Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Compita SEC+ > Domain 2 > Flashcards

Domain 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What captures the relationships between physical and logical assets

A

Diagrams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

are the minimum level of security required for the system or application

A

Baseline Configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

reduce error and provides a clear communication standard

A

Standard Naming Conventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Advanced planning is needed to apply deviations from an organization’s IP addressing schema

A

Internet protocol (IP) schema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

refers to regulations pertaining to data being stored in other countries

A

Data sovereignty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the practice of enacting security controls that protect the CIA (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability) of data

A

Data Protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the systems way to prevent unwanted sensitive data from leaving the organization’s network

A

Data loss prevention (DLP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The act of hiding data by redacting all or parts of its content to preserve its confidentiality

A

Masking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Data, whether at rest, in motion, or in processing requires encryption

A

Data At rest/ In transit/motion/ In processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is the process of replacing data fields with random values

A

Tokenization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What refers to the practice of protecting the rights of users over digital objects

A

Rights management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The lack of physical borders in the online world makes rights management difficult to govern

A

Geographical considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Policies such as a BCP (Business Continuity Plan) or DRP (Disaster Recovery Plan) that are created to promote business resiliency

A

Response and recovery controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A security feature that prevents attackers from bypassing security through encrypted channels

A

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS) inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A mathematical function that creates a fixed-length output from a variable-length input, used to verify the integrity of data

A

Hashing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Security controls should be in place to authenticate users and not allow for unwanted access

A

API Considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

is an alternative site that has little to no backups of the original site’s data and is fully operational within weeks

A

Cold Site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

is an alternative site that has full backups of the original site’s data and is fully operational within minutes to a few hours

A

Hot site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

is an alternative site that partial backups of the original site’s data and is fully operational within a few days

A

Warm site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

are computer systems with fake data that is designed to attract hackers

A

Honeypots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

are computer files that are designed resemble legitimate files but contain fake data

A

Honeyfiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A network designed as a decoy to attract hackers

A

Honeynets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

refers to fake network traffic that is designed to mimic real network communication

A

Fake Telemtry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

occurs when a user is redirected to a malicious or wrong URL

A

DNS Sinkhole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A cloud computing model to provision cloud-based IT resources and components

A

Infrastructure as a service (IaaS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A cloud computing model to provision cloud-based IT services such as database management

A

Platform as a service (PaaS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A cloud computing model to provision cloud-based software directly to a user over the internet

A

Software as a service (SaaS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The provisioning of ad hoc services via a cloud service

A

Anything as a service (XaaS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

refers to a cloud environment that is accessible by multiple organization

A

Community Cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

cloud refers to a cloud environment that is only accessible by a single organization

A

Private

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What cloud refers to a cloud environment that is a mix of both public and private cloud environments

A

Hybrid Cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A company that manages the IT infrastructure and security services of an organization

A

Managed service provider (MSP)/managed security service provider (MSSP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

refers to a distributed cloud architecture that reduces latency

A

Fog computing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

refers to a cloud architecture that performs computing at the edge of a network

A

Edge Computing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

is a lightweight computer with limited capabilities and resources

A

Thin cilent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

are environments that packages code to be executed software within an isolated and standard environment

A

Containers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

collection of small modules that work together to create a complete system

A

Microservices/APIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The act of provisioning IT systems and applications from machine-readable files and code

A

Infrastructure as code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A network architecture to manage compatible IT networking devices through computer programming

A

Software-defined networking (SDN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Real-time reporting of configuration data through application programmable interfaces (APIs

A

Software-defined visibility (SDV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

An organization owns and manages web applications and rents its usage to users, usually on a subscription model

A

Serverless architecture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The process of enabling separate processes and services to work together

A

Services integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

define how resources are provisioned along with its restrictions

A

Resource policies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

allows for a network connection to a Virtual Private Cloud network

A

transit gateway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

is the technology that allows a computer to have multiple operating systems installed

A

Virtualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A set of management practices and policies to keep track of ** within the enterprise. To make sure they can be controlled.

A

Virtual machine (VM) sprawl avoidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pre-programmed security controls that prevents a virtual machine from escaping its hypervisor and infecting the host operating system

A

VM escape protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Computing **** are isolated areas that provide the functionalities required for software development, testing, staging, and production

A

Environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A ** environment is an isolated computing environment designed for software development

A

Development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The ** environment is an isolated computing environment that resembles the production environment but is designed for software testing and troubleshooting

A

Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

is an isolated computing environment where tested software is prepared for the production environment

A

Staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the process of ensuring manufactured components are clear of defects prior to its integration

A

Quality Assurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

_______ is the process of assigning permission to users. ________ is removing the users’ permissions.

A

Provisioning/Deprovisioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The process to determine if unauthorized changes have been made to data.

A

Integrity measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Is the process of removing unwanted characters from a string input prior to its processing

A

Normalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

are pre-compiled functions to query a database

A

Stored procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

this the practice of writing code that is difficult to analyze by observing its source code

A

Obfuscation/Camouflage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

is code that when executed, its results are not used elsewhere within the application

A

Dead weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Applications can perform input validation and code execution locally or on a remote server

A

Server-side vs. client-side execution and validation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Is the process of allocating memory to applications to avoid a memory leak

A

Memory Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Software developers use SDKs to create software within a pre-built programming environment

A

Use of third-party libraries and software development kits (SDKs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

occurs when the application loses control of its data during operations

A

Data Exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

OWASP is a nonprofit organization dedicated to the protection of web-based applications

A

Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The process of having different components for software features and capabilities

A

Software diversity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

converts programming languages to binary language

A

Complier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

diversity is the act of creating identical binary images with different specifications

A

Binary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The process of automating tasks and courses of actions to prevent, detect, and recover from security incidents

A

Automation/scripting Automated courses of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The process of constantly detecting and evaluating the risks associated with software systems

A

Continuous monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The process of constantly detecting and evaluating security baseline changes to software systems

A

Continuous Validation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A technique to detect and resolve code conflicts by reducing interaction errors

A

Continuous integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

is a technique to deploy changes quickly and sustainably to software systems

A

Continuous delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

is a technique to automatically release new software versions for immediate availability

A

Continuous deployment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

refers to a system’s ability to withstand changes without issue

A

Elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

refers to a systems’ ability to increase its workload capacity with its current resources

A

Scalability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

is the process of tracking the changes to different versions of software

A

Version Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

is the process of verifying an identity previously established in a computer system

A

Authentication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

allows centralized security management and provides a logical means of organizing resources (users, printers, etc.

data storage mechanism similar to database

A

Directory Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

A collection of autonomous computer networks that agree on a common set of operating standards, identities can access resources on diverse networks

A

Federation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the supplying of proof or evidence of some fact, Used to verify the trustworthiness of a system

A

Attestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

An authentication technology that uses a time-based fact to create unique password

A

Time-based one-time password (TOTP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

An authentication technology that’s based on the ____ algorithm

A

HMAC-based one-time password (HOTP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

An authentication technology that’s based on sending text messages

A

Short message service (SMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

is a small piece of hardware that is used to identify and authenticate a user, Tokens can be virtual and contains, the user’s rights and access privileges

A

Token Key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The password/cryptographic key remains on the
Usually would require an additional factor such as a PIN or password

A

Static Code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

allow the user to initiate a logon and the application generates a response that the user enters intothe system

A

Authentication Applications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

sends the user authentication notifications or access codes directly to the user’s mobile device

A

Push Notifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

can be used to verify that the user is in possession of the actual mobile device

A

Phone Call

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

carry long cryptographic tokens that are too large to guess

A

Smart Card Authentications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

factors are biological factors specific to an individual

A

Biometrics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

is the measurement of the pattern expressed by a person as they walk

A

Gait Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

For biometrics to be effective, they must have both low false positive rates and low false negative rates

A

Efficacy Rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

determines what level of false positives is allowed in the system

A

False Acceptance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

determines what level of false negatives, or rejections, are going to be allowed in the system

A

False Rejections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

(CER) is where both accept and reject error rates are equal, This is the desired state for the most efficient operation

A

Crossover error rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What Attributes are collections of artifacts that focus on elements associated with the user

A

Multifactor authentication attributes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Something you ….., refers to presenting a trigger and measuring a response that cannot be fakedAn example is the results of a lie detector test

A

Something you exhibit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

verifies the identity of the subject by comparing one or more factors against a database of valid identities (e.g., user accounts

A

Authentication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

indicates who is trusted to perform specific operations For example, administrators grant a user access to files based on the user’s proven identity

A

Authorization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

provides accountability by ensuring that subjects can be held accountable for their actions

A

Auditing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

includes auditing, logging, and monitoring

A

Accounting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Determination of authentication processes should rest on data criticality and who needs access

A

Cloud vs. on-premises requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the use of multiple, independent elements to perform a critical function

A

Redundancy

103
Q

number of third-party companies offer high-speed connections for storing data in a separate facility, Depending on the level of security desired, the storage facility could be reinforced against possible threats in the area (such as tornados or floods

A

Geographic dispersal

104
Q

Disks are the primary storage mechanism in a system, whether composed of physical hard drives with spinning platters or solid-state memory devices

can increase the speed of data recovery as multiple drives can retrieve data at the same time

A

Redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID 0)

105
Q

What splits data across all the drives with no redundancy offered

A

Redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) Level 0 (striped disks)

106
Q

What copies the data from one disk onto two or more disks
If any one disk is lost, the data is not lost since it is also copied onto the other disks

A

Redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) Level 1 (mirrored disks)

107
Q

What is designed to be able to recover the loss of any single disk using error-correcting technique

A

Redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) Level 2 (bit-level error-correcting code

108
Q

What spreads the data across multiple disks at the byte level with one disk dedicated to parity bits

A

Redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) Level 3 (byte-striped with error check)

109
Q

What stripes data across several disks but in larger stripes than in RAID 3, and it uses a single drive for parity-based error checking

A

Redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) Level 4 (dedicated parity drive)

110
Q

What stripes the data at the block level and spreads the parity data across the drives, is the most common method used

A

Redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) Level 5 (block-striped with error check)

111
Q

provides redundancy in the event of a problem with a network adapter

A

Multipath

112
Q

is the infrastructure that connects IT components

A

Network

113
Q

What move loads across a set of resources in an effort not to overload individual servers

A

Load balancers

114
Q

teaming groups multiple NICs together

This provides for load balancing and fault tolerance

A

Network interface card (NIC) teaming

115
Q

What are power supply systems that can function using a temporary battery backup in the event of a power failure

A

Uninterruptible power supply (UPS

116
Q

A ____ _______ is a system where two independent power supply units, either capable of handling the load, are used

A

Dual Supply

117
Q

PDU) is a device designed to handle the electrical power for server racks

A

Power Distribution Unit

118
Q

What is a dedicated network that connects compute elements to storage elements

A

Storage Area Network (SAN)

119
Q

What technologies can enable replication of processing units that can be manipulated between different computers

A

Virtual Machine (VM)

120
Q

Location is an important consideration when determining redundant storage locations

A

On Premise Vs Cloud

121
Q

What backup are all files and software are copied onto the storage media?

A

Full

122
Q

Backs up files that have changed since the last full or _____ backup occurred, Requires fewer files to be backed up

A

Incremental

123
Q

A _______ is a copy of a virtual machine at a specific point in time, a ____\ is created by copying the files that store the virtual machine

A

Snapshot

124
Q

Backs up files that have changed since the last full backup

A

Differential

125
Q

_____ drives are an older form of data storage mechanism, and they are characterized by their sequential read/write access. For bulk storage of backups, ____ is still a viable alternative in terms of cost and performance.

A

Tape

126
Q

The term _____ refers to either a physical hard drive with spinning platters or a solid-state memory deviceBacking up a ____ is a common operation for a single computer.

A

Disk

127
Q

What is the simplest form of backup for a file or set of files. One of the advantages of having users make copies of critical documents is the ability to do a quick restore in the event of an overwrite error.

A

Copy

128
Q

What is the use of a network connection to attach external storage to a machine

A

Network attached storage (NAS)

129
Q

What storage can increase security concerns because someone else is protecting the data

A

Cloud

130
Q

What backup is a specific structure of the backup file to match that of the system being backed up

A

Image based

131
Q

______ backups have the advantage of providing geographic separation of the backups from the original system, ____ backups are those stored on an offline system that is not accessible via the Internet

A

Online/Offline

132
Q

Backups that are ones stored in a location separate from the system being backed up

A

Offsite Storage

133
Q

What is also critical when examining the reach of a disaster, It is important that the offsite location is far enough away that it is not affected by the same incident.

A

Distance Considerations

134
Q

refers to system items that are not permanent and can change

A

Non-persistence

135
Q

A system’s ability to recover to a pre-incident state

A

Revert to known state

136
Q

A system’s ability to recover to a known state in the event of a boot failure

A

Last known-good configuration

137
Q

A bootable flash drive or DVD source that contains a complete bootable image of the OS

A

Live Boot Media

138
Q

The ability to maintain the availability of data and operational processing despite a disrupting event

A

high availability

139
Q

enables a system to accommodate larger workloads

A

Scalability

140
Q

The most important data needs to be identified and then backed up in a manner that facilitates its quick restore

A

Restoration Order

141
Q

Having ______ in technologies, vendors, processes, and controls can assist in resiliency through differences in failure modes

A

Diversity

142
Q

Having a diverse set of these elements improves the chances of catching an attacker, even when they can beat one or two control elements

A

Technologies

143
Q

Having diversity in the vendors used for security prevents vendor-specific forms of single points of failure and creates a more robust set of defensive capabilities

A

Vendors

144
Q

to work, both sides must agree on algorithms, keys, and other parameters, Diversity can still exist in this environment

A

Cryptographic solutions

145
Q

Multiple layers of different security controls lower your attack surface and increase your defense-in-depth

A

Controls

146
Q

are computers that are included as part of a larger system
Printers, SMART TVs, and automobiles have embedded systems

A

Embedded Systems

147
Q

________ is a low-cost (less than $50), single-board computer

A

Raspberry Pi

148
Q

What are electronic circuits that are programmed to perform a specific function

A

Field-programmable gate array (FPGA)

149
Q

is a single-board microcontroller, not a full-fledged computer like the Raspberry pi

A

Arduino

150
Q

What is the system that is designed to control automated systems in cyber-physical environments

A

Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA)/industrial control system (ICS)SCADA/ICS system

151
Q

SCADA systems find many uses in facilities, ranging from the building automation systems of the HVAC system, to pumps for water pressure, escalators and elevators, and fire alarms

A

Facilities

152
Q

Facilities that may include a fire alarm, surveillance, and HVAC system, depending on the requirements of the facility

A

Industrial

153
Q

Industrial facilities may include SCADA and PLC (programmable logic controllers) systems

A

Manufacturing

154
Q

systems include chemical, solar, and nuclear facilitiesLike manufacturing, energy systems may include SCADA

A

Energy

155
Q

What systems may include surveillance and geolocation, depending on the requirements of the facility

It can involve sea, surface (roads and rail), and air transport

A

Logistics

156
Q

refers to a device that connect directly via the Internet for a specific function

A

Internet of Things (IoT)

157
Q

is the transmission of voice communications over IP networks

A

VoIP(Voice Over IP)

158
Q

are climate control systems that are managed by embedded systems

A

HVAC systems

159
Q

combine the functionalities of a printer, scanner, and fax machine, with full network connectivity

A

Multi Function Printers (MFP)

160
Q

Real-time operating systems are designed for devices where the processing must occur in real time

A

operating system

161
Q

These are used in enterprises such as news organizations, which rely on getting the data live without extra processing delays

A

Surveillance Systems

162
Q

refers to a complete computer system miniaturized on a single integrated circuit

Designed to provide the full functionality of a computing platform on a single chip

A

System on a chip (SoC)

163
Q

communications use narrow bands of frequencies for low-data-rate communications
This type of radio offers advantages in range and power utilization

A

Narrow-band radio

164
Q

refers to the signal that is being transmitted and represents a single channel of communication

A

Baseband Radio

165
Q

A ____ card provides a means of identifying users and other key items of information when using telecommunication networks

A

Subscriber identity module (SIM) cards

166
Q

is a low-power mesh radio service used to connect sensors and basic devices

A

Zigbee

167
Q

When the ____ supply is interrupted and no backup ____ supply exists, the device stops functioning

______ drives many design elements because extra functionality that is not needed uses ____ without adding functionality

A

Power

168
Q

Excess ____ capacity results in more power drain and less useful life on a battery charge

A

Compute

169
Q

_____ limitations are due to constraints from power and connectivity

_____ devices require a radio transceiver, increasing power demands

A

Network

170
Q

_______ functions can be essential to secure data during transmission but the
The level of computational resources for ____ functions can be substantial

A

Cryptographic functions

171
Q

This is typically caused by a series of design decisions predicated on producing single-purpose devices like a Raspberry Pi or Arduino

A

Inability to patch

172
Q

_______ systems are critical system requirements sometimes not adopted by embedded and specialized systems

A

Authentication

173
Q

What is a function of power and is a limitation of many specialized and embedded systems

A

Range

174
Q

Extra functionality leads to extra ___

If this functionality isn’t needed in the final solution, the money is wasted

A

Cost

175
Q

refers that trust that has not been specifically set up but exists

A

Implied Trust

176
Q

________ are physical barriers that are designed for an attacker to only gain access by a single gap
A _______ is a simple post-type barricade that prevents a vehicle from passing but allows people to walk past

A

Barrier
Bollard

177
Q

An _______ _____ ______ is composed of two closely spaced doors that require the user to card through one and then the other sequentially

A

access control vestibule

178
Q

A _____ with a picture on it can enable others to quickly determine the identity of an employee or recognize an intruder

A

Badge

179
Q

______ can provide information as to areas that are restricted, or it can indicate where specific precautions, such as keeping doors locked, are required

A

Signage

180
Q

______ enable the re-creation of scenes at a later date

Video ____ offer an even greater range of surveillance capability

A

Camera

181
Q

What technology can sense differences in temperature, which can be from a person entering a room

A

Motion recognition

182
Q

What technology can scan video for movement and detect people, cars, and other designated objects such as packages left on a porch

A

Object detection

183
Q

______ are used to monitor a workplace for security purposes

These systems are commonplace places with high-value merchandise that is attractive to thieves like banks and jewelry stores

A

Closed-circuit television

184
Q

Utilities that made physical modifications less conspicuous and improve the visual surroundings

An example is 58 Joralemon Street, New York City, which is a ventilation shaft and emergency access to the New York subway

A

Industrial Camouflage

185
Q

What provides a simple means of securing portable equipment to furniture or another fixture in the room where the equipment resides

A

Cable locks

186
Q

______ are devices that impede a specific function unless a code is entered

This code is compared to a stored secret, and if the correct code is entered, the lock engages the mechanical stop and allows the mechanism to open

A

Electronic Locks

187
Q

Laptops are popular targets for thieves and should be locked inside a desk when not in use, or secured with special computer lockdown cables

A

Locks

188
Q

What prevents attackers from infecting a device with malware or stealing data

A

USB Data Blocker

189
Q

What is a Class A fire?

A

Common Combustibles, Wood, Paper.
Water or Dry chemical, ASHE

190
Q

What is a class B fire?

A

Combustible liquids, petroleum products/organic solvents
Co2 or dry chemical

191
Q

What is a class C fire?

A

Electrical, electrical equipment, wiring, or tools. Co2 or dry chemical
Class SEE

192
Q

What is a class D fire?

A

Flammable metals like magnesium or titanium, copper metal or sodium chloride

193
Q

A ____ _____ can send alerts in areas where there is little or no expected traffic
_____ ______can be used to trigger video systems, so they do not record large amounts of “empty” activity

A

Motion Detectors

194
Q

What are sensors that provide a signal at a specified distance

The most common application of these are card readers connected to doors

A

Proximity readers

195
Q

What sensors provide a remote means of monitoring everything from water leaks to humidity problems

A

Moisture Detection

196
Q

What can provide much greater detail in tracking who is in a facility and when they have come and gone

A

Cards

197
Q

What should be placed in highly temperature-controlled areas such as server rooms

A

Temperature sensors

198
Q

What can provide security to physical facilities remotely, providing eyes on demand in a variety of places

A

Drones

199
Q

What is an enclosure that’s designed to contain the transmission of radio signals

A

A faraday cage

200
Q

What is a term used to describe the physical and logical separation of a network from all other networks

This separation is designed to prevent unauthorized data transfers to and from the network

A

Air Gap

201
Q

A security zone that contains public facing servers or systems where access is restricted

A

Screened Subnet

202
Q

provides security to the cabling between systems from all physical hazards, including interception and tapping

A

Protected cable distribution

203
Q

____ _____ are those areas where specific preventative measures are taken to control access both to and from

_____ _____limit information and people flow in and out of the area

A

Secure areas

204
Q

An ___ ___ is a security measure implemented to ensure that systems within a secure network are totally isolated (not connected) from an unsecure network such as the Internet

A

Air gap

205
Q

A ____ is a secured area that is designed to provide a specific level of security for what is stored inside

A

Vault

206
Q

are physical storage devices that are intended to impede unauthorized access to their protected contents

A

Safes

207
Q

A data center that is arranged into ____ _______ dictates that all the intake fans on all equipment face the cold aisle and that the exhaust fans all face the opposite aisle

A

Hot & Cold Aisles

208
Q

Once the storage media is rendered into a form that can be destroyed by fire, the chemical processes of fire are irreversible and render the data lost forever

A

Burning

209
Q

is a process by which paper fibers are suspended in a liquid and recombined into new paper

A

Pulping

210
Q

is a physical process of destruction using excessive physical force to break an item into unusable pieces

A

Pulverizing

211
Q

______ realigns the magnetic particles, removing the organized structure that represented the data

______ effectively destroys all data on the media

A

Degaussing

212
Q

Vendors sell data destruction as a service

These vendors can take advantage of scale, increasing the capability while sharing the cost of equipment

A

Third Party Solutions

213
Q

_____ ______ are the result of a hashing algorithm used to sign a message

A ______ _______ system is used to ensure that a message was not altered during transmission, and that the message did in fact come from the sender and not an imposter

A

Digital Signature

214
Q

The strength of a cryptographic function typically depends upon the strength of a key

The more valuable the data, the longer the key should be

A

Key Length

215
Q

___ _______is a mechanism that takes what would be weak keys and “stretches” them to make the system more secure against brute-force attacks

A

Key Stretching

216
Q

______ is the practice of placing random digits at the end of a password prior to the hashing process

______ increases the complexity of the hash therefore increasing the work factor required to decrypt a message

A

Salting

217
Q

is used to ensure the accuracy of data

A ______ function is used to derive an output with a fixed length from a message with a variable length

A

Hashing

218
Q

With symmetric encryption the message to be protected is encrypted and decrypted using the same secret key

Asymmetric encryption uses two separate keys to encrypt and decrypt the message

A

Key Exchange

219
Q

What allows the client’s session key to be encrypted with the server’s public key, but the public key never changes
If an attacker steals the server’s private key in the future, they could then decrypt the stored, captured traffic

A

Diffie-Hellman Exchange (DHE)

220
Q

What is based on a discrete logarithm problem that mathematicians believe to be extremely difficult to solve
The derived key length from an elliptic curve algorithm is smaller in comparison to RSA with the same equivalency in work factor

A

Elliptic curve cryptography

221
Q

What is a property of a public key system in which a key derived from another key is not compromised, even if the originating key is compromised in the future

A

Perfect forward secrecy (PFS)

222
Q

Quantum computers use a structure called qubits, which allow information to be represented differently than just “on” or “off ” as binary bits do

A

Quantum communications

223
Q

Quantum hardware is still in its early stages of development, and the immense computing power in these platforms will revolutionize cryptography

Quantum cryptography is the use of quantum _______ hardware to perform encryption and decryption processes

A

Computing

224
Q

There are currently several cryptographic algorithms that have been developed to use different mathematical properties
These algorithms make simultaneous solution sets not as effective, thus limiting the power of quantum computing

A

Post Quantum-Era

225
Q

are cryptographic keys that are used only once after generation

A

Ephemeral keys

226
Q

________ encryption with associated data (AEAD) is a form of encryption designed to provide both confidentiality and authenticity services A wide range of _________ modes is available for developers, including GCM, OCB, and EAX

A

Authenticated

227
Q

What modes use a non-identity-based source for the entropy element for subsequent blocks
Each block is XORed with the previous ciphertext block before being encrypted

A

Unauthenticated

228
Q

_______ mode (CTM) uses a “_____” function to generate a nonce that is used for each block encryptionDifferent blocks have different nonces, enabling parallelization of processing and substantial speed improvements

A

Counter

229
Q

What are lists of records, where each addition to the list is done by a cryptographic algorithm
The concept of this was invented to create the public transaction ledger of cryptocurrencies

A

Blockchain

230
Q

What is a negotiated package of algorithms, ciphers, and protocols used to manage a conversation between two systems
This suite will list the key exchange mechanism, the authentication protocol, the block/stream cipher, and message authentication

A

Cipher suite

231
Q

What is a method of encrypting text (to produce ciphertext) in which a cryptographic key and algorithm are applied to a block of data (for example, 64 bits) at once as a group rather than to one bit at a time

A

Block Cipher

232
Q

What is a method of encrypting text (to produce ciphertext) in which a cryptographic key and algorithm are applied to each binary digit in a data stream, one bit at a time. _________ are often used for their speed and low latency

A

Stream Cipher

233
Q

_________ encryption tends to be faster, is less computationally involved, and is better for bulk transfers. __________ encryption uses two keys, and it is slower but more secure

A

Symmetric
Asymmetric

234
Q

What is a specialized suite of cryptographic algorithms designed to operate in IoT environments that are resource-constrained

A

Lightweight cryptography

235
Q

What is the art of using cryptographic techniques to embed secret messages within another message

A

Steganography

236
Q

H is a set of algorithms that allows operations to be conducted on encrypted data, without decrypting and re-encryptin

A

Homomorphic encryption

237
Q

Cryptographic functions tend to take significant computational powerCryptographic functions such as elliptic curve cryptography are well suited for ______ ____

A

Low-power devices

238
Q

Stream ciphers are examples of ____ ________ cryptographic operations that support operations with time constraints

A

Low-Latency

239
Q

Cryptographic solutions can help systems to resume normal operational conditions after an external disruption

A

High Resiliency

240
Q

Cryptography is the primary means of protecting data confidentiality—at rest, in transit, and in use

A

Supporting Confidentiality

241
Q

Message authentication codes (MACs) supported by hash functions are an example of cryptographic services supporting integrity

A

Supporting integrity

242
Q

Encryption systems can protect code from casual observation by unauthorized parties

A

Supporting obfuscation

243
Q

Cryptographic functions can be employed to demonstrate authentication, such as the validation that an entity has a specific private key associated with a presented public key

A

Supporting authentication

244
Q

What is the ability to verify that a message has been sent and received so that the sender (or receiver) cannot refute sending (or receiving) the information

A

Support Non Repudiation

245
Q

The more complex the algorithm, the more rounds that are performed and the stronger the encryption, but the slower the throughput

A

Speed

246
Q

What is a means of approximating strength, at a cost of speed, Longer keys take longer to generate, and the more rounds a system operates, the longer the time to encrypt/decrypt

A

Size

247
Q

What are keys that result in weak encryption, despite its key length
Currently DES, RC4, IDEA, Blowfish, and GMAC algorithms can suffer from weak keys

A

Weak Key

248
Q

The objective of cryptography is to protect data for a long-enough period that brute-force decryption is not a factor in the security equation, Older methods, such as DES, have proven to no longer provide long protection times due to modern computing speeds.

A

Time

249
Q

If we want to protect materials for the next 25 years, we need to consider what computing power will be available in the next 25 years—a challenge given advances in quantum computing

A

Longevity

250
Q

The use of cryptographic random numbers is important, as it removes the _______ problem of pseudorandom number generators

A

Predictability

251
Q

The more material that an attacker can get using the same key, the greater his ability to use cryptanalysis tools to break the scheme. This is how the Enigma and Purple machines failed during WWII

A

Reuse

252
Q

What is the measure of randomness associated with a series of values
A lack of good _______ may leave a cryptosystem vulnerable and unable to securely encrypt data

A

Entropy

253
Q

One of the limitations of a cryptographic system is the level of ______ ______ needed to generate the system
Different algorithms have differing means of computing the complexity that makes cryptographic solutions secure

A

computational overhead

254
Q

Constraints the intended use of the system should be considered when determining its cryptographic solution

A

Resource vs. Security

Compita SEC+ (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions