Domain 1: Networking Concepts Flashcards
Which of the following technologies associated with the Internet of Things (IoT) is often used to identify pets using embedded chips?
A. Z-wave
B. Bluetooth
C. NFC
D. RFID
D. RFID
Radio-frequency identification (RFID) uses tags containing data, frequently embedded in pets, which can be read using electromagnetic fields. Z-wave is a short-range wireless technology, frequently used for home automation. Bluetooth is a short-range wireless protocol, frequently used for computer peripherals and personal area networks (PANs). Near-field communication (NFC) provides wireless communication over ranges of 4 cm or less, and it is often used for payment systems.
How many bits are allocated to the host identifier in an IPv4 address on the 10.72.0.0/17 network?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 16
D. 17
B. 15
The value after the slash in a classless inter-domain routing (CIDR) address specifies the number of bits in the network identifier. An IP address has 32 bits, so if 17 bits are allocated to the network identifier, 15 bits are left for the host identifier.
Which of the following protocols appears on the network as a service that client computers use to resolve names into IP addresses?
A. DHCP
B. BOOTP
C. DNS
D. SNMP
C. DNS
The Domain Name System (DNS) is a protocol that computers on a TCP/IP network use to resolve host and domain names into the IP addresses they need to communicate. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) are both IP address allocation protocols, and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) carries information gathered by agents to a central management console.
The secured version of the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTPS) uses a different well-known port from the unsecured version. Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS by default?
A. 25
B. 80
C. 110
D. 443
D. 443
The well-known port for HTTPS is 443. Port 25 is for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), port 80 is for unsecured HTTP, and port 110 is for the Post Office Protocol (POP3)
Which of the following topologies requires the installation of terminating resistors at two locations?
A. Bus
B. Star
C. Ring
D. Mesh
A. Bus
A bus topology requires terminating resistors at each end of the bus, to remove signals as they reach the end of the cable and prevent them from reflecting back in the other direction and interfering with newly transmitted signals.
Which of the following is typically not an example of the Internet of Things (IoT)?
A. A key fob that unlocks your car
B. A smartphone home automation app
C. A remotely monitored cardiac pacemaker
D. A seismic early warning system
A. A key fob that unlocks your car
A key fob that unlocks your car is typically a short-range radio or infrared (IR) device that does not use the Internet for its communications. Each of the other examples describes a device with an IP address that uses the Internet to communicate with a controller or monitoring station.
Which of the following options should you configure on a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to supply clients with a default gateway address?
A. Router
B. Time Server
C. Name Server
D. LPR Server
A. Router
The Router option specifies the addresses of routers on the local network, including the default gateway router. The Time Server option specifies the addresses of servers providing time signals to the network. The Name Server option specifies the addresses of up to ten name resolution servers (other than DNS servers) on the network. The LPR Server option specifies the addresses of line printer servers on the network.
Which of the following TCP/IP routing protocols measures the efficiency of routes by the number of hops between the source and the destination?
A. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
D. Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS)
A. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
RIP is a distance vector protocol, which uses hop counts to measure the efficiency of routes. OSPF, BGP, and IS-IS are all link state protocols, which do not rely on hop counts.
How do wireless networking devices conforming to the IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac standards achieve transmission speeds greater than 72.2 Mbps?
A. By using direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) modulation
B. By using multiple antennae to transmit several data streams simultaneously
C. By using frequencies in the 5 GHz band
D. By sacrificing transmission range for speed
B. By using multiple antennae to transmit several data streams simultaneously
The IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac standards support a transmission technique called multiple input and multiple output (MIMO), which combines the bandwidth of multiple data streams to achieve greater throughput. IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac do use the 5 GHz band, but this in itself does not yield greater transmission speeds. The specified standards do not call for the use of DSSS modulation, nor do they sacrifice range for speed. In fact, 802.11n and 802.11ac networks can achieve greater ranges than the previous technologies.
Which of the following is the default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class A network?
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.255
A. 255.0.0.0
A Class A address uses only the first octet as the network identifier, which yields a binary subnet mask of 11111111 00000000 00000000 00000000. In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.0.0.0. The 255.255.0.0 mask is for Class B addresses, and 255.255.255.0 is for Class C addresses. Option D, 255.255.255.255, is the broadcast address for the current network.
Which of the following features is supported by DHCP, but not by BOOTP and RARP?
A. Dynamic address allocation
B. Relay agents
C. Manual address allocation
D. Automatic address allocation
A. Dynamic address allocation
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) can dynamically allocate IP address to clients and reclaim them when their leases expire. Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) and Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) can allocate addresses automatically or manually, but they cannot reclaim them. DHCP and BOOTP both support relay agents.
Which of the following DHCP address allocation methods enables the server to reclaim IP addresses when they are no longer in use by clients?
A. Automatic
B. Dynamic
C. Manual
D. Static
B. Dynamic
Dynamic allocation enables a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to lease IP addresses to clients for a specific time interval. When the lease period expires, the client can renew it, if it is still using the address. If the address is no longer in use when the lease expires, it is returned to the scope for reallocation. Automatic allocation permanently assigns an IP address from the scope to a client. Manual and static allocation are two terms describing the allocation of a specific IP address to a specific client.
Which of the following pairs of well-known ports are the default values you would use to configure a POP3 email client?
A. 110 and 25
B. 143 and 25
C. 110 and 143
D. 80 and 110
E. 25 and 80
A. 110 and 25
The default port for the Post Office Protocol (POP3) is 110. The default port for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), the other protocol used by email clients, is 25. Port 143 is the default for the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), a different email mailbox protocol that clients never use with POP3. Port 80 is the default for the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), which is not used by email clients.
Which of the following components does the port number in a transport layer protocol header identify?
A. A transport layer protocol
B. An application
C. A gateway
D. A proxy server
B. An application
The port numbers specified in a transport layer protocol header identify the application that generated the data in the packet or the application that will receive the data. Port numbers do not identify transport layer protocols, gateways, or proxy servers.
Which of the following is an example of a circuit-switched network connection, as opposed to a packet-switched network connection?
A. Two wireless computers using an ad hoc topology
B. A landline voice telephone call
C. A smartphone connecting to a cellular tower
D. Computers connected by a wired LAN
B. A landline voice telephone call
A circuit switched network connection requires a dedicated physical connection between the communicating devices. In a landline telephone call, a dedicated circuit is established between the two callers, which remains in place for the entire duration of the call. Wireless computers in an ad hoc topology and computers connected to a wired LAN use packet switching instead. A smartphone connection uses cell switching.
A client on a TCP/IP network is attempting to establish a session with a server. Which of the following correctly lists the order of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) session establishment messages?
A. SYN, ACK, SYN, ACK
B. SYN, SYN, ACK, ACK
C. SYN/ACK, SYN/ACK
D. SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK
D. SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK
The TCP connection establishment exchange is a three-way handshake. The first frame contains a SYN message from the client, the second frame contains a SYN/ACK message from the server, and the last frame contains an ACK message from the client.
Each of the following Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) events occurs on an Ethernet network when two stations transmit simultaneously, although not in the order listed. Which of the following events occurs immediately after the collision?
A. The two stations observe a random back-off interval.
B. The two stations transmit a jam signal.
C. The two stations stop transmitting.
D. The two stations listen to see if the channel is idle.
E. The two stations begin retransmitting their frames.
C. The two stations stop transmitting.
Stations on a CSMA/CD network first check the medium to see if it’s idle. If they detect an idle medium, they begin transmitting. If two or more devices transmit at the same time, a collision occurs. Immediately after a collision occurs, the two stations involved stop transmitting and then send out a jam signal. Then, the two stations back off for a random interval, and the transmission process begins again.
Which of the following IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN standards are capable of supporting both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
E. 802.11ac
D. 802.11n
Only the 802.11n standard defines wireless LAN devices that can support both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies. The 802.11a and 802.11ac standards use only 5 GHz, and the 802.11b and 802.11g standards use only 2.4 GHz
Which of the following statements about a wired local area network (LAN) is true?
A. Wired LANs support only the star topology.
B. Wired LANs support only the star and bus topologies.
C. Wired LANs support only the star and ring topologies.
D. Wired LANs can support ring, bus, or star topologies.
D. Wired LANs can support ring, bus, or star topologies.
A wired LAN is a group of computers within a small area, connected by a common network medium. A wired LAN can be configured using a ring, bus, or star topology.
Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource record types specifies the IP addresses of the authoritative DNS servers for a particular zone?
A. NS
B. PTR
C. MX
D. SRV
A. NS
The Name Server (NS) resource record identifies the authoritative servers for a particular DNS zone. Pointer (PTR) resource records are used to resolve IP addresses into hostnames. Mail Exchange (MX) records identify the mail servers for a particular domain. Service Locator (SRV) records identify the designated servers for a particular application.
Which of the following is a cellular communication technology that is virtually obsolete in the United States?
A. GSM
B. CDMA
C. CSMA/CD
D. TDMA
D. TDMA
Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) is a communication technique that splits a frequency into multiple time slots, enabling it to carry multiple data streams. Commonly used in 2G cellular systems, the major U.S. carriers no longer use it in their 3G systems. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) and Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM) are alternative communications techniques that are currently used by the major U.S. cellular carriers. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) is a media access control method used by Ethernet networks; it is not a cellular communication technology.
Which of the following protocols is limited to use on the local subnet only?
A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
C. Domain Name System (DNS)
D. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
ARP relies on broadcast transmissions, which are not routable. It is therefore limited to use on the local subnet. DHCP also relies on broadcasts, but the ability to create DHCP relay agents makes it usable on an entire internetwork. DNS and SMTP do not rely on broadcasts and are therefore not limited to the local subnet.
Which of the following protocols prevents network switching loops from occurring by shutting down redundant links until they are needed?
A. RIP
B. STP
C. VLAN
D. NAT
B. STP
The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) prevents packets from endlessly looping from switch to switch due to redundant links. Creating redundant links is a good preventive against switch failure, but packets transmitted over multiple links can circulate from switch to switch infinitely. STP creates a database of switching links and shuts down the redundant ones until they are needed. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) propagates routing table information. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is an organizational tool that operates within switches by creating multiple broadcast domains. Network Address Translation (NAT) is a routing method that enables private networks to share registered IP addresses.
Ralph has been instructed to use the network address 10.12.0.0/14 for the new network he is installing. What subnet mask value should he use when configuring his computers?
A. 255.248.0.0
B. 255.252.0.0
C. 255.254.0.0
D. 255.255.248.0
E. 255.255.252.0
F. 255.255.254.0
B. 255.252.0.0
The 14-bit prefix indicated in the network address will result in a mask with 14 ones followed by 18 zeroes. Broken into 8-bit blocks, the binary mask value is as follows:
11111111 11111100 00000000 00000000
Converted into decimal values, this results in a subnet mask value of 255.252.0.0.
What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for translating and formatting information?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
F. Presentation
G. Application
F. Presentation
The presentation layer implements functions providing formatting, translation, and presentation of information. No other layers of the OSI model translate and format application data.
An Ethernet network interface adapter provides functions that span which two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
A. Physical and data link
B. Data link and network
C. Network and transport
D. Transport and application
A. Physical and data link
A network interface adapter functions at the data link layer by encapsulating network layer data for transmission over the network. It provides physical layer functions by providing the connection to the network medium and generating the appropriate signals for transmission.
Which of the following is a network layer protocol that uses ICMPv6 messages to locate routers, DNS servers, and other nodes on an IPv6 network?
A. BGP
B. NDP
C. OSPF
D. PoE
B. NDP
The Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) is a network layer protocol that defines five new Internet Control Message Protocol version 6 (ICMPv6) packet types, which enable IPv6 systems to locate resources on the network, such as routers and DNS servers, as well as autoconfigure and detect duplicate IPv6 addresses. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an exterior gateway protocol that is designed to exchange routing information among autonomous systems. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a link state routing protocol that enables routers to exchange routing table information. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a general term for standards defining mechanisms for power delivery over Ethernet cables, along with data signals.
Which of the following is not a technology typically used for a personal area network (PAN)?
A. Bluetooth
B. Z-Wave
C. NFC
D. ISDN
D. ISDN
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a wide area networking technology that uses the telephone infrastructure to provide a high-speed dial-up service. It is therefore not suitable for use on a PAN. Bluetooth, Z-Wave, and near-field communication (NFC) are all short-range wireless technologies that are capable of proving communications between PAN devices.
Which of the following Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) control bits is set to 1 to initiate the termination of a session?
A. SYN
B. URG
C. FIN
D. END
E. PSH
C. FIN
The termination phase of a TCP connection begins when either the client or the server sends a message containing the FIN control bit with a value of 1. The other control bits listed have nothing to do with the connection termination procedure, and there is no END bit.
Which of the following wireless networking standards is capable of supporting speeds of 54 Mbps and is also backward compatible with IEEE 802.11b?
A. IEEE 802.11a
B. IEEE 802.11g
C. IEEE 802.11n
D. Bluetooth
E. IEEE 802.11
B. IEEE 802.11g
IEEE 802.11g supports transmission speeds up to 54 Mbps, and it is backward compatible with 802.11b equipment. IEEE 802.11 cannot run at 54 Mbps, and while 802.11a can, it is not compatible with 802.11b. IEEE 802.11n cannot run at 54 Mbps, though it can run at faster speeds. Bluetooth is not compatible with any of the IEEE 802.11 standards.
Which of the following is a protocol that identifies VLANs by inserting a 32-bit field in the Ethernet frame?
A. IEEE 802.1P
B. IEEE 802.1Q
C. IEEE 802.1X
D. IEEE 802.1AB
B. IEEE 802.1Q
IEEE 802.1Q is a standard that defines a mechanism (called Ethernet trunking by some manufacturers) that identifies the virtual local area network (VLAN) to which a packet belongs by inserting an extra 32-bit field into its Ethernet frame. IEEE 802.1P is a standard that defines a mechanism for implementing quality of service (QoS) at the data link layer by adding a 3-bit field into Ethernet frames. IEEE 802.1X is a standard defining an authentication mechanism called port-based network access control (PNAC). IEEE 802.1AB is a standard defining the Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP).
Which of the following is the most accurate description of the subnetting process on a TCP/IP network?
A. You extend the IP address by adding bits for a subnet identifier.
B. You borrow bits from the network identifier to create a subnet identifier.
C. You borrow bits from the host identifier to create a subnet identifier.
D. You create a subnet identifier by borrowing half of the bits from the network identifier and half from the host identifier.
C. You borrow bits from the host identifier to create a subnet identifier.
You cannot extend the IP address beyond its 32-bit size, and you cannot remove bits from the network identifier, or the packets will not be routed properly. You must therefore create a subnet by borrowing bits from the host identifier.
Which of the following devices is used to physically connect computers in the same VLAN?
A. A bridge
B. A hub
C. A switch
D. A router
C. A switch
Replacing routers with switches turns an internetwork into a single large subnet, and virtual local area networks (VLANs) exist as logical elements on top of the switching fabric. Although VLANs are the functional equivalent of network layer subnets, the systems in a single VLAN are still physically connected by switches, not routers. Bridges connect network segments at the data link layer and selectively forward traffic between the segments. However, bridges do not provide a dedicated connection between two systems like a switch does, and they do not make it possible to convert a large routed internetwork into a single switched network. Therefore, they have no role in implementing VLANs. Hubs are physical layer devices that propagate all incoming traffic out through all of their ports. Replacing the routers on an internetwork with hubs would create a single shared broadcast domain with huge amounts of traffic and many collisions. Hubs, therefore, do not connect the computers in a VLAN.
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients rely on which of the following types of transmissions to locate and initiate contact with DHCP servers on the local network?
A. Unicast
B. Broadcast
C. Multicast
D. Anycast
B. Broadcast
DHCP clients use broadcasts to transmit DHCPDISCOVER messages on the local network. DHCP servers are then required to respond to the broadcasts. DHCP clients cannot use unicast, multicast, or anycast messages to initiate contact with DHCP servers because they have no way of learning their addresses.
Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?
A. fe00::b491:cf79:p493:23ff
B. 2001:0:49e6:39ff:8cf5:6812:ef56
C. fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb
D. 2001:0:44ef68:23eb:99fe:72bec6:ea5f
C. fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb
The address fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb is correctly formatted for IPv6, with the double colon replacing three blocks of zeroes. Uncompressed, the address would appear as follows: fe00:0000:0000:0000:c955:c944:acdd:3fcb. Option A contains a nonhexadecimal digit. Option B contains only seven 16-bit blocks (and no double colon) instead of the eight required for 128 bits. Option D contains blocks larger than 16 bits.
Which of the following is not an advantage of packet switching over circuit switching?
A. Packets can be transmitted out of order.
B. Packets can take different routes to the destination.
C. Packets can be stored temporarily in the event of network congestion.
D. Packets can be routed around areas of network congestion.
C. Packets can be stored temporarily in the event of network congestion.
On a packet-switched network, packets can take different routes to the destination, can be transmitted out of order, and can be routed around network congestion. The packets are then reassembled into a complete message once all of them reach the destination. Temporary message storage is an advantage of circuit switching networks.
Which of the following is not a protocol used to allocate IP address assignments to clients on a network?
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. BOOTP
D. DHCP
A. ARP
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP), Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP), and Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) are all protocols that are designed to allocate IP addresses to clients. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), on the other hand, resolves existing IP addresses into data link layer MAC (or hardware) addresses.
Which of the following services enables computers on a private IPv4 network to access the Internet using a registered IP address?
A. DHCP
B. NAT
C. DNS
D. NTP
B. NAT
Network Address Translation (NAT) is a service that enables computers with unregistered IP addresses to access the Internet by substituting a registered address in packets as they pass through a router. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is an IP address allocation service. Domain Name System (DNS) resolves domain and hostnames into IP addresses, and Network Time Protocol (NTP) enables network devices to synchronize their time settings.
Near-field communication (NFC) is a short-range wireless technology that is designed to facilitate communications between two devices within which of the following distances from each other?
A. 4 millimeters
B. 4 centimeters
C. 4 decimeters
D. 4 meters
B. 4 centimeters
NFC is designed to provide wireless communication between devices up to 4 cm apart, such as smartphones and payment systems.
Simple Mail Transport Protocol is a TCP connection over port 25 allowing a client to send an email out to a mail server.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Which of the following protocols provides connectionless delivery service at the transport layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
A. TCP
B. HTTP
C. UDP
D. ARP
C. UDP
The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) provides connectionless service at the transport layer. TCP provides connection-oriented service at the transport layer. HTTP is an application layer protocol, and ARP is a data link layer protocol.
What is the maximum number of routes that can be included in a single RIP broadcast packet?
A. 20
B. 25
C. 32
D. Unlimited
B. 25
A single RIP broadcast packet can include up to 25 routes. If there are more than 25 routes in the computer’s routing table, then RIP must generate additional packets.
VLANs create the administrative boundaries on a switched network that are otherwise provided by which of the following devices?
A. Hubs
B. Routers
C. Domains
D. Bridges
B. Routers
Connecting subnets with routers at the network layer maintains the data link layer administrative boundaries that prevent broadcast transmissions from being propagated throughout the entire internetwork. Switching eliminates those data link layer boundaries, and administrators can use virtual local area networks (VLANs) to simulate them. Because hubs propagate all of the traffic they receive out through all of their ports indiscriminately, they create no administrative boundaries. Domains are logical groups of network devices defined by the Domain Name System (DNS). Their functions are not related to VLANs in any way. Switches are essentially multiport bridges that forward incoming traffic only to the device for which it is destined. Therefore, bridges are more closely related to eliminating administrative boundaries than to establishing them.
What is the term used to refer to the DNS client mechanism that generates name resolution queries and sends them to DNS servers?
A. Requestor
B. Forwarder
C. Authority
D. Resolver
D. Resolver
The client component of the Domain Name System is called the resolver. Requestor is a generic term for any system issuing requests, and only DNS servers can be authorities or forwarders.
What is the valid range of numbers for the well-known Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports used by servers?
A. 1024 through 49151
B. 1 through 49151
C. 49152 through 65534
D. 1 through 1023
D. 1 through 1023
Well-known TCP and UDP server ports fall in the range of 1 through 1023. Registered port numbers fall in the range from 1024 to 49151. Ephemeral client ports fall in the range of 49152 through 65535.
SSH is a UDP connection that uses port 22.
A. True
B. False
B. False
At which layer of the OSI model do you find the protocol responsible for the delivery of data to its ultimate destination on an internetwork?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Session
D. Application
B. Network
On a TCP/IP network, the Internet Protocol (IP) at the network layer is the protocol responsible for the delivery of data to its final destination. Data link layer protocols are only concerned with communication between devices on a local area network (LAN) or between two points connected by a wide area network (WAN). The session and application layers are not involved in the actual delivery of data.
Which of the following topologies provides the greatest number of redundant paths through the network?
A. Star
B. Ring
C. Mesh
D. Bus
C. Mesh
A mesh topology is one in which every node is directly connected to every other node, therefore providing complete redundancy through the network. In a star topology, each node is connected to a central nexus, providing each with a single path to the rest of the network. In a ring topology, each node is connected to two other nodes, providing two possible paths through the network. In a bus topology, nodes are chained together in a line, providing no redundancy.
Which of the following Internet Protocol (IP) address classes identifies multicast addresses?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Class E
D. Class D
Class D addresses are used for multicast transmissions. Class A, Class B, and Class C addresses are used for unicast transmissions. Class E is for experimental use only.
Alice has constructed a five-node failover cluster in which all five servers are connected to a hard disk array using a dedicated Fibre Channel network. Which of the following terms describes this network arrangement?
A. SAN
B. PAN
C. WAN
D. MAN
A. SAN
A storage area network (SAN) is a network that is dedicated to carrying traffic between servers and storage devices. A personal area network (PAN) provides communication among devices associated with a single person, such as smartphones. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects devices or networks at different geographic locations. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a type of WAN that connects devices within a limited geographic area.
On an IEEE 802.11b/g/n wireless network running at 2.4 GHz with multiple access points, the traditional best practice is to use channels 1, 6, and 11, with no two adjacent access points configured to use the same channel. Which of the following is the real reason why this is a good plan?
A. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only three channels with frequencies that do not overlap.
B. Channels 1, 6, and 11 have more bandwidth than the other channels.
C. Channels 1, 6, and 11 have greater ranges than the other channels.
D. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the default settings on most wireless devices.
A. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only three channels with frequencies that do not overlap.
The 22 MHz channels in the 2.4 GHz band are spaced 5 MHz apart, which means that they overlap. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only three channels that are distant enough from each other not to overlap. Therefore, they do not interfere with each other. Channels 1, 6, and 11 do not differ from the other channels in their bandwidth or their transmission range. Each wireless device can be set to use only one channel. Therefore, channels 1, 6, and 11 cannot all be the default setting.
Ralph has configured a server called NE6 to function as a web server. He does not want to change the server’s existing name, but he wants it to be accessible to clients using the name www. What Domain Name System (DNS) modification can Ralph make to accomplish this?
A. Create an additional A resource record.
B. Create a new CNAME resource record.
C. Modify the existing A resource record.
D. Create a new PTR resource record.
B. Create a new CNAME resource record.
A canonical name (CNAME) resource record specifies an alternative host name (or alias) for a system already registered in the DNS. By creating a CNAME record specifying the www name, the server can be addressed using either NE6 or www. Creating an additional A resource record will cause the server to be recognized using one name or the other, but not both. Modifying the existing A record will change the hostname. PTR resource records are used only for reverse name resolution.
Which of the following TCP/IP parameters, configured on an end system, specifies the IP address of a device that performs domain name resolution services?
A. WINS Server Addresses
B. Default Gateway
C. DNS Server Addresses
D. Subnet Gateway
C. DNS Server Addresses
The DNS Server Addresses parameter contains the addresses of servers that resolve domain names into IP addresses. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) provides Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) name resolution. The Default Gateway parameter defines the local router to be used to access other networks. There is no such parameter as Subnet Gateway.
Convert the binary mask 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000 into its equivalent decimal value. What is the decimal representation of this mask?
A. 255.255.224.0
B. 255.255.240.0
C. 255.255.248.0
D. 255.255.252.0
A. 255.255.224.0
The decimal value for 11111111 is 255, the value for 11100000 is 224, and the value for 00000000 is 0, so the mask is 255.255.240.0.
What is the valid range of numbers for the ephemeral client ports used by the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?
A. 1023 through 65534
B. 1 through 1024
C. 49152 through 65535
D. 1024 to 49151
C. 49152 through 65535
Ephemeral client ports fall in the range of 49152 through 65535. Well-known TCP and UDP server ports fall in the range of 1 through 1023. Registered port numbers fall in the range from 1024 to 49151.
To which class does the following IPv4 address belong: 190.126.14.251?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
B. Class B
All Class B addresses have first octet values between 128 and 191. The first octet range of a Class A address is 1 to 126, and the Class C first octet range is 192 to 223. Class D addresses have a first octet range of 224 to 239.
Which of the following explanations best describes the function of a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) or User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port number?
A. The port number indicates to the receiver that the sender can activate a specific port only.
B. The port number is used by both the sender and the receiver to identify the application that generated the information in the datagram.
C. The port number is used only by the receiver to indicate the application process running on the sender.
D. The port number is used by both the sender and the receiver to negotiate a well-known server port for the communicating processes.
B. The port number is used by both the sender and the receiver to identify the application that generated the information in the datagram.
TCP ports and UDP ports identify the application protocol or process that generated the information in a datagram. Client ports are chosen randomly from the range 1024 through 65,534. Server ports are well-known and are chosen from the range 1 through 1023.
Which of the following technologies enables the IP addresses assigned to clients by a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to be automatically added to the DNS namespace?
A. Reverse name resolution
B. Dynamic DNS
C. Automatic allocation
D. HOSTS
B. Dynamic DNS
Dynamic DNS (DDNS) is an addition to the DNS standards that eliminates the need for administrators to manually create certain DNS resource records. For example, when a DHCP server allocates an address to a client, DDNS creates a host (A) record containing the host name of the client and the newly allocated IP address. Reverse name resolution is the process of looking up host names based on IP addresses. Automatic allocation is a DHCP process by which IP addresses are permanently assigned to clients. HOSTS is a text-based name resolution method that predates DNS.
What is the maximum number of transmit and receive antennae supported by the currently ratified IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN standards?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
C. 8
The 802.11ac standard supports multiple input and multiple output (MIMO) through the use of up to eight antennae on a single device. The 802.1n standard is the only standard that supports MIMO, with up to four antennae.
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model defines the medium, network interfaces, connecting hardware, and signaling methods used on a network?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
F. Presentation
G. Application
A. Physical
The physical layer of the OSI model defines the standards for the physical and mechanical characteristics of a network, such as cabling (copper and fiber), connecting hardware (hubs and switches), and signaling methods (analog and digital). All of the other layers are not involved in the mechanical characteristics of the network.
Which of the following is an address that you can assign to a host on a private IPv4 network?
A. 192.167.9.46
B. 172.16.255.255
C. 10.1.0.253
D. 225.87.34.1
C. 10.1.0.253
The address 10.1.0.253 is a proper address in the private address range 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255. The address 192.167.9.46 falls outside the designated private IP address range, which is 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255, and is therefore not a viable address on a private network. 172.16.255.255 is a broadcast address, which you cannot assign to a host. 225.87.34.1 falls in the Class D multicast address range and cannot be assigned to a single host.
Which of the OSI model layers is responsible for syntax translation and compression or encryption?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Session
D. Presentation
E. Application
D. Presentation
The presentation layer provides a syntax translation service that enables two computers to communicate, despite their use of different bit-encoding methods. This translation service also enables systems using compressed or encrypted data to communicate with each other.
The protocols at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model use port numbers to identify the applications that are the source and the destination of the data in the packets?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Transport
D. Network
C. Transport
Transport layer protocols, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP), have header fields that contain the port numbers of the applications that generated the data in the packet and that will receive it. The application, presentation, and network layers do not use port numbers.
Which of the words in the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) www.paris.mydomain.org represents the topmost layer in the DNS namespace hierarchy?
A. www
B. paris
C. mydomain
D. org
D. org
The topmost layer in the DNS hierarchy is represented by org, which is a top-level domain. Mydomain is a second-level domain registered by a particular organization. Paris is a subdomain within Mydomain, and www is the name of a particular host in the paris.mydomain.org domain.
Which of the following IEEE wireless LAN standards provides the greatest possible throughput?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11n
B. 802.11ac
The IEEE 802.11ac standard provides the greatest possible throughput, at up to 1.3 Gbps. The 802.11n standard runs at speeds up to 600 Mbps. The 802.11a and 802.11g standards run at up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b standard runs at up to 11 Mbps.
Which of the following IPv6 address types is the functional equivalent of an IPv4 APIPA address?
A. Link local
B. Global unicast
C. Site local
D. Anycast
A. Link local
An IPv6 link local address is automatically assigned to each interface. Like Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA), it provides communication on the local network only. Global unicast addresses are routable; they are the functional equivalent of IPv4 registered addresses. Site local addresses are the equivalent of private IPv4 addresses. Anycast addresses are designed to transmit to any one host in a multicast group.
Which of the following Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options prevents the client from transmitting IP datagrams that circulate endlessly around the network?
A. Interface MTU
B. Default IP TTL
C. ARP cache timeout
D. TCP keepalive interval
B. Default IP TTL
The Default IP Time-to-live (TTL) option specifies the maximum number of seconds or hops allowed to an IP datagram before a router removes it from the network. This prevents datagrams from circulating endlessly. The Interface Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) option specifies the maximum size of an IP datagram. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache timeout specifies how long entries containing the IP address assigned by the server can remain in the cache maintained by a client’s ARP implementation. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) keepalive interval option specifies the number of seconds that the client should wait before transmitting a keepalive message over a TCP connection.
In which IPv4 class is the address 127.0.0.1 found?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
Address 127.0.0.1 is the designated IPv4 local loopback address, and as such, it is reserved. It falls between Class A, which has first octet values from 1 to 126, and Class B, which has first octet values of 128 to 191.