Domain 1: Networking Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following technologies associated with the Internet of Things (IoT) is often used to identify pets using embedded chips?

A. Z-wave

B. Bluetooth

C. NFC

D. RFID

A

D. RFID

Radio-frequency identification (RFID) uses tags containing data, frequently embedded in pets, which can be read using electromagnetic fields. Z-wave is a short-range wireless technology, frequently used for home automation. Bluetooth is a short-range wireless protocol, frequently used for computer peripherals and personal area networks (PANs). Near-field communication (NFC) provides wireless communication over ranges of 4 cm or less, and it is often used for payment systems.

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2
Q

How many bits are allocated to the host identifier in an IPv4 address on the 10.72.0.0/17 network?

A. 8

B. 15

C. 16

D. 17

A

B. 15

The value after the slash in a classless inter-domain routing (CIDR) address specifies the number of bits in the network identifier. An IP address has 32 bits, so if 17 bits are allocated to the network identifier, 15 bits are left for the host identifier.

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3
Q

Which of the following protocols appears on the network as a service that client computers use to resolve names into IP addresses?

A. DHCP

B. BOOTP

C. DNS

D. SNMP

A

C. DNS

The Domain Name System (DNS) is a protocol that computers on a TCP/IP network use to resolve host and domain names into the IP addresses they need to communicate. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) are both IP address allocation protocols, and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) carries information gathered by agents to a central management console.

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4
Q

The secured version of the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTPS) uses a different well-known port from the unsecured version. Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS by default?

A. 25

B. 80

C. 110

D. 443

A

D. 443

The well-known port for HTTPS is 443. Port 25 is for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), port 80 is for unsecured HTTP, and port 110 is for the Post Office Protocol (POP3)

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5
Q

Which of the following topologies requires the installation of terminating resistors at two locations?

A. Bus

B. Star

C. Ring

D. Mesh

A

A. Bus

A bus topology requires terminating resistors at each end of the bus, to remove signals as they reach the end of the cable and prevent them from reflecting back in the other direction and interfering with newly transmitted signals.

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6
Q

Which of the following is typically not an example of the Internet of Things (IoT)?

A. A key fob that unlocks your car

B. A smartphone home automation app

C. A remotely monitored cardiac pacemaker

D. A seismic early warning system

A

A. A key fob that unlocks your car

A key fob that unlocks your car is typically a short-range radio or infrared (IR) device that does not use the Internet for its communications. Each of the other examples describes a device with an IP address that uses the Internet to communicate with a controller or monitoring station.

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7
Q

Which of the following options should you configure on a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to supply clients with a default gateway address?

A. Router

B. Time Server

C. Name Server

D. LPR Server

A

A. Router

The Router option specifies the addresses of routers on the local network, including the default gateway router. The Time Server option specifies the addresses of servers providing time signals to the network. The Name Server option specifies the addresses of up to ten name resolution servers (other than DNS servers) on the network. The LPR Server option specifies the addresses of line printer servers on the network.

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8
Q

Which of the following TCP/IP routing protocols measures the efficiency of routes by the number of hops between the source and the destination?

A. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

C. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

D. Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS)

A

A. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

RIP is a distance vector protocol, which uses hop counts to measure the efficiency of routes. OSPF, BGP, and IS-IS are all link state protocols, which do not rely on hop counts.

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9
Q

How do wireless networking devices conforming to the IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac standards achieve transmission speeds greater than 72.2 Mbps?

A. By using direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) modulation

B. By using multiple antennae to transmit several data streams simultaneously

C. By using frequencies in the 5 GHz band

D. By sacrificing transmission range for speed

A

B. By using multiple antennae to transmit several data streams simultaneously

The IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac standards support a transmission technique called multiple input and multiple output (MIMO), which combines the bandwidth of multiple data streams to achieve greater throughput. IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac do use the 5 GHz band, but this in itself does not yield greater transmission speeds. The specified standards do not call for the use of DSSS modulation, nor do they sacrifice range for speed. In fact, 802.11n and 802.11ac networks can achieve greater ranges than the previous technologies.

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10
Q

Which of the following is the default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class A network?

A. 255.0.0.0

B. 255.255.0.0

C. 255.255.255.0

D. 255.255.255.255

A

A. 255.0.0.0

A Class A address uses only the first octet as the network identifier, which yields a binary subnet mask of 11111111 00000000 00000000 00000000. In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.0.0.0. The 255.255.0.0 mask is for Class B addresses, and 255.255.255.0 is for Class C addresses. Option D, 255.255.255.255, is the broadcast address for the current network.

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11
Q

Which of the following features is supported by DHCP, but not by BOOTP and RARP?

A. Dynamic address allocation

B. Relay agents

C. Manual address allocation

D. Automatic address allocation

A

A. Dynamic address allocation

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) can dynamically allocate IP address to clients and reclaim them when their leases expire. Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) and Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) can allocate addresses automatically or manually, but they cannot reclaim them. DHCP and BOOTP both support relay agents.

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12
Q

Which of the following DHCP address allocation methods enables the server to reclaim IP addresses when they are no longer in use by clients?

A. Automatic

B. Dynamic

C. Manual

D. Static

A

B. Dynamic

Dynamic allocation enables a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to lease IP addresses to clients for a specific time interval. When the lease period expires, the client can renew it, if it is still using the address. If the address is no longer in use when the lease expires, it is returned to the scope for reallocation. Automatic allocation permanently assigns an IP address from the scope to a client. Manual and static allocation are two terms describing the allocation of a specific IP address to a specific client.

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13
Q

Which of the following pairs of well-known ports are the default values you would use to configure a POP3 email client?

A. 110 and 25

B. 143 and 25

C. 110 and 143

D. 80 and 110

E. 25 and 80

A

A. 110 and 25

The default port for the Post Office Protocol (POP3) is 110. The default port for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), the other protocol used by email clients, is 25. Port 143 is the default for the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), a different email mailbox protocol that clients never use with POP3. Port 80 is the default for the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), which is not used by email clients.

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14
Q

Which of the following components does the port number in a transport layer protocol header identify?

A. A transport layer protocol

B. An application

C. A gateway

D. A proxy server

A

B. An application

The port numbers specified in a transport layer protocol header identify the application that generated the data in the packet or the application that will receive the data. Port numbers do not identify transport layer protocols, gateways, or proxy servers.

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15
Q

Which of the following is an example of a circuit-switched network connection, as opposed to a packet-switched network connection?

A. Two wireless computers using an ad hoc topology

B. A landline voice telephone call

C. A smartphone connecting to a cellular tower

D. Computers connected by a wired LAN

A

B. A landline voice telephone call

A circuit switched network connection requires a dedicated physical connection between the communicating devices. In a landline telephone call, a dedicated circuit is established between the two callers, which remains in place for the entire duration of the call. Wireless computers in an ad hoc topology and computers connected to a wired LAN use packet switching instead. A smartphone connection uses cell switching.

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16
Q

A client on a TCP/IP network is attempting to establish a session with a server. Which of the following correctly lists the order of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) session establishment messages?

A. SYN, ACK, SYN, ACK

B. SYN, SYN, ACK, ACK

C. SYN/ACK, SYN/ACK

D. SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

A

D. SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

The TCP connection establishment exchange is a three-way handshake. The first frame contains a SYN message from the client, the second frame contains a SYN/ACK message from the server, and the last frame contains an ACK message from the client.

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17
Q

Each of the following Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) events occurs on an Ethernet network when two stations transmit simultaneously, although not in the order listed. Which of the following events occurs immediately after the collision?

A. The two stations observe a random back-off interval.

B. The two stations transmit a jam signal.

C. The two stations stop transmitting.

D. The two stations listen to see if the channel is idle.

E. The two stations begin retransmitting their frames.

A

C. The two stations stop transmitting.

Stations on a CSMA/CD network first check the medium to see if it’s idle. If they detect an idle medium, they begin transmitting. If two or more devices transmit at the same time, a collision occurs. Immediately after a collision occurs, the two stations involved stop transmitting and then send out a jam signal. Then, the two stations back off for a random interval, and the transmission process begins again.

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18
Q

Which of the following IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN standards are capable of supporting both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies?

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11b

C. 802.11g

D. 802.11n

E. 802.11ac

A

D. 802.11n

Only the 802.11n standard defines wireless LAN devices that can support both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies. The 802.11a and 802.11ac standards use only 5 GHz, and the 802.11b and 802.11g standards use only 2.4 GHz

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19
Q

Which of the following statements about a wired local area network (LAN) is true?

A. Wired LANs support only the star topology.

B. Wired LANs support only the star and bus topologies.

C. Wired LANs support only the star and ring topologies.

D. Wired LANs can support ring, bus, or star topologies.

A

D. Wired LANs can support ring, bus, or star topologies.

A wired LAN is a group of computers within a small area, connected by a common network medium. A wired LAN can be configured using a ring, bus, or star topology.

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20
Q

Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource record types specifies the IP addresses of the authoritative DNS servers for a particular zone?

A. NS

B. PTR

C. MX

D. SRV

A

A. NS

The Name Server (NS) resource record identifies the authoritative servers for a particular DNS zone. Pointer (PTR) resource records are used to resolve IP addresses into hostnames. Mail Exchange (MX) records identify the mail servers for a particular domain. Service Locator (SRV) records identify the designated servers for a particular application.

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21
Q

Which of the following is a cellular communication technology that is virtually obsolete in the United States?

A. GSM

B. CDMA

C. CSMA/CD

D. TDMA

A

D. TDMA

Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) is a communication technique that splits a frequency into multiple time slots, enabling it to carry multiple data streams. Commonly used in 2G cellular systems, the major U.S. carriers no longer use it in their 3G systems. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) and Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM) are alternative communications techniques that are currently used by the major U.S. cellular carriers. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) is a media access control method used by Ethernet networks; it is not a cellular communication technology.

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22
Q

Which of the following protocols is limited to use on the local subnet only?

A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

C. Domain Name System (DNS)

D. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

A

A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

ARP relies on broadcast transmissions, which are not routable. It is therefore limited to use on the local subnet. DHCP also relies on broadcasts, but the ability to create DHCP relay agents makes it usable on an entire internetwork. DNS and SMTP do not rely on broadcasts and are therefore not limited to the local subnet.

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23
Q

Which of the following protocols prevents network switching loops from occurring by shutting down redundant links until they are needed?

A. RIP

B. STP

C. VLAN

D. NAT

A

B. STP

The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) prevents packets from endlessly looping from switch to switch due to redundant links. Creating redundant links is a good preventive against switch failure, but packets transmitted over multiple links can circulate from switch to switch infinitely. STP creates a database of switching links and shuts down the redundant ones until they are needed. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) propagates routing table information. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is an organizational tool that operates within switches by creating multiple broadcast domains. Network Address Translation (NAT) is a routing method that enables private networks to share registered IP addresses.

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24
Q

Ralph has been instructed to use the network address 10.12.0.0/14 for the new network he is installing. What subnet mask value should he use when configuring his computers?

A. 255.248.0.0

B. 255.252.0.0

C. 255.254.0.0

D. 255.255.248.0

E. 255.255.252.0

F. 255.255.254.0

A

B. 255.252.0.0

The 14-bit prefix indicated in the network address will result in a mask with 14 ones followed by 18 zeroes. Broken into 8-bit blocks, the binary mask value is as follows:

11111111 11111100 00000000 00000000

Converted into decimal values, this results in a subnet mask value of 255.252.0.0.

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25
Q

What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for translating and formatting information?

A. Physical

B. Data link

C. Network

D. Transport

E. Session

F. Presentation

G. Application

A

F. Presentation

The presentation layer implements functions providing formatting, translation, and presentation of information. No other layers of the OSI model translate and format application data.

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26
Q

An Ethernet network interface adapter provides functions that span which two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?

A. Physical and data link

B. Data link and network

C. Network and transport

D. Transport and application

A

A. Physical and data link

A network interface adapter functions at the data link layer by encapsulating network layer data for transmission over the network. It provides physical layer functions by providing the connection to the network medium and generating the appropriate signals for transmission.

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27
Q

Which of the following is a network layer protocol that uses ICMPv6 messages to locate routers, DNS servers, and other nodes on an IPv6 network?

A. BGP

B. NDP

C. OSPF

D. PoE

A

B. NDP

The Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) is a network layer protocol that defines five new Internet Control Message Protocol version 6 (ICMPv6) packet types, which enable IPv6 systems to locate resources on the network, such as routers and DNS servers, as well as autoconfigure and detect duplicate IPv6 addresses. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an exterior gateway protocol that is designed to exchange routing information among autonomous systems. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a link state routing protocol that enables routers to exchange routing table information. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a general term for standards defining mechanisms for power delivery over Ethernet cables, along with data signals.

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28
Q

Which of the following is not a technology typically used for a personal area network (PAN)?

A. Bluetooth

B. Z-Wave

C. NFC

D. ISDN

A

D. ISDN

Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a wide area networking technology that uses the telephone infrastructure to provide a high-speed dial-up service. It is therefore not suitable for use on a PAN. Bluetooth, Z-Wave, and near-field communication (NFC) are all short-range wireless technologies that are capable of proving communications between PAN devices.

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29
Q

Which of the following Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) control bits is set to 1 to initiate the termination of a session?

A. SYN

B. URG

C. FIN

D. END

E. PSH

A

C. FIN

The termination phase of a TCP connection begins when either the client or the server sends a message containing the FIN control bit with a value of 1. The other control bits listed have nothing to do with the connection termination procedure, and there is no END bit.

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30
Q

Which of the following wireless networking standards is capable of supporting speeds of 54 Mbps and is also backward compatible with IEEE 802.11b?

A. IEEE 802.11a

B. IEEE 802.11g

C. IEEE 802.11n

D. Bluetooth

E. IEEE 802.11

A

B. IEEE 802.11g

IEEE 802.11g supports transmission speeds up to 54 Mbps, and it is backward compatible with 802.11b equipment. IEEE 802.11 cannot run at 54 Mbps, and while 802.11a can, it is not compatible with 802.11b. IEEE 802.11n cannot run at 54 Mbps, though it can run at faster speeds. Bluetooth is not compatible with any of the IEEE 802.11 standards.

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31
Q

Which of the following is a protocol that identifies VLANs by inserting a 32-bit field in the Ethernet frame?

A. IEEE 802.1P

B. IEEE 802.1Q

C. IEEE 802.1X

D. IEEE 802.1AB

A

B. IEEE 802.1Q

IEEE 802.1Q is a standard that defines a mechanism (called Ethernet trunking by some manufacturers) that identifies the virtual local area network (VLAN) to which a packet belongs by inserting an extra 32-bit field into its Ethernet frame. IEEE 802.1P is a standard that defines a mechanism for implementing quality of service (QoS) at the data link layer by adding a 3-bit field into Ethernet frames. IEEE 802.1X is a standard defining an authentication mechanism called port-based network access control (PNAC). IEEE 802.1AB is a standard defining the Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP).

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32
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate description of the subnetting process on a TCP/IP network?

A. You extend the IP address by adding bits for a subnet identifier.

B. You borrow bits from the network identifier to create a subnet identifier.

C. You borrow bits from the host identifier to create a subnet identifier.

D. You create a subnet identifier by borrowing half of the bits from the network identifier and half from the host identifier.

A

C. You borrow bits from the host identifier to create a subnet identifier.

You cannot extend the IP address beyond its 32-bit size, and you cannot remove bits from the network identifier, or the packets will not be routed properly. You must therefore create a subnet by borrowing bits from the host identifier.

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33
Q

Which of the following devices is used to physically connect computers in the same VLAN?

A. A bridge

B. A hub

C. A switch

D. A router

A

C. A switch

Replacing routers with switches turns an internetwork into a single large subnet, and virtual local area networks (VLANs) exist as logical elements on top of the switching fabric. Although VLANs are the functional equivalent of network layer subnets, the systems in a single VLAN are still physically connected by switches, not routers. Bridges connect network segments at the data link layer and selectively forward traffic between the segments. However, bridges do not provide a dedicated connection between two systems like a switch does, and they do not make it possible to convert a large routed internetwork into a single switched network. Therefore, they have no role in implementing VLANs. Hubs are physical layer devices that propagate all incoming traffic out through all of their ports. Replacing the routers on an internetwork with hubs would create a single shared broadcast domain with huge amounts of traffic and many collisions. Hubs, therefore, do not connect the computers in a VLAN.

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34
Q

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients rely on which of the following types of transmissions to locate and initiate contact with DHCP servers on the local network?

A. Unicast

B. Broadcast

C. Multicast

D. Anycast

A

B. Broadcast

DHCP clients use broadcasts to transmit DHCPDISCOVER messages on the local network. DHCP servers are then required to respond to the broadcasts. DHCP clients cannot use unicast, multicast, or anycast messages to initiate contact with DHCP servers because they have no way of learning their addresses.

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35
Q

Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?

A. fe00::b491:cf79:p493:23ff

B. 2001:0:49e6:39ff:8cf5:6812:ef56

C. fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb

D. 2001:0:44ef68:23eb:99fe:72bec6:ea5f

A

C. fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb

The address fe00::c955:c944:acdd:3fcb is correctly formatted for IPv6, with the double colon replacing three blocks of zeroes. Uncompressed, the address would appear as follows: fe00:0000:0000:0000:c955:c944:acdd:3fcb. Option A contains a nonhexadecimal digit. Option B contains only seven 16-bit blocks (and no double colon) instead of the eight required for 128 bits. Option D contains blocks larger than 16 bits.

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36
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of packet switching over circuit switching?

A. Packets can be transmitted out of order.

B. Packets can take different routes to the destination.

C. Packets can be stored temporarily in the event of network congestion.

D. Packets can be routed around areas of network congestion.

A

C. Packets can be stored temporarily in the event of network congestion.

On a packet-switched network, packets can take different routes to the destination, can be transmitted out of order, and can be routed around network congestion. The packets are then reassembled into a complete message once all of them reach the destination. Temporary message storage is an advantage of circuit switching networks.

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37
Q

Which of the following is not a protocol used to allocate IP address assignments to clients on a network?

A. ARP

B. RARP

C. BOOTP

D. DHCP

A

A. ARP

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP), Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP), and Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) are all protocols that are designed to allocate IP addresses to clients. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), on the other hand, resolves existing IP addresses into data link layer MAC (or hardware) addresses.

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38
Q

Which of the following services enables computers on a private IPv4 network to access the Internet using a registered IP address?

A. DHCP

B. NAT

C. DNS

D. NTP

A

B. NAT

Network Address Translation (NAT) is a service that enables computers with unregistered IP addresses to access the Internet by substituting a registered address in packets as they pass through a router. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is an IP address allocation service. Domain Name System (DNS) resolves domain and hostnames into IP addresses, and Network Time Protocol (NTP) enables network devices to synchronize their time settings.

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39
Q

Near-field communication (NFC) is a short-range wireless technology that is designed to facilitate communications between two devices within which of the following distances from each other?

A. 4 millimeters

B. 4 centimeters

C. 4 decimeters

D. 4 meters

A

B. 4 centimeters

NFC is designed to provide wireless communication between devices up to 4 cm apart, such as smartphones and payment systems.

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40
Q

Simple Mail Transport Protocol is a TCP connection over port 25 allowing a client to send an email out to a mail server.

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

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41
Q

Which of the following protocols provides connectionless delivery service at the transport layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?

A. TCP

B. HTTP

C. UDP

D. ARP

A

C. UDP

The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) provides connectionless service at the transport layer. TCP provides connection-oriented service at the transport layer. HTTP is an application layer protocol, and ARP is a data link layer protocol.

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42
Q

What is the maximum number of routes that can be included in a single RIP broadcast packet?

A. 20

B. 25

C. 32

D. Unlimited

A

B. 25

A single RIP broadcast packet can include up to 25 routes. If there are more than 25 routes in the computer’s routing table, then RIP must generate additional packets.

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43
Q

VLANs create the administrative boundaries on a switched network that are otherwise provided by which of the following devices?

A. Hubs

B. Routers

C. Domains

D. Bridges

A

B. Routers

Connecting subnets with routers at the network layer maintains the data link layer administrative boundaries that prevent broadcast transmissions from being propagated throughout the entire internetwork. Switching eliminates those data link layer boundaries, and administrators can use virtual local area networks (VLANs) to simulate them. Because hubs propagate all of the traffic they receive out through all of their ports indiscriminately, they create no administrative boundaries. Domains are logical groups of network devices defined by the Domain Name System (DNS). Their functions are not related to VLANs in any way. Switches are essentially multiport bridges that forward incoming traffic only to the device for which it is destined. Therefore, bridges are more closely related to eliminating administrative boundaries than to establishing them.

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44
Q

What is the term used to refer to the DNS client mechanism that generates name resolution queries and sends them to DNS servers?

A. Requestor

B. Forwarder

C. Authority

D. Resolver

A

D. Resolver

The client component of the Domain Name System is called the resolver. Requestor is a generic term for any system issuing requests, and only DNS servers can be authorities or forwarders.

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45
Q

What is the valid range of numbers for the well-known Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports used by servers?

A. 1024 through 49151

B. 1 through 49151

C. 49152 through 65534

D. 1 through 1023

A

D. 1 through 1023

Well-known TCP and UDP server ports fall in the range of 1 through 1023. Registered port numbers fall in the range from 1024 to 49151. Ephemeral client ports fall in the range of 49152 through 65535.

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46
Q

SSH is a UDP connection that uses port 22.

A. True

B. False

A

B. False

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47
Q

At which layer of the OSI model do you find the protocol responsible for the delivery of data to its ultimate destination on an internetwork?

A. Data link

B. Network

C. Session

D. Application

A

B. Network

On a TCP/IP network, the Internet Protocol (IP) at the network layer is the protocol responsible for the delivery of data to its final destination. Data link layer protocols are only concerned with communication between devices on a local area network (LAN) or between two points connected by a wide area network (WAN). The session and application layers are not involved in the actual delivery of data.

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48
Q

Which of the following topologies provides the greatest number of redundant paths through the network?

A. Star

B. Ring

C. Mesh

D. Bus

A

C. Mesh

A mesh topology is one in which every node is directly connected to every other node, therefore providing complete redundancy through the network. In a star topology, each node is connected to a central nexus, providing each with a single path to the rest of the network. In a ring topology, each node is connected to two other nodes, providing two possible paths through the network. In a bus topology, nodes are chained together in a line, providing no redundancy.

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49
Q

Which of the following Internet Protocol (IP) address classes identifies multicast addresses?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

E. Class E

A

D. Class D

Class D addresses are used for multicast transmissions. Class A, Class B, and Class C addresses are used for unicast transmissions. Class E is for experimental use only.

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50
Q

Alice has constructed a five-node failover cluster in which all five servers are connected to a hard disk array using a dedicated Fibre Channel network. Which of the following terms describes this network arrangement?

A. SAN

B. PAN

C. WAN

D. MAN

A

A. SAN

A storage area network (SAN) is a network that is dedicated to carrying traffic between servers and storage devices. A personal area network (PAN) provides communication among devices associated with a single person, such as smartphones. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects devices or networks at different geographic locations. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a type of WAN that connects devices within a limited geographic area.

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51
Q

On an IEEE 802.11b/g/n wireless network running at 2.4 GHz with multiple access points, the traditional best practice is to use channels 1, 6, and 11, with no two adjacent access points configured to use the same channel. Which of the following is the real reason why this is a good plan?

A. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only three channels with frequencies that do not overlap.

B. Channels 1, 6, and 11 have more bandwidth than the other channels.

C. Channels 1, 6, and 11 have greater ranges than the other channels.

D. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the default settings on most wireless devices.

A

A. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only three channels with frequencies that do not overlap.

The 22 MHz channels in the 2.4 GHz band are spaced 5 MHz apart, which means that they overlap. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only three channels that are distant enough from each other not to overlap. Therefore, they do not interfere with each other. Channels 1, 6, and 11 do not differ from the other channels in their bandwidth or their transmission range. Each wireless device can be set to use only one channel. Therefore, channels 1, 6, and 11 cannot all be the default setting.

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52
Q

Ralph has configured a server called NE6 to function as a web server. He does not want to change the server’s existing name, but he wants it to be accessible to clients using the name www. What Domain Name System (DNS) modification can Ralph make to accomplish this?

A. Create an additional A resource record.

B. Create a new CNAME resource record.

C. Modify the existing A resource record.

D. Create a new PTR resource record.

A

B. Create a new CNAME resource record.

A canonical name (CNAME) resource record specifies an alternative host name (or alias) for a system already registered in the DNS. By creating a CNAME record specifying the www name, the server can be addressed using either NE6 or www. Creating an additional A resource record will cause the server to be recognized using one name or the other, but not both. Modifying the existing A record will change the hostname. PTR resource records are used only for reverse name resolution.

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53
Q

Which of the following TCP/IP parameters, configured on an end system, specifies the IP address of a device that performs domain name resolution services?

A. WINS Server Addresses

B. Default Gateway

C. DNS Server Addresses

D. Subnet Gateway

A

C. DNS Server Addresses

The DNS Server Addresses parameter contains the addresses of servers that resolve domain names into IP addresses. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) provides Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) name resolution. The Default Gateway parameter defines the local router to be used to access other networks. There is no such parameter as Subnet Gateway.

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54
Q

Convert the binary mask 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000 into its equivalent decimal value. What is the decimal representation of this mask?

A. 255.255.224.0

B. 255.255.240.0

C. 255.255.248.0

D. 255.255.252.0

A

A. 255.255.224.0

The decimal value for 11111111 is 255, the value for 11100000 is 224, and the value for 00000000 is 0, so the mask is 255.255.240.0.

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55
Q

What is the valid range of numbers for the ephemeral client ports used by the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?

A. 1023 through 65534

B. 1 through 1024

C. 49152 through 65535

D. 1024 to 49151

A

C. 49152 through 65535

Ephemeral client ports fall in the range of 49152 through 65535. Well-known TCP and UDP server ports fall in the range of 1 through 1023. Registered port numbers fall in the range from 1024 to 49151.

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56
Q

To which class does the following IPv4 address belong: 190.126.14.251?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

A

B. Class B

All Class B addresses have first octet values between 128 and 191. The first octet range of a Class A address is 1 to 126, and the Class C first octet range is 192 to 223. Class D addresses have a first octet range of 224 to 239.

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57
Q

Which of the following explanations best describes the function of a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) or User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port number?

A. The port number indicates to the receiver that the sender can activate a specific port only.

B. The port number is used by both the sender and the receiver to identify the application that generated the information in the datagram.

C. The port number is used only by the receiver to indicate the application process running on the sender.

D. The port number is used by both the sender and the receiver to negotiate a well-known server port for the communicating processes.

A

B. The port number is used by both the sender and the receiver to identify the application that generated the information in the datagram.

TCP ports and UDP ports identify the application protocol or process that generated the information in a datagram. Client ports are chosen randomly from the range 1024 through 65,534. Server ports are well-known and are chosen from the range 1 through 1023.

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58
Q

Which of the following technologies enables the IP addresses assigned to clients by a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to be automatically added to the DNS namespace?

A. Reverse name resolution

B. Dynamic DNS

C. Automatic allocation

D. HOSTS

A

B. Dynamic DNS

Dynamic DNS (DDNS) is an addition to the DNS standards that eliminates the need for administrators to manually create certain DNS resource records. For example, when a DHCP server allocates an address to a client, DDNS creates a host (A) record containing the host name of the client and the newly allocated IP address. Reverse name resolution is the process of looking up host names based on IP addresses. Automatic allocation is a DHCP process by which IP addresses are permanently assigned to clients. HOSTS is a text-based name resolution method that predates DNS.

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59
Q

What is the maximum number of transmit and receive antennae supported by the currently ratified IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN standards?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

A

C. 8

The 802.11ac standard supports multiple input and multiple output (MIMO) through the use of up to eight antennae on a single device. The 802.1n standard is the only standard that supports MIMO, with up to four antennae.

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60
Q

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model defines the medium, network interfaces, connecting hardware, and signaling methods used on a network?

A. Physical

B. Data link

C. Network

D. Transport

E. Session

F. Presentation

G. Application

A

A. Physical

The physical layer of the OSI model defines the standards for the physical and mechanical characteristics of a network, such as cabling (copper and fiber), connecting hardware (hubs and switches), and signaling methods (analog and digital). All of the other layers are not involved in the mechanical characteristics of the network.

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61
Q

Which of the following is an address that you can assign to a host on a private IPv4 network?

A. 192.167.9.46

B. 172.16.255.255

C. 10.1.0.253

D. 225.87.34.1

A

C. 10.1.0.253

The address 10.1.0.253 is a proper address in the private address range 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255. The address 192.167.9.46 falls outside the designated private IP address range, which is 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255, and is therefore not a viable address on a private network. 172.16.255.255 is a broadcast address, which you cannot assign to a host. 225.87.34.1 falls in the Class D multicast address range and cannot be assigned to a single host.

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62
Q

Which of the OSI model layers is responsible for syntax translation and compression or encryption?

A. Data link

B. Network

C. Session

D. Presentation

E. Application

A

D. Presentation

The presentation layer provides a syntax translation service that enables two computers to communicate, despite their use of different bit-encoding methods. This translation service also enables systems using compressed or encrypted data to communicate with each other.

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63
Q

The protocols at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model use port numbers to identify the applications that are the source and the destination of the data in the packets?

A. Application

B. Presentation

C. Transport

D. Network

A

C. Transport

Transport layer protocols, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP), have header fields that contain the port numbers of the applications that generated the data in the packet and that will receive it. The application, presentation, and network layers do not use port numbers.

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64
Q

Which of the words in the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) www.paris.mydomain.org represents the topmost layer in the DNS namespace hierarchy?

A. www

B. paris

C. mydomain

D. org

A

D. org

The topmost layer in the DNS hierarchy is represented by org, which is a top-level domain. Mydomain is a second-level domain registered by a particular organization. Paris is a subdomain within Mydomain, and www is the name of a particular host in the paris.mydomain.org domain.

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65
Q

Which of the following IEEE wireless LAN standards provides the greatest possible throughput?

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11ac

C. 802.11b

D. 802.11g

E. 802.11n

A

B. 802.11ac

The IEEE 802.11ac standard provides the greatest possible throughput, at up to 1.3 Gbps. The 802.11n standard runs at speeds up to 600 Mbps. The 802.11a and 802.11g standards run at up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b standard runs at up to 11 Mbps.

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66
Q

Which of the following IPv6 address types is the functional equivalent of an IPv4 APIPA address?

A. Link local

B. Global unicast

C. Site local

D. Anycast

A

A. Link local

An IPv6 link local address is automatically assigned to each interface. Like Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA), it provides communication on the local network only. Global unicast addresses are routable; they are the functional equivalent of IPv4 registered addresses. Site local addresses are the equivalent of private IPv4 addresses. Anycast addresses are designed to transmit to any one host in a multicast group.

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67
Q

Which of the following Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options prevents the client from transmitting IP datagrams that circulate endlessly around the network?

A. Interface MTU

B. Default IP TTL

C. ARP cache timeout

D. TCP keepalive interval

A

B. Default IP TTL

The Default IP Time-to-live (TTL) option specifies the maximum number of seconds or hops allowed to an IP datagram before a router removes it from the network. This prevents datagrams from circulating endlessly. The Interface Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) option specifies the maximum size of an IP datagram. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache timeout specifies how long entries containing the IP address assigned by the server can remain in the cache maintained by a client’s ARP implementation. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) keepalive interval option specifies the number of seconds that the client should wait before transmitting a keepalive message over a TCP connection.

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68
Q

In which IPv4 class is the address 127.0.0.1 found?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

Address 127.0.0.1 is the designated IPv4 local loopback address, and as such, it is reserved. It falls between Class A, which has first octet values from 1 to 126, and Class B, which has first octet values of 128 to 191.

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69
Q

Which of the following terms defines a wireless LAN transmission technique in which devices use multiple antennae to increase transmission speeds?

A. MIMO

B. TDMA

C. PAN

D. Ant+

A

A. MIMO

Multiple input and multiple output (MIMO) calls for the use of two or more antennae, enabling wireless devices to effectively multiplex signals, hereby increasing their transmission speeds. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) is a communication technique that splits a frequency into multiple time slots, enabling it to carry multiple data streams. A personal area network (PAN) provides communication among devices associated with a single person, such as smartphones. Ant+ is a wireless protocol that is typically used to monitor data gathered by sensors, such as those in cardiac pacemakers.

70
Q

The default mask for a Class B network is 255.255.0.0. How many subnet bits do you need to create 600 subnets with 55 hosts per subnet, and what is the new subnet mask for the network?

A. 10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192

B. 9 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128

C. 10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0

D. 11 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192

A

A. 10 subnet bits with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192

A standard Class B address with a mask of 255.255.0.0 has 16 bits that can be used for subnets and hosts. To get 600 subnets, you must use 10 of the available bits, which gives you up to 1024 subnets. This leaves 6 host bits, which gives you up to 62 hosts per subnet, which exceeds the requirement of 55 requested by the client. Using 9 bits would give you only 510 subnets, while 11 bits would give you 2046 subnets but leave you only 5 bits for a maximum of 30 hosts, which is not enough.

71
Q

When analyzing captured TCP/IP packets, which of the following control bits must you look for in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header to determine whether the receiving host has successfully received the sending host’s data?

A. ACK

B. FIN

C. PSH

D. SYN

E. URG

A

A. ACK

The receiving host uses the ACK bit to notify the sending host that it has successfully received data. The other control bits are not used to acknowledge receipt of information.

72
Q

What is the correct order for a client to request an IP address from a DHCP server?

A. Discovery, Offer, Request, Acknowlege

B. Request, Offer, Acknowlege, Discovery

C. Discovery, Offer, Acknowlege, Request

D. Discovery, Request, Offer, Acknowlege

A

A. Discovery, Offer, Request, Acknowlege

73
Q

Ed is the overnight manager of his company’s datacenter, and he is responsible for both private and public resources in the company’s hybrid cloud. Due to a new TV commercial shown that night, the company’s website experiences a massive upsurge in traffic. The web server farm on the private cloud is being overwhelmed, so Ed configures some virtual machines in the public cloud to take up the slack. Which of the following is a common term for what Ed has done?

A. Cloud busting

B. Cloud bursting

C. Cloud splitting

D. Cloud migrating

A

B. Cloud bursting

Cloud bursting is a common term for the offloading of excess traffic from private to public cloud resources when necessary to maintain satisfactory performance levels.

74
Q

Which of the following features enables an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor all of the traffic on a switched network?

A. Stateful packet inspection

B. Port mirroring

C. Trunking

D. Service dependent filtering

A

B. Port mirroring

Port mirroring is a feature found in some switches that takes the form of a special port that runs in promiscuous mode. This means that the switch copies all incoming traffic to that port, as well as to the dedicated destination ports. By connecting an IDS or protocol analyzer to this port, an administrator can access all of the network’s traffic. Stateful packet inspection is a firewall feature that enables the device to examine network and transport layer header fields, looking for patterns that indicate damaging behaviors, such as IP spoofing, SYN floods, and teardrop attacks. Trunking is a switch feature that enables administrators to create VLANs that span multiple switches. Service dependent filtering is a firewall feature that blocks traffic based on transport layer port numbers.

75
Q

In which of the following cloud models does a single organization function as both the provider and the consumer of all cloud services?

A. Public cloud

B. Private cloud

C. Hybrid cloud

D. Ad hoc cloud

A

B. Private cloud

In a private cloud, the same organization that utilizes the cloud services is also the sole owner of the infrastructure that provides those services. In the public cloud model, one organization functions as the provider, and another organization consumes the services of the provider. A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private infrastructure so that the consumer organization is only a partial owner of the infrastructure. There is no such thing as an ad hoc cloud model.

76
Q

Which of the following devices operates only at the physical layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?

A. Hub

B. Bridge

C. Switch

D. Router

A

A. Hub

A hub functions only at the physical layer by forwarding all incoming signals out through all of its ports. Bridges and switches operate at the physical layer and the data link layer by selectively propagating incoming data. Routers operate at the network layer by connecting local area networks and propagating only the traffic intended for another network, based on IP addresses.

77
Q

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients rely on which of the following types of transmissions to locate and initiate contact with DHCP servers on the local network?

A. Unicast

B. Broadcast

C. Multicast

D. Anycast

A

B. Broadcast

DHCP clients use broadcasts to transmit DHCPDISCOVER messages on the local network. DHCP servers are then required to respond to the broadcasts. DHCP clients cannot use unicast, multicast, or anycast messages to initiate contact with DHCP servers because they have no way of learning their addresses.

78
Q

Ralph has a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0. How many subnets can he create, and how many hosts can he create per subnet?

A. 64 subnets and 2046 hosts

B. 32 subnets and 2046 hosts

C. 30 subnets and 1022 hosts

D. 62 subnets and 1022 hosts

A

B. 32 subnets and 2046 hosts

With a Class B subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, the binary form of the third and fourth bytes is 11111000 00000000. There are 5 subnet bits, providing up to 32 subnets and 11 host bits, providing up to 2046 hosts.

79
Q

What is the term for the process by which dynamic routing protocols update other routers with routing table information?

A. Convergence

B. Distance vectoring

C. Redistribution

D. Dissemination

A

A. Convergence

Convergence is the term for the process by which routers propagate information from their routing tables to other routers on the network using dynamic routing protocols. Distance vectoring, redistribution, and dissemination do not describe this process.

80
Q

Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource records is used only for reverse name resolution?

A. MX

B. AAAA

C. CNAME

D. PTR

A

D. PTR

Like A and AAAA records, Pointer (PTR) records contain hostnames and IP addresses, but they are used for reverse name resolution—that is, resolving IP addresses into hostnames. A Mail Exchange (MX) record specifies the mail server that the domain should use. Canonical name (CNAME) records specify aliases for a given host name. An AAAA resource record maps a hostname to an IPv6 address for name resolution purposes.

81
Q

Which IP address allocation method is not supported by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)?

A. Manual

B. Dynamic

C. Stable

D. Automatic

A

C. Stable

Stable is not a DHCP allocation method. DHCP supports three allocation methods: manual, dynamic, and automatic.

82
Q

What is the greatest number of subnets you can create with a Class A IPv4 address if you use a 14-bit subnet identifier?

A. 256

B. 1,022

C. 1,024

D. 16,382

E. 16,384

A

E. 16,384

The formula for calculating the number of subnets you can create using a subnet identifier of a given length is 2x, where x is the number of bits in the subnet identifier. Therefore, with a 14-bit subnet, you can conceivably create 214, or 16,384, subnets.

83
Q

DNS uses which protocol?

A. TCP

B. UDP

C. IP

D. ICMP

E. TCP & UDP

A

E. TCP & UDP

84
Q

Microsoft’s Outlook.com email service is an example of which of the following cloud service models?

A. IaaS

B. PaaS

C. SaaS

D. None of the above

A

C. SaaS

Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers, in this case an email service. Consumers have control over some of their email functions, but they have no control over the operating system, the servers, or the underlying resources. The Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model provides the consumers with access to processing, storage, and networking resources that the consumer can use as needed. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider.

85
Q

Which of the following could be a valid MAC address for a network interface adapter?

A. 10.124.25.43

B. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

C. 00:1A:6B:31:9A:4E

D. 03:AE:16:3H:5B:11

E. fe80::89a5:9e4d:a9d0:9ed7

A

C. 00:1A:6B:31:9A:4E

A media access control (MAC) address is a six-byte hexadecimal value, with the bytes separated by colons, as in 00:1A:6B:31:9A:4E. Option A, 10.124.25.43, is all decimals and uses periods; this is an IPv4 address. Option B, FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF, is a valid MAC address, but this value is reserved for use as a broadcast address. Option D, 03:AE:16:3H:5B:11, is not a valid hexadecimal address, which should contain only numerals and the letters A to F. Option E, fe80::89a5:9e4d:a9d0:9ed7, is too long for a MAC address; this is a valid IPv6 address.

86
Q

What is the native file sharing protocol used on all Microsoft Windows operating systems?

A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

B. Network File System (NFS)

C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

D. Server Message Block (SMB)

E. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

A

D. Server Message Block (SMB)

The default file sharing protocol used on all Windows operating systems is SMB. HTTP is the native protocol used by web clients and servers. NFS is the native file sharing protocol used on Unix/Linux networks. FTP is a protocol used for transferring files from one system to another. LDAP is a protocol for transmitting directory service information.

87
Q

Which of the following organizations is responsible for assigning the well-known port numbers used in transport layer protocol headers?

A. Institute for Electronic and Electrical Engineers (IEEE)

B. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

C. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

D. International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

A

B. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

The IANA assigns values for well-known port numbers. The IEEE publishes Ethernet standards, among many others. The IETF develops standards for Internet technologies. The ISO developed the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

88
Q

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for transmitting signals over the network medium?

A. Physical

B. Data link

C. Network

D. Transport

E. Session

F. Presentation

G. Application

A

A. Physical

The physical layer of the OSI model defines the functions specific to the network medium and the transmission and reception of signals. All of the other layers are implemented in software and do not physically send or receive signals.

89
Q

Ed has been hired to design a company’s network. The company has an assigned Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Ed’s client wants the network to be configured with 10 subnets, each with 14 hosts. Is this configuration possible with the given address, and if so, how many subnets and hosts can Ed create on the network?

A. Yes, this will work. By using 4 subnet bits, it is possible for Ed to create up to 16 subnets. He can then use the remaining 4 host bits to create 14 hosts on each subnet.

B. No, this will not work. A Class C address cannot be subnetted to create 8 subnets.

C. No, this will not work. Although there are sufficient bits available to create 10 subnets, there are not enough bits left over for Ed to create 14 hosts per subnet.

D. Yes, this will work. Ed can create 10 subnets with 14 hosts per subnet. By using 3 subnet bits, he can create 10 subnets, which leaves 5 bits to create up to 30 hosts per subnet.

A

A. Yes, this will work. By using 4 subnet bits, it is possible for Ed to create up to 16 subnets. He can then use the remaining 4 host bits to create 14 hosts on each subnet.

In this scenario, the company has a Class C Internet Protocol (IP) address, which consists of 24 network bits and 8 host bits. The company wants 10 subnets and 14 hosts per subnet, so Ed must subdivide the 8 host bits into subnet and host bits. He can allocate 4 of the 8 host bits for subnets, enabling him to create up to 16 subnets. This leaves 4 bits for host addresses, enabling Ed to create 14 hosts per subnet.

90
Q

Which of the following is the default well-known port number for the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) used for web client/server communications?

A. 22

B. 20

C. 80

D. 1720

A

C. 80

Port 80 is the default well-known port for HTTP. Port 22 is for the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol, port 20 is for File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and 1720 is for the H.323 audio/video-conferencing protocol.

91
Q

What ports numbers are used with DHCP? (Choose 2)

A. 67

B. 22

C. 68

D. 23

E. 123

F. 124

A

A. 67

C. 68

92
Q

Which type of network connects local area networks (LANs) in distant locations?

A. WAN

B. LAN

C. MAN

D. CAN

A

A. WAN

WANs (wide area networks) connect LANs that are geographically distant. A LAN (local area network), as the name implies, is a group of computers, not other LANs, and it is contained within a small area. MANs (metropolitan area networks) connect LANs in a single metropolitan area; they are not confined to a small area. A MAN is typically larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN. A campus area network (CAN) typically includes a group of adjacent buildings, such as those of a corporation or university.

93
Q

Which of the following is a tool that integrates DHCP and DNS so that each is aware of the changes made by the other?

A. HOSTS

B. DHCPv6

C. IPAM

D. APIPA

A

C. IPAM

IP address management (IPAM) is a system for planning, managing, and monitoring the IP address space for an entire enterprise network. IPAM provides links between the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and the Domain Name System (DNS) so that each is aware of the naming and addressing changes made by the other. DHCPv6 is an IPv6 version of the DHCP service, which enables it to allocate IPv6 addresses to network clients. HOSTS is a text-based name resolution method that predates DNS. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is the mechanism that enables a DHCP client to assign itself an address when no DHCP servers are accessible.

94
Q

Network address translation (NAT) operates at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?

A. Data link

B. Network

C. Transport

D. Application

A

B. Network

NAT works by modifying IP addresses, which are a network layer element. The data link layer is concerned only with communications on the local subnet and is not involved with NAT processing. Because NAT modifies only the IP packet headers, it works with any transport layer protocol. NAT also works with most TCP/IP applications because it operates below the application layer of the OSI model.

95
Q

Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource records is used to implement email security mechanisms such as Sender Policy Framework and DomainKey Identified Mail?

A. MX

B. PTR

C. TXT

D. CNAME

A

C. TXT

A TXT resource record contains a text string that can be used for various applications. Sender Policy Framework (SPF) inserts a list of authorized email hosts into the TXT record and DomainKey Identified Email (DKIM) inserts a public key. MX, PTR, and CNAME records are not used for SPF and DKIM. A Mail Exchange (MX) record specifies the mail server that the domain should use. Pointer (PTR) records also contain host names and IP addresses, but they are used for reverse name resolution, that is, resolving IP addresses into host names. Canonical name (CNAME) records specify aliases for a given host name.

96
Q

Which of the following IP addresses is available for use on a network device?

A. 1.0.0.1

B. 127.98.127.0

C. 234.9.76.32

D. 240.65.8.124

A

A. 1.0.0.1

1.0.0.1 is a legitimate address that falls into Class A. Option B, 127.98.127.0, falls into the range of addresses reserved for use as loopback addresses (127.0.0.1 to 127.255.255.255). Option C, 234.9.76.32, falls into Class D, which is reserved for use as multicast addresses. Option D, 240.65.8.124, is a Class E address; that class is reserved for experimental use.

97
Q

Which of the following mechanisms for prioritizing network traffic uses a 6-bit classification identifier in the Internet Protocol (IP) header?

A. Diffserv

B. CoS

C. Traffic shaping

D. QoS

A

A. Diffserv

Differentiated services (Diffserv) is a mechanism that provides quality of service on a network by classifying traffic types using a 6-bit value in the differentiated services (DS) field of the IP header. Class of Service (CoS) is a similar mechanism that operates at the data link layer by adding a 3-bit Priority Code Point (PCP) value to the Ethernet frame. Traffic shaping is a means of prioritizing network traffic that typically works by delaying packets at the application layer. Quality of service (QoS) is an umbrella term that encompasses a variety of network traffic prioritization mechanisms.

98
Q

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model provides an entrance point to the protocol stack for applications?

A. Physical

B. Data link

C. Network

D. Transport

E. Session

F. Presentation

G. Application

A

G. Application

The application layer provides an entry point for applications to access the protocol stack and prepare information for transmission across a network. All other layers of the OSI model reside below this layer and rely on this entry point.

99
Q

Which type of network is typically confined to a small area, such as a single room, floor, or building?

A. WAN

B. LAN

C. MAN

D. CAN

A

B. LAN

A local area network (LAN), as the name implies, is a group of computers contained within a small geographic area. WANs (wide area networks) connect LANs that are geographically distant. MANs (metropolitan area networks) are not confined to a small area; they are typically larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN. A campus area network (CAN) typically includes a group of adjacent buildings, such as those of a corporation or university.

100
Q

What is the term for the technology implemented in the IEEE 802.11ac standard that enables a wireless device to transmit multiple frames to multiple clients simultaneously?

A. MIMO

B. Channel bonding

C. CSMA/CA

D. MU-MIMO

A

D. MU-MIMO

The multiple input and multiple output (MIMO) technology introduced in the IEEE 802.11n standard enables wireless devices to transmit and receive signals using multiple antennae simultaneously. The Multiuser MIMO (MU-MIMO) variant defined in the 802.11ac standard advances this technique by enabling wireless devices to transmit multiple frames to different users simultaneously, using multiple antennae. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) is a media access control mechanism used by all 802.11 networks. Channel bonding is a wireless networking technique that combines channels to increase bandwidth.

101
Q

Which of the following statements about cloud delivery models is true?

A. A public cloud is inherently insecure because anyone can access it.

B. A private cloud consists of hardware that is all located in a single datacenter.

C. A hybrid cloud enables administrators to migrate services between public and private resources.

D. Public, private, and hybrid clouds all utilize the same hardware resources.

A

C. A hybrid cloud enables administrators to migrate services between public and private resources.

A hybrid cloud consists of both public and private resources. One of its main advantages is that administrators can move services from private to public cloud servers and back again as needed, depending on the current workload. Public cloud resources require authentication, so while they might be less secure than a private cloud, they are not inherently insecure. The term private cloud refers to hardware resources that are owned and operated by a single organization, regardless of their location. The various cloud delivery models do not impose specific hardware resource requirements.

102
Q

At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is there a protocol that adds both a header and footer to the information that is passed down from an upper layer, thus creating a frame?

A. Physical

B. Data link

C. Network

D. Transport

E. Session

F. Presentation

G. Application

A

B. Data link

The only layer with a protocol (such as Ethernet) that adds both a header and a footer is the data link layer. The process of adding the headers and footers is known as data encapsulation. All other protocol layers that encapsulate data add just a header.

103
Q

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for the logical addressing of end systems and the routing of datagrams on a network?

A. Physical

B. Data link

C. Network

D. Transport

E. Session

F. Presentation

G. Application

A

C. Network

Network layer protocols specify logical addresses for end system communication and route datagrams across a network. The physical layer defines standards for physical and mechanical characteristics of a network. The data link layer uses media access control (MAC) or hardware addresses, not logical addresses. The transport layer uses port numbers, not logical addresses. Session layer protocols create and maintain a dialogue between end systems. Presentation layer protocols are responsible for the formatting, translation, and presentation of information. The application layer provides an entry point for applications to access the protocol stack and prepare information for transmission across a network.

104
Q

Which of the following values could a web client use as an ephemeral port number when communicating with a web server?

A. 1

B. 23

C. 80

D. 1024

E. 1999

F. 50134

A

F. 50134

An ephemeral port number is a temporary port supplied by a client to a server, for use during a single session or transaction. The allowed ephemeral port number values range from 49152 to 65535. The port values below 1024 are reserved for use as well-known ports, and the values from 1024 to 49151 are reserved for ports registered by specific manufacturers for their applications. Of these answers, 50134 is the only value that the client can use as an ephemeral port.

105
Q

At which of the following layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model do the protocols on a typical local area network use MAC addresses to identify other computers on the network?

A. Physical

B. Data link

C. Network

D. Transport

A

B. Data link

The Ethernet (or IEEE 802.3) protocol at the data link layer uses MAC addresses to identify computers on the local network. Media access control (MAC) addresses are coded into the firmware of physical network interface adapters by the manufacturer. The physical layer deals with signals and is not involved in addressing. The IP protocol at the network layer has its own addressing system. The transport layer protocols are not involved in addressing

106
Q

Which of the following cabling topologies was used by the first Ethernet networks?

A. Bus

B. Ring

C. Star

D. Mesh

A

A. Bus

The first Ethernet networks used a physical layer implementation commonly known as Thick Ethernet or 10Base5. The network used coaxial cable in a bus topology. Later Ethernet standards use twisted pair cable in a star topology. Ethernet has never used a ring or mesh topology.

107
Q

Which of the following server applications use two well-known port numbers during a typical transaction?

A. NTP

B. SNMP

C. HTTP

D. FTP

A

D. FTP

The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses two port numbers. It uses the first, port 21, for a control connection that remains open during the entire client/server session. The second port, 20, is for a data connection that opens only when the protocol is actually transferring a file between the client and the server. Network Time Protocol (NTP), Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), and Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) all use a single port on the server.

108
Q

What is the term for the combination of an IPv4 address and a port number, as in the following example: 192.168.1.3:23?

A. Socket

B. OUI

C. Well-known port

D. Network address

E. Domain

A

A. Socket

109
Q

Which of the following is not a protocol operating at the network layer of the OSI model?

A. IP

B. ICMP

C. IGMP

D. IMAP

A

D. IMAP

Internet Protocol (IP), Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP), and Internet Group Message Protocol (IGMP) are all network layer protocols. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is a mail protocol that operates at the application layer.

110
Q

Which of the following IPv6 address types is the functional equivalent of an IPv4 APIPA address?

A. Link local

B. Global unicast

C. Site local

D. Anycast

A

A. Link local

An IPv6 link local address is automatically assigned to each interface. Like Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA), it provides communication on the local network only. Global unicast addresses are routable; they are the functional equivalent of IPv4 registered addresses. Site local addresses are the equivalent of private IPv4 addresses. Anycast addresses are designed to transmit to any one host in a multicast group.

111
Q

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is responsible for dialogue control between two communicating end systems?

A. Physical

B. Data link

C. Network

D. Transport

E. Session

F. Presentation

G. Application

A

E. Session

The session layer is responsible for creating and maintaining a dialogue between end systems. This dialogue can be a two-way alternate dialogue that requires end systems to take turns transmitting, or it can be a two-way simultaneous dialogue in which either end system can transmit at will. No other layers of the OSI model perform dialogue control between communicating end systems.

112
Q

Ed is a software developer who has been given the task of creating an application that requires guaranteed delivery of information between end systems. At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model does the protocol that provides the guaranteed delivery run, and what type of protocol must Ed use?

A. Data link layer; connectionless

B. Network layer; connection-oriented

C. Transport layer; connection-oriented

D. Application layer; connectionless

A

C. Transport layer; connection-oriented

A connection-oriented transport layer protocol provides guaranteed delivery of data for upper layer applications. Connectionless protocols do not guarantee delivery of information and therefore are not a good choice. Guaranteed delivery of information is generally not a function of the data link, network, or application layer.

113
Q

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model would be responsible for converting a text file encoded using EBCDIC on the sending system into ASCII code, when required by the receiving system?

A. Application

B. Presentation

C. Session

D. Physical

A

B. Presentation

The presentation layer of the OSI model is responsible for translating different kinds of syntax, including text-encoding systems, such as EBCDIC and ASCII. The application, session, and physical layers do not perform this function.

114
Q

Domain Name Service uses a TCP/UDP connection on what port?

A. 25

B. 3389

C. 20

D. 53

E. 23

F. 22

G. 123

A

D. 53

115
Q

Which of the following is the range of IPv4 addresses that Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns to DHCP clients that cannot access a DHCP server?

A. 10.0.0.0 to 10.0.255.255

B. 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255

C. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.0.255

D. 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.255.255

A

B. 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255

When a DHCP client cannot access a DHCP server, APIPA assigns it a Class B address in the range 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255.

116
Q

An enterprise network has been designed with individual departmental switches because in most cases, the devices in a specific department exchange network traffic with other devices in the same department. Each of the departmental switches is also connected to a host switch, which enables devices to communicate with other departments. Which of the following terms describes this switching architecture?

A. Distributed switching

B. Port forwarding

C. Traffic shaping

D. Neighbor discovery

A

A. Distributed switching

Distributed switching describes a hierarchical switching architecture in which remote switches (in this case departmental switches) handle most of the network traffic, with a host switch used only for traffic between the remote locations. Port forwarding is a routing method that redirects traffic intended for one IP address and port number to another. Traffic shaping is a series of techniques that optimize the allocation of network bandwidth. Neighbor discovery is an IPv6 technique used to find addresses of devices and services on the local network.

117
Q

Identify the layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model that controls the addressing, transmission, and reception of Ethernet frames, and also identify the media access control method that Ethernet uses.

A. Physical layer; Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)

B. Physical layer; Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)

C. Data link layer; CSMA/CD

D. Data link layer; CSMA/CA

A

C. Data link layer; CSMA/CD

The Ethernet protocol that handles the addressing, transmission, and reception of frames operates at the data link layer. Each frame includes hardware addresses that identify the sending and receiving systems on the local network. Ethernet uses the CSMA/CD media access control method. Physical layer specifications include the transmission of signals in the form of electrical or light pulses to represent binary code, not frames. CSMA/CA is a data link layer media access control method used by wireless LAN protocols, but not Ethernet.

118
Q

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns IPv4 addresses from which of the following classes to Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) clients that cannot contact a DHCP server?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

A

B. Class B

When a DHCP client cannot access a DHCP server, APIPA assigns it a Class B address in the range 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255.

119
Q

Which of the following IEEE standards calls for the use of the Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) media access control mechanism?

A. 802.11ac

B. 802.1X

C. 802.3

D. All of the above

A

A. 802.11ac

The IEEE 802.11ac standard, like all of the wireless LAN standards in the 802.11 working group, uses CSMA/CA for media access control. The 802.1X standard defines an authentication mechanism and does not require a media access control mechanism. The IEEE 802.3 (Ethernet) standard uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD).

120
Q

Which of the following Ethernet physical layer options does not use the star topology?

A. 10Base2

B. 10Base-T

C. 100Base-TX

D. 1000Base-T

A

A. 10Base2

10Base2 is the physical layer specification for Thin Ethernet, which uses coaxial cable in a bus topology. 10Base-T, 100Base-TX, and 1000Base-T all use twisted pair cable in a star topology

121
Q

Ralph has been contracted to consult for a company that wants to update its legacy Ethernet network to Gigabit Ethernet. On examining the site, he discovers that the network is still using coaxial-based Thin Ethernet. What change in network topology must occur to upgrade the existing network to Gigabit Ethernet using unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable?

A. Bus to ring

B. Ring to star

C. Star to bus

D. Bus to star

E. Star to ring

A

D. Bus to star

All coaxial-based Ethernet networks, including Thin Ethernet, use a bus topology. All UTP-based Gigabit Ethernet networks use a star topology. Therefore, an upgrade from coaxial to UTP cable must include a change in topology from bus to star.

122
Q

Alice is a network administrator designing a new local area network (LAN). She needs to determine the type of cabling and the network topology to implement. Which layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model apply to cabling and topology elements?

A. Physical and data link layers

B. Data link and network layers

C. Network and transport layers

D. Transport and application layers

A

A. Physical and data link layers

The physical layer defines the mechanical and electrical characteristics of the cables used to build a network. The data link layer defines specific network (LAN or WAN) topologies and their characteristics. The physical layer standard that Alice will implement is dependent on the data link layer protocol she selects. The network, transport, and application layers are not concerned with cables and topologies.

123
Q

What is the greatest number of host addresses you can create on a single subnet of a network with the following address: 172.16.0.0/20?

A. 142

B. 144

C. 4,094

D. 4,096

A

C. 4,094

The formula for calculating the number of hosts you can create using a host identifier of a given length is 2x–2, where x is the number of bits in the host identifier. You cannot create a host with an address of all zeroes or all ones, which is why you subtract 2. On a network that uses 20 bits for network identification, 12 bits are left for the host identifier. Using those 12 bits, you can create 212–2 or 4,094 host addresses.

124
Q

Ed has been assigned the IPv4 network address 192.168.2.32/28 for the computers in his department. Which of the following ranges of addresses can Ed use to configure the TCP/IP clients on his computers?

A. 192.168.2.32 to 192.168.2.55

B. 192.168.2.33 to 192.168.2.46

C. 192.168.2.33 to 192.168.2.40

D. 192.168.2.1 to 192.168.2.254

A

B. 192.168.2.33 to 192.168.2.46

125
Q

Which of the following Domain Name System (DNS) resource records is used to resolve a hostname into an IPv6 address?

A. MX

B. PTR

C. AAAA

D. CNAME

A

C. AAAA

An AAAA resource record maps a hostname to an IPv6 address for name resolution purposes. A Mail Exchange (MX) record specifies the mail server that the domain should use. Pointer (PTR) records also contain hostnames and IP addresses, but they are used for reverse name resolution—that is, resolving IP addresses into hostnames. Canonical name (CNAME) records specify aliases for a given hostname.

126
Q

Which of the following is the term for the network name that you use to connect a client device to an access point on a wireless LAN?

A. BSS

B. ESS

C. SSID

D. BSSID

A

C. SSID

The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the name that you use when connecting to a wireless network. A Basic Service Set (BSS) refers to the wireless network itself, consisting of a single access point and a number of clients. An Extended Service Set (ESS) consists of two or more BSSs, using multiple access points. The Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID) is the MAC address of the access point associated with a BSS.

127
Q

What field in the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Option subheader specifies the size of the largest segment a system can receive?

A. MSS

B. Window

C. MMS

D. WinMS

A

A. MSS

The Maximum Segment Size (MSS) field in the TCP Options subheader specifies the size (in bytes) of the largest segment a system can receive. The Window field indicates the amount of data (in bytes) that the receiver can accept. There are no MMS or WinMS fields in a TCP header.

128
Q

Which of the following terms refers to methods by which network traffic is prioritized to prevent applications from suffering faults due to network congestion?

A. Port forwarding

B. Dynamic routing

C. VLANs

D. QoS

A

D. QoS

Quality of service (QoS) is a general term that refers to various mechanisms for prioritizing network traffic so that applications or data streams requiring a certain level of performance are not negatively affected by lower-priority transmissions. Port forwarding is a routing method that redirects traffic intended for one IP address and port number to another. Dynamic routing is a method by which routing tables are automatically updated with new information as the routing fabric of an internetwork changes. Virtual local area networks (VLANs) are a means for partitioning a broadcast domain into discrete units that are functionally equivalent to physical LANs.

129
Q

Specify the layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model at which the Internet Protocol (IP) operates and whether it is connection-oriented or connectionless.

A. Network; connection-oriented

B. Network; connectionless

C. Transport; connection-oriented

D. Transport; connectionless

A

B. Network; connectionless

IP is a connectionless protocol that operates at the network layer of the OSI model. There are no connection-oriented protocols at this layer. The protocols at the transport layer include Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), which is connection-oriented, and User Datagram Protocol (UDP), which is connectionless.

130
Q

In its physical implementation, a LAN using a logical ring topology most closely resembles which of the following physical topologies?

A. Bus

B. Mesh

C. Star

D. Ad hoc

A

C. Star

In a logical ring topology, the signal path leads from each node to the next one, but physically, the network resembles a star, with each node connected to a central nexus. Signals travel from one node to the nexus, then to the next node, and then back to the nexus, and so on. A logical ring could not be implemented on a physical bus topology. A mesh topology could conceivably host a logical ring, but this would be highly impractical on a LAN. Ad hoc is a wireless topology that is not applicable in this situation.

131
Q

Ralph is performing a site survey for a wireless LAN installation in a warehouse with two offices at either end of the building, approximately 300 feet apart. If he installs a single access point in the center of the warehouse, equidistant from the two offices, which of the following standards should he look for when purchasing hardware so that workstations in both offices will be able to connect to the network at the best possible speed?

A. IEEE 802.11a

B. IEEE 802.11g

C. IEEE 802.11n

D. IEEE 802.11ac

A

C. IEEE 802.11n

Wireless networks using equipment based on the IEEE 802.11n standard can span indoor distances of up to 175 feet at speeds up to 600 Mbps. An 802.11ac network can run at faster speeds—up to 1.3 Gbps—but it is limited to approximately 115-foot distances. Networks using 802.11g equipment can span 150 feet, but they run at only a maximum of 54 Mbps. An 802.11a network cannot span more than 75 feet, and it runs at no more than 54 Mbps.

132
Q

Which of the following protocols does the Ping utility use to exchange messages with another system?

A. UDP

B. TCP

C. ICMP

D. IGMP

A

C. ICMP

Ping uses the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) to exchange messages with other systems. ICMP is also used to return error messages to sending systems. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) and the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) are both transport layer protocols that carry application layer data; Ping does not use either one. The Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is used to create multicast groups; Ping does not use it.

133
Q

Which of the following components are required for two computers to communicate using an IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN using an ad hoc topology?

A. A router connected to the Internet

B. A wireless access point

C. An external antenna

D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

An ad hoc topology describes wireless computers that communicate directly with each other, without the need for any hardware other than their wireless network adapters. The ad hoc topology therefore does not require a router, an Internet connection, an access point, or a special antenna.

134
Q

Which of the following protocols is used to exchange directory service information?

A. RDP

B. LDAP

C. SNMP

D. SMB

A

B. LDAP

The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is an application layer protocol used for managing and accessing information stored in directory services. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is used to establish a graphical remote control session with another computer. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used to carry information gathered by management agents distributed around a network to a central management server. Server Message Block (SMB) is the primary file sharing protocol used by Windows systems.

135
Q

This known port name uses port 69 and can be used over the network for PXE Boot.

A. Telnet

B. TFTP

C. SFTP

D. DNS

E. FTP

A

B. TFTP

136
Q

Which of the following topologies is used by the majority of new Ethernet networks installed today?

A. Bus

B. Virtual ring

C. Mesh

D. Hierarchical star

A

D. Hierarchical star

Virtually all of the new Ethernet networks installed today use the star or the hierarchical star topology, with one or more switches functioning as a cabling nexus.

137
Q

Which of the following terms describes the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) exchange that establishes a connection prior to the transmission of any data?

A. Synchronization

B. Initialization exchange

C. Connection establishment

D. Three-way handshake

A

D. Three-way handshake

Two systems establishing a TCP connection exchange three messages before they begin transmitting data. The exchange of these synchronization messages is referred to as a three-way handshake. The other terms listed are not formally used to describe this exchange.

138
Q

Which of the following TCP/IP routing protocols does not include the subnet mask within its route update messages, preventing it from supporting subnetting?

A. Routing Information Protocol, version 1 (RIPv1)

B. Routing Information Protocol, version 2 (RIPv2)

C. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

D. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

A

A. Routing Information Protocol, version 1 (RIPv1)

RIP v1 does not include the subnet mask in its updates. RIPv2 supports subnetting and includes the subnet mask of each network address in its updates. OSPF and BGP both include the subnet mask within their updates.

139
Q

Which of the following statements is true about an Ethernet network that uses CSMA/CD?

A. Collisions are a normal occurrence.

B. Collisions never occur unless there is a network fault.

C. Collisions cause data to be irretrievably lost.

D. Collisions are the result of duplicate IP addresses.

A

A. Collisions are a normal occurrence.

Collisions are a normal occurrence on an Ethernet network; they occur when two nodes transmit at exactly the same time. There need not be a network fault for collisions to occur. When collisions occur, the nodes involved retransmit their packets so that no data is lost. Collisions are a phenomenon of data link layer protocols; they have nothing to do with IP addresses, which are network layer constructs.

140
Q

Alice has been asked to design her company’s Internet Protocol (IP) addressing scheme. The company has been assigned Class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Alice’s director wants 4 subnets with 28 hosts per subnet. How many bits are required for subnets? How many bits are required for hosts? What will the new subnet mask be for this network?

A. 3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.240

B. 4 subnet bits, 3 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.248

C. 3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.224

D. 5 subnet bits, 3 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.192

A

C. 3 subnet bits, 5 host bits, and subnet mask 255.255.255.224

In this scenario, the last byte of the IP address assigned to the company must be subdivided into 3 subnet bits and 5 host bits. The 3 subnet bits will give Alice up to 8 subnets, with 5 host bits for up to 30 hosts per subnet. The new subnet mask is 255.255.255.224. The 224 is the decimal equivalent of the binary value 11100000, which represents the 3 subnet bits and the 5 host bits.

141
Q

When you contract with a provider to obtain email services for your company using their servers in the public cloud, which of the following service models are you using?

A. IaaS

B. PaaS

C. SaaS

D. None of the above

A

C. SaaS

The Software as a Service (SaaS) model provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the consumers with processing, storage, and networking resources that they can use to install and run operating systems and other software of their choice. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server installed by the provider.

142
Q

Flow control is a function implemented in protocols operating at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?

A. Presentation

B. Session

C. Transport

D. Network

A

C. Transport

Flow control is a process that adjusts the transmission rate of a protocol based on the capability of the receiver. If the receiving system becomes overwhelmed by incoming data, the sender dynamically reduces the transmission rate. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is responsible for implementing flow control. TCP runs at the transport layer. None of the other layers listed have TCP/IP protocols that provide flow control.

143
Q

A network interface adapter in a workstation has a hexadecimal MAC address of 001F9EFC7AD0. Which of the following would be the adapter’s IPv6 link local address based on its EUI-64 value?

A. FE80::001F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0

B. FE80::FFFE:021F:9EFC:7AD0

C. FE80::FF00:1F9E:FC7A:D0FE

D. FE80::021F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0

A

D. FE80::021F:9EFF:FEFC:7AD0

To convert a MAC address to an Extended Unique Identifier (EUI-64), you split the 6-byte MAC address into two 3-byte halves and insert the 2-byte value FFFE in between, as follows:

001F9E FFFE FC7AD0

Then, you change the seventh bit in the first byte, the universal/local bit, from 0 to 1, indicating that this is a locally created address. This results in a binary first byte value of 00000010, which converts to 02 in hexadecimal.

Finally, you add the IPv6 link local prefix FE80::/10, resulting in the following complete address:

FE80::021F:9EFF:FEFC: 7AD0

All of the other answers either insert the FFFE bytes in the wrong place or fail to change the universal/local bit.

144
Q

Which of the following organizations developed the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?

A. International Telecommunication Union (ITU-T)

B. Comité Consultatif International Télégraphique et Téléphonique (CCITT)

C. American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

D. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

E. International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

A

E. International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

ISO developed and published the OSI model to serve as a conceptual model for software and hardware developers. The ITU-T, formerly known as the CCITT, coordinates the development and advancement of international telecommunication networks and services. ANSI is a private organization that administers and coordinates a United States–based standardization and conformity assessment system. The IEEE publishes standards that define data link and physical layer standards. These standards are referred to collectively as the 802 series.

145
Q

Which of the following is the correct subnet mask for a network with the address 172.16.0.0/20?

A. 255.255.224.0

B. 255.255.240.0

C. 255.255.248.0

D. 255.255.255.224

E. 255.255.255.240

A

B. 255.255.240.0

The address given uses 20 bits to identify the network, leaving 12 bits for the host identifier. In binary form, therefore, the subnet mask value would be 11111111 11111111 11110000 00000000. The decimal value for 11111111 is 255, and the decimal value for 11110000 is 240. Therefore, the subnet mask is 255.255.240.0.

146
Q

Ralph is having trouble accessing the Internet this morning and calls his colleague Ed in another department to find out if he’s experiencing the same problem. Ed says he’s having no problem accessing the Internet, but that might not mean anything because they might be on different subnets. Ralph asks Ed how to tell if they’re on different subnets. Ed asks Ralph to read him his IP address. Ralph’s address is 192.168.176.171, and Ed says his is 192.168.176.195. Both of them are using the same subnet mask: 255.255.255.224. Are the two men working on the same subnet?

A. No, they are not on the same subnet. Ralph’s subnet address is 192.168.176.192, and Ed’s subnet address is 192.168.176.160.

B. No, they are not on the same subnet. Ralph’s subnet address is 192.168.176.160, and Ed’s subnet address is 192.168.176.192.

C. Yes, they are on the same subnet. The subnet address for both is 192.168.176.192.

D. Yes, they are on the same subnet. The subnet address for both is 192.168.176.160.

A

B. No, they are not on the same subnet. Ralph’s subnet address is 192.168.176.160, and Ed’s subnet address is 192.168.176.192.

A subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 indicates that the systems are using a Class C address that has been subnetted using a 3-bit subnet identifier. When you convert the last byte of the IP addresses to binary form, you get 10101011 for Ralph’s and 11000011 for Ed’s. Because the first three bits (the subnet identifiers) are different, the two are on different subnets. Convert the subnet addresses 10100000 and 11000000 back to binary, and you get their respective subnet addresses: 192.168.176.160 for Ralph and 192.168.176.192 for Ed.

147
Q

Telnet is an unsecured remote network connection used over what port number?

A. 22

B. 53

C. 68

D. 80

E. 161

F. 3389

G. 23

A

G. 23

148
Q

Which of the following protocols provides connection-oriented service with guaranteed delivery at the transport layer of the OSI model?

A. TCP

B. HTTP

C. UDP

D. IP

A

A. TCP

The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) provides connection-oriented service at the transport layer, with guaranteed delivery. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) provides connectionless service at the transport layer. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) operates at the application layer, and Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless network layer protocol.

149
Q

Which of the following protocols operates at the network layer of the OSI model but does not encapsulate data generated by an upper layer protocol for transmission over the network?

A. IP

B. UDP

C. ARP

D. ICMP

E. TCP

A

D. ICMP

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) operates at the network layer by sending operational and error messages. It does not encapsulate upper layer protocol data. Internet Protocol (IP) operates at the network layer, but it does encapsulate transport layer protocol data. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are transport layer protocols that encapsulate upper layer protocol data. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) does not encapsulate upper layer protocol data, but it is a data link layer protocol.

150
Q

Alice has been assigned the network address 172.21.0.0/22 for the creation of a new department network in her company. How many host addresses does she have available to her?

A. 510

B. 512

C. 1022

D. 1024

A

C. 1022

To calculate the number of host addresses available, Alice must determine the number of host bits in the address, which is 10, raise 2 to that power, and subtract 2 for the network and broadcast addresses, which are unusable for hosts. The formula is therefore 2x–2. 210–2 = 1022.

151
Q

Which of the following topologies enables wireless devices to access resources on a wired network?

A. Ad hoc

B. Star

C. Infrastructure

D. Bus

A

C. Infrastructure

An infrastructure topology uses a wireless access point (AP) to connect wireless devices to a wired network. An ad hoc topology connects wireless devices to each other, without connecting to a wired network. The star and bus topologies do not support wireless devices.

152
Q

Which of the following TCP/IP parameters, configured on an end system, specifies the Internet Protocol (IP) address of a router on the local network that provides access to other networks?

A. WINS Server Addresses

B. Default Gateway

C. DNS Server Addresses

D. Subnet Gateway

A

B. Default Gateway

The Default Gateway parameter specifies the address of the local router that the end system should use to access other networks. The WINS Server Addresses and DNS Server Addresses parameters are used to resolve names to IP addresses. There is no such parameter as Subnet Gateway.

153
Q

Which of the following types of routing protocols route datagrams between autonomous systems?

A. EGP

B. RIP

C. IGP

D. OSPF

A

A. EGP

An Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) routes datagrams between autonomous systems. An Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) routes datagrams within an autonomous systems. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) are examples of interior gateway protocols.

154
Q

Alice has been instructed to create a network with 8 subnets and 30 hosts per subnet. She has been assigned a Class C network address. Which of the following subnet masks will she have to use?

A. 255.255.255.128

B. 255.255.255.192

C. 255.255.255.224

D. 255.255.255.240

E. 255.255.255.248

F. 255.255.255.252

A

C. 255.255.255.224

To create a network with 8 subnets and 30 hosts per subnet, Alice would have to allocate 3 of the 8 bits in the last octet for subnet identifiers. This would result in a binary value of 11100000 for the last octet in the subnet mask, which converts to a decimal value of 224.

155
Q

Which of the following IEEE wireless LAN standards uses the Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) signal modulation technique?

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11b

C. 802.11g

D. 802.11n

E. 802.11ac

A

B. 802.11b

The IEEE 802.11b standard calls for DSSS signal modulation. All of the other standards listed call for Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing (OFDM) encoding.

156
Q

On a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server, what is the name of the element you create to specify which IP addresses the server should assign to clients?

A. Range

B. Scope

C. Pool

D. Subnet

A

B. Scope

On a DHCP server, you create a scope that consists of a beginning and an ending IP address. Range, pool, and subnet are not technical terms for DHCP.

157
Q

What is the maximum channel width possible using wireless networking equipment based on the ratified IEEE 802.11 standards?

A. 20 MHz

B. 40 MHz

C. 80 MHz

D. 160 MHz

A

D. 160 MHz

The 802.11ac standard defines the bonding of up to eight 20 MHz channels, for a total possible channel width of 160 MHz. The 802.11n standard can bond up to two channels, for a 40 MHz width. Earlier standards are limited to a single 20 MHz channel.

158
Q

At which of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers do switches and bridges perform their basic functions?

A. Physical

B. Data link

C. Network

D. Transport

A

B. Data link

Switches and bridges are involved in local area network (LAN) communications only and therefore operate at the data link layer.

159
Q

Which of the following devices would you most likely configure to function as a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server?

A. A wireless router

B. An unmanaged switch

C. A hub

D. A bridge

A

A. A wireless router

Most wireless routers are designed to provide connecting workstations with IP addresses and other TCP/IP configuration parameters. Switches and bridges are data link layer devices and hubs are physical layer devices, none of which are capable providing clients with network layer IP addresses.

160
Q

Which of the following is a correct listing of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layers, in order, from top to bottom?

A. Physical, data link, transport, network, session presentation, application

B. Application, session, presentation, transport, network, data link, physical

C. Presentation, application, transport, session, network, physical, data link

D. Session, application, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical

E. Application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

A

E. Application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

The correct order of the OSI model layers, from top to bottom, is application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical.

161
Q

Which of the following is the primary application layer protocol used by web browsers to communicate with web servers?

A. HTTP

B. HTML

C. SMTP

D. FTP

A

A. HTTP

The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the primary protocol used for web client/server communications. Hypertext Markup Language is a coding language used to create web content. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and File Transfer Protocol (FTP) can both be used in web communications, but neither is the primary protocol.

162
Q

Which of the following use port 22: (Choose 3)

A. DNS

B. SCP

C. SFTP

D. TFTP

E. TELNET

F. SNMP

G. SSH

A

B. SCP

C. SFTP

G. SSH

163
Q

Which of the following best describes what happens when a DNS server receives an iterative name resolution query?

A. The DNS server responds immediately to the query with the best information it has in its resource records or in its cache or, failing that, with an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name.

B. The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cache or, failing that, by issuing its own iterative queries to other DNS servers.

C. The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cache or, failing that, by forwarding the name resolution request to another DNS server in a recursive query.

D. The DNS server responds immediately if it is the authoritative server for the domain in which the requested name is located. Otherwise, it returns an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name.

A

A. The DNS server responds immediately to the query with the best information it has in its resource records or in its cache or, failing that, with an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name.

When a DNS server receives an iterative query, it responds immediately with the best information that it has available or with an error message. It does not send queries to other servers.

164
Q

Which of the following cloud service models provides the consumer with the most control over the cloud resources?

A. IaaS

B. PaaS

C. SaaS

D. IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS all provide the same degree of control.

A

A. IaaS

The Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model provides the consumers with the most control, as the provider furnishes processing, storage, and networking resources that the consumer can use as needed. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider, but they have only limited control over the server and no control over the underlying resources. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers, but the consumers have no control over the operating system, the servers, or the underlying resources.

165
Q

Which of the following best defines the concept of the dual stack?

A. A computer with two network interface adapters

B. A computer with two installed operating systems

C. A computer with two sets of networking protocols

D. A computer with connections to two different network segments

A

C. A computer with two sets of networking protocols

A dual stack is an IP implementation that includes both IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks, operating simultaneously. A computer with two network adapters or connections to two network segments is often called multihomed. A computer with two installed operating systems is called a dual-boot system.

166
Q

At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model are there TCP/IP protocols that can provide either connectionless or connection-oriented services to applications?

A. Physical

B. Data link

C. Network

D. Transport

E. Session

F. Presentation

G. Application

A

D. Transport

There are two types of transport layer protocols: connection-oriented and connectionless. Connection-oriented protocols guarantee the delivery of data from source to destination by creating a connection between the sender and the receiver before any data is transmitted. Connectionless protocols do not require a connection between end systems in order to pass data. The physical layer does not use connectionless or connection-oriented protocols; it defines standards for transmitting and receiving information over a network. The data link layer provides physical addressing and final packaging of data for transmission. The network layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing. The session layer is responsible for creating and maintaining a dialogue between end systems. The presentation layer is responsible for the formatting, translation, and presentation of information. The application layer provides an entry point for applications to access the protocol stack and prepare information for transmission across a network.

167
Q

An electrician installing a new light fixture accidentally severs one of the LAN cables running through the dropped ceiling space. With which topology would the severed cable cause the greatest amount of disturbance to the network?

A. Bus

B. Star

C. Logical ring

D. Mesh

A

A. Bus

A cable break in a bus topology would split the network into two halves, preventing the nodes on one side of the break from communicating with those on the other. In addition, both halves of the network would be left with one unterminated end, which would prevent the computers on each side of the break from communicating effectively. A cable break in a star or logical ring topology would only interrupt the connection of a single computer to the network. The mesh topology is not often used for LANs, but redundant network connections are a characteristic of mesh networks, which means that a single cable break would have no effect on the network at all.

168
Q

Which of the following is the fastest speed achievable by a wireless LAN using the currently ratified IEEE 802.11 standards?

A. 54 Mbps

B. 600 Mbps

C. 1.3 Gbps

D. 2.6 Gbps

A

C. 1.3 Gbps

The 802.11ac standard defines a wireless LAN running at a speed of up to 1.3 gigabits per second (Gbps). None of the other 802.11 standards call for speeds beyond 600 Mbps. No currently ratified standard enables speeds of 2.6 Gbps.

169
Q

Which of the following terms refers to a routing protocol that does not rely on hop counts to measure the efficiency of routes?

A. Interior gateway protocol

B. Edge gateway protocol

C. Distance vector protocol

D. Link state protocol

A

D. Link state protocol

Distance vector protocols rely on hop counts to evaluate the efficiency of routes. Link state protocols use a different type of calculation, usually based on Dijkstra’s algorithm. The terms interior gateway protocol and edge gateway protocol do not refer to the method of calculating routing efficiency.

170
Q

A wireless access point (AP) enables computers equipped with wireless network interface adapters to function in which of the following topologies?

A. Star

B. Ad hoc

C. Bus

D. Infrastructure

A

D. Infrastructure

A wireless access point is a device with a wireless transceiver that also connects to a standard cabled network. Wireless computers communicate with the access point, which forwards their transmissions over the network cable. This is called an infrastructure topology. A star or bus network requires the computers to be physically connected to the network cable, and an ad hoc topology is one in which wireless computers communicate directly with one another.

171
Q

Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) is a standard for IP addressing that includes the ability to create subnets using any number of IP address bits, rather than using 8-bit blocks. Which of the following terms describes this ability?

A. VLSM

B. APIPA

C. VLAN

D. EUI-64

A

A. VLSM

Variable-length subnet masking (VLSM) describes the process of subnetting a network address by assigning an arbitrary number of host bits as subnet bits, providing administrators with great flexibility over the number of subnets created and the number of hosts in each subnet. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is the process by which a DHCP client assigns itself an IP address when no DHCP servers are accessible. Virtual local area networks (VLANs) are logical structures used to create separate broadcast domains on a large, switched network. Extended Unique Identifier-64 (EUI-64) is an addressing method used to create IPv6 link local addresses out of media access control (MAC) addresses.

172
Q

Ed has just created a new Windows application for his company, and he wants to deploy it in the public cloud. He is looking for a provider that will furnish his company with a fully installed and configured Windows server on which he can install and run his application. Which of the following service models is he seeking to use?

A. IaaS

B. PaaS

C. SaaS

D. None of the above

A

B. PaaS

The Platform as a Service (PaaS) model provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the consumers with processing, storage, and networking resources that they can use to install and run operating systems and other software of their choice. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider’s servers.