up to 400 Mbps. A smartphone generally has __________, while a desktop may have up to __________ antennas.
Choices:

A - one; four
B - one; five
C - two; four
D - two five

A

A - one; four

43
Q

Which 802.11 standards are susceptible to interference from cordless phones and microwave ovens? Choose three answers.
Choices:

A - 802.11a 
B - 802.11b 
C - 802.11c 
D - 802.11g
E - 802.11n 
F - 802.11ac
A

B - 802.11b
D - 802.11g
E - 802.11n

44
Q

WPA2 replaced which wireless encryption protocols? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - WEP
B - WPA
C - WEP2
D - WPA.b

A

A - WEP

B - WPA

45
Q

Which mode, supported by both WPA and WPA2, uses RADIUS?
Choices:

A - Public
B - Private
C - Personal
D - Enterprise

A

D - Enterprise

46
Q

Which encryption type is used with WPA?
Choices:

A - AES
B - WEP
C - TKIP
D - PITA

A

C - TKIP

47
Q

Which 2.4 GHz channels are safe to use on the North American continent? Choose three answers.
Choices:

A - 1 
B - 2 
C - 3 
D - 5 
E - 6 
F - 9 
G - 10 
H - 11
A

A - 1
E - 6
H - 11

48
Q

A small business is looking for a cheap solution for configuring a DMZ. Which is the best option for the company?
Choices:

A - Installing a firewall between the Internet and Web server only
B - Installing a firewall between the Web server and the internal network only
C - Installing a single firewall with connections to the Internet, Web server, and the internal
network
D - Installing a firewall between the Internet and Web server and then installing

A

C - Installing a single firewall with connections to the Internet, Web server, and the internal
network

49
Q

NAT is run on which type of device?
Choices:

A - A switch
B - A wireless antenna
C - A port between the public and private networks
D - A router or firewall placed between the public and private networks

A

D - A router or firewall placed between the public and private networks

50
Q

DNAT assigns private addresses a public address from a pool of available __________.
Choices:

A - static IP addresses
B - public IP addresses
C - private IP addresses
D - dynamic IP addresses

A

B - public IP addresses

51
Q

Under which menu are the settings for UPnP found?
Choices:

A - Setup
B - Security
C - Administration
D - Advanced Setup

A

D - Advanced Setup

52
Q

Which type of Internet connection is typically shared with other customers in the area?
Choices:

A - Fiber
B - Cable
C - Dial-up
D - Digital subscriber line

A

B - Cable

53
Q

In ADSL, download speeds are __________ to/than upload speeds.
Choices:

A - equal
B - faster
C - slower
D - more distant

A

B - faster

54
Q

Fiber Internet connections are available in all areas.

A - True
B - False

A

B - False

55
Q

In a satellite Internet connection, signal has to travel over __________ before reaching the satellite, and will then travel back to Earth.
Choices:

A - 10,000 miles
B - 15,000 miles
C - 20,000 miles
D - 25,000 miles

A

C - 20,000 miles

56
Q

Which are the two most common cellular connection types?
Choices:

A - E
B - 2G
C - 4G
D - 4G LTE

A

C - 4G

D - 4G LTE

57
Q

Which are methods used to connect to a mobile hotspot? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - A USB cable
B - A MiFi device
C - An RJ-11 cable
D - An access point on a smartphone or tablet

A

B - A MiFi device

D - An access point on a smartphone or tablet

58
Q

A SOHO network is an example of which type of network?
Choices:

A - LAN
B - PAN
C - MAN
D - WAN

A

A - LAN

59
Q

Which type of network is comprised of several LANs in separate locations?
Choices:

A - LAN
B - PAN
C - MAN
D - WAN

A

D - WAN

60
Q

WANs are almost always leased from a __________.
Choices:

A - large IT firm
B - cable company
C - telephone company
D - telecommunications provider

A

D - telecommunications provider

61
Q

PANs typically are used with which type of devices?
Choices:

A - High security devices
B - Wi-Fi-related devices
C - Bluetooth-related devices
D - Devices which need a physical connection

A

C - Bluetooth-related devices

62
Q

Which type of network architecture device sends a received signal to every device on a network?
Choices:

A - Hub
B - Port
C - Switch
D - Router

A

A - Hub

63
Q

Which type of network architecture device replaced a hub?
Choices:

A - Hub
B - Port
C - Switch
D - Router

A

C - Switch

64
Q

A router can act as an access point but will also need a modem to perform which action?
Choices:

A - Route traffic between networks
B - Route traffic from the Internet into the network
C - Route traffic from the network out to the Internet
D - Encrypt incoming traffic from the Internet to be used on the network

A

B - Route traffic from the Internet into the network

65
Q

Which two types of modems are found in most business configurations?
Choices:

A - DSL
B - Cable
C - Dial-up
D - Fiber optic

A

A - DSL

B - Cable

66
Q

Which is a common type of bridge found in modern networks?
Choices:

A - Wired bridge
B - Virtual bridge
C - Physical bridge
D - Wireless bridge

A

D - Wireless bridge

67
Q

A patch panel typically sits between cables in a wall and which other network architecture device?
Choices:

A - Port
B - Bridge
C - Switch
D - Router

A

C - Switch

68
Q

Which is the definition of Ethernet over Power?
Choices:

A - A device which controls the signal strength of an Ethernet network
B - A hacking method in which an Ethernet connection is overtaken by a faulty firewall
C - An adapter which allows for an Ethernet connection using an existing electrical wiring in a
building
D - A method of delivering DC voltage over Cat 5 cabling to access points, wireless bridges, or
wireless workgroup bridges in order to provide power to the unit

A

C - An adapter which allows for an Ethernet connection using an existing electrical wiring in a
building

69
Q

Which option uses a PoE injector?
Choices:

A - VoIP
B - Port-forwarding
C - A network adaptor
D - A wireless repeater

A

A - VoIP

70
Q

A __________ sends a signal from one end of a cable, while a __________ receives the signal at the other end.
Choices:

A - tone generator; tone probe
B - tone probe; tone generator
C - tone speaker; tone finisher
D - tone encryptor; tone decrypter

A

A - tone generator; tone probe

71
Q

A Wi-Fi analyzer is often a simple _________ to identify Wi-Fi networks in an area.
Choices:

A - app
B - tool
C - device
D - command prompt command

A

A - app

StRUT Test Answers (11 decks)

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