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CHN LEC > DOH Programs > Flashcards

DOH Programs Flashcards

1
Q

What is Republic Act 10152

A

Mandatory Infants
and Children Health Immunization Act

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2
Q

Mandatory Infants
and Children Health Immunization Act is what presidential decree?

A

P. D. 996

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3
Q

the process of introducing vaccine into the body before infection sets in providing ARTIFICIAL ACTIVE IMMUNITY

A

immunization

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4
Q

“To reduce morbidity and mortality rates among infants and children from childhood immunizable diseases” is the objective of what program?

A

EPI

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5
Q

What does EPI stands for

A

Expanded Program in Immunization

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6
Q

What is the EPI percentage target of fully immunized child?

A

95%

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7
Q
A
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7
Q
A
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7
Q
A
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8
Q
A
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9
Q

what are the vaccine preventable diseases?

A
  1. tuberculosis
  2. diphtheria
  3. pertussis
  4. measles
  5. poliomyelitis
  6. tetanus
  7. hepatitis b
  8. diarrhea caused by rotavirus
  9. meningitis
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10
Q

what is the vaccine for tuberculosis

A

BCG

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10
Q

what does BCG stands for

A

bacillus calmette-guerin

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11
Q

what is the vaccine for diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus

A

DPT/ Pentavalent

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12
Q

it is the only vaccine given through oral

A

OPV or IPV

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13
Q

OPV or IPV vaccine is for what disease?

A

poliomyelitis

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14
Q

what is the vaccine for meningitis?

A

PentaHIB

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15
Q

when is the first dose of BCG and Hepa B given?

A

at birth

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16
Q

when is the first dose of DPT and OPV given?

A

6 weeks

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17
Q

when to give the measles vaccine?

A

9 months

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18
Q

what diseases can the Pentavalent HIB vaccine prevent?

A

Diphtheria
Pertussis
Tetanus
Hepatitis B
Hemophilus Influenza type B

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19
Q

OPV is contraindicated if the child is

A

vomiting or has diarrhea

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20
Q

Never inject DPT at the buttocks,
might hit sciatic nerve that can
cause _

A

sciatic nerve paralysis

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21
Q

The ONLY contraindication
applicable to all vaccines is a Hx of

A

severe allergic reaction

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22
Q

A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose of TT. Subsequently her baby will have protection against tetanus for how long?

A

at least 6 months after birth

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23
Q

How many doses should a person take to reach the lifetime protection from tetanus?

A

5 doses

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24
Q

TT dose 2 should be given __

A

4 week safter first dose

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25
Q

TT 3 should be given when

A

6 months later

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26
Q

TT 4 should be given when

A

1 year later

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27
Q

what is the duration of protection for TT2?

A

3 years

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28
Q

what’s the duration of protection for TT3?

A

5 years

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29
Q

what is the duration of protection for TT4?

A

10 years

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30
Q

is a system of storing, transporting and
distributing of vaccines in the correct temperature and way from the factory to the vaccinated child.

A

cold chain

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31
Q

is a corner stone of the EPI, because the
vaccine loses the efficacy if incorrectly kept

A

cold chain

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32
Q

who is the cold chain manager?

A

public health nurse

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33
Q

storage time frame of vaccines in regional level?

A

6 months

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34
Q

storage time frame of vaccines in provincial/district level?

A

3 months

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35
Q

storage time frame of vaccines in main health centers

A

1 month

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36
Q

Opened BCG and measles vaccines should be discarded after

A

4-6 hours

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37
Q

Opened DPT, OPV, Hepa B, and TT vaccines should be discarded after

A

8 hours

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38
Q

These vaccines are most heat sensitive and should be stored in the freezer with -15 to -25 degrees Celsius

A

OPV and measles

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39
Q

These are two vaccines that are least sensitive to heat

A

BCG and TT

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40
Q

DPT2 or DPT3 is not given to a child who has had convulsions or shock w/in 3 days the previous dose but
you can give ___

A

DT

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41
Q

No food ___ minutes after giving OPV

A

30

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42
Q

Assess the child for allergy to __ before giving measles vaccine

A

egg

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43
Q

Measles vaccine should be given as soon as the child is ___ old regardless of whether othervaccines will be given on that day.

A

9 months

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44
Q

True or False
Do not repeat BCG vaccination if the child does not develop a scar after the first injection.

A

True

45
Q

is a major strategy for child survival, healthy growth and
development and is based on the combined delivery of essential
interventions at community, health facility and health systems levels.

A

IMCI

46
Q

what does IMCI stands for

A

Integrated Management of Childhood Illnesses

46
Q

In improving case management skills of health workers, how many days does it take for basic course for RHMs, PHNs and MOHs

A

11 days

47
Q

How many days training is for facilitators course?

A

5 days

48
Q

Majority of these deaths are caused by 5 preventable and treatable
conditions namely

A

pneumonia, diarrhea, malaria, measles and malnutrition

49
Q

Who are the children covered by the IMCI protocol?

A

Sick children birth up to 2 months (Sick Young Infant)
Sick children 2 months up to 5 years old (Sick child)

50
Q

All sick children aged 2 months up to 5 years are examined for

A

general danger signs

51
Q

all Sick Young Infants Birth up to 2 months are examined for

A

very severe disease

52
Q

what is the level of management for mild diseases

A

home care

53
Q

what’s the level of management for moderate diseases

A

at RHU

54
Q

level of management for severe diseases

A

urgent referral in the hospital

55
Q

what are the danger signs?

A

Convulsions
Abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken
Unable to drink/breastfeed
Vomits everything

56
Q

what are the usual main symptoms?

A

Cough/ difficulty in breathing
Diarrhea
Fever
Ear problems

57
Q

what to assess in the OPD?

A
  • NUTRITION
  • IMMUNIZATION AND VITAMIN A
    SUPPLEMENTATION STATUS
  • POTENTIAL FEEDING PROBLEMS
58
Q

is a series of time-bound and evidence-based interventions for newborn babies and their mothers that ensure the best care for them.

A

EEINC

59
Q

what does EEINC stands for?

A

Early Essential Intrapartal and Newborn Care

60
Q

what is the ideal room temperature at the DR?

A

25-28 degrees Celsius

61
Q

what is the purpose of maintaining the ideal temperature in the delivery room?

A

to prevent cold stressed and hypothermia in the baby

62
Q

what can be used as an eye prophylaxis?

A

erythromycin and tetracycline ointment

63
Q

FOUR CORE STEPS OF IMMEDIATE
NEWBORN CARE OF THE EINC
PROTOCOL

A

Immediate drying
SKin-to-skin contact
Proper cord clamping and cutting
Non-separation of baby from mother and breastfeeding initiation

64
Q

The ___ transfuses blood to the newborn after delivery,
providing oxygen, nutrients and additional blood volume
through the pulsating cord.

A

placenta

65
Q

Keeping the newborn and mother together facilitates the newborn’s early initiation to the breastfeeding in the transfer of ___.

A

colostrum

66
Q

Breast milk also provides many anti-infective substances like ___ that
may stimulate and enhance the baby’s immune system.

A

immunoglobulins and lymphocytes

67
Q

Studies have shown that breastfeeding reduces death due mainly to __ and lowers ___.

A

diarrhea
respiratory tract infections

68
Q

when is the immediate newborn care

A

first 90 mins

69
Q

when is the essential newborn care?

A

from 90 mins to 6 hours

70
Q

RA 9288 is known as the

A

Newborn screening act

71
Q

The Act of Promulgating a Comprehensive Policy and National System for Ensuring Newborn Screening is RA no.?

A

RA 9288

72
Q

the date when RA 9288 or newborn screening act has been enacted into law

A

April 7, 2004

73
Q

The Newborn Screening Act was signed by whom? and when?

A

DOH Sec. Manuel Dayrit
October 5, 2004

74
Q

Is a public health program for the EARLY
IDENTIFICATION of disorders that can lead to mental retardation and death

A

Newborn Screening

75
Q

What disorders are tested in newborn screening?

A

Congenital Hypothyroidism (CH)
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
G6PD
Galactosemia
Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)

76
Q

Sick and premature babies must be screened by the __ day of life
regardless of weight and age of gestation

A

7th

77
Q

when will the result of NBS available?

A

7-14 working days

78
Q

Most common inborn metabolic
disorder; lack or absence of thyroid hormone which is essential to growth of
the brain and the body

A

Congenital Hypothyroidism

79
Q

A rare but dangerous inborn
metabolic disorder which causes severe salt loss, dehydration and abnormally high
levels of male hormones in both
girls and boys

A

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

80
Q

In cases of CAH, newborns that have that disease may die within how many days?

A

within 9 – 13 days

81
Q

body lacks the enzyme
called Glucose 6 Phosphate Dehydrogenase

A

G6PD Deficiency

82
Q

unable to process certain
part of the milk called
galactose.

A

galactosemia

83
Q

A rare condition in which the newborn cannot properly use one of the
building blocks of protein called phenylalanine

A

Phenylketonuria

84
Q

Excessive accumulation of
phenylalanine in the blood causes ___

A

brain damage

85
Q

have trouble breaking down certain amino
acids, the building blocks of proteins. patients are at risk for brain damage, coma, or death

A

Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)

86
Q

preferred method for collecting NBS
Samples

A

Heel prick method

87
Q

NBS Summary Report showing N means

A

Normal

88
Q

NBS Summary Report INS means

A

Insufficient samples

89
Q

NBS Summary Report NF means

A

No feeding

90
Q

NBS Summary Report E means

A

Elevated for certain test

91
Q

NBS Summary Report EC means

A

sample is less than 24 hours

92
Q

NBS Summary Report P means

A

confirmed for G6PD deficiency

93
Q

It is the increased screening panel of disorders from six (6) to more than
twenty-eight.

A

Expanded Newborn Screening (ENBS)

94
Q

It is defined as a set of life-saving interventions, that treat the major obstetric
and newborn causes of morbidity and mortality.

A

EmONC

95
Q

EmONC means?

A

Emergency obstetric and newborn care

96
Q

Presidential Decree 491 of 1974 is known as the

A

Nutrition Act of the Philippines

97
Q

they supervise, coordinate and
evaluate the implementation of the national nutrition program

A

National Nutrition Council

98
Q

RA 11148 is known as the

A

An Act Scaling Up the National and Local
Health and Nutrition Programs Through A
Strengthened Integrated Strategy for Maternal, Neonatal, Child Health and Nutrition in the First One Thousand (1000) Days of Life.

99
Q

what are the 3 most common deficiencies

A

iron
vitamin a
iodine

100
Q

is one of the interventions to address the health and nutritional needs of
infants and children and improve their growth and survival.

A

micronutrient supplementation

101
Q

addresses health and nutritional needs of 6-71 months old

A

Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy (ASAP), Garantisadong Pambata

102
Q
  • to improve the nutritional status of the populace including children.
  • legal basis: RA 8976
A

food fortification

103
Q

4 Food Staples that require Mandatory Fortification

A
  1. Rice with Iron
  2. Sugar with Vitamin A
  3. Oil with Vitamin A
  4. Flour with Iron and Vitamin A
104
Q
  • it involves complementary feeding for wasted/stunted children and pregnant women with delivering low birth weight.
A

food assistance

105
Q

provision of credit and livelihood opportunities to poor households especially those with malnourished children through linkage with lending and financial institutions

A

livelihood assistance

106
Q

children whose height for age is below the standard

A

stunting

107
Q

children who are thinner than normal

A

wasted

108
Q

children who are both thinner and shorter than normal

A

wasted and stunted

109
Q

Republic Act 11036 is known as

A

Mental Health Act

110
Q

September 10 is what day

A

World Suicide Prevention Day

111
Q

October 10 is what day

A

World Mental Health Day

112
Q

2nd Week of October is the ___

A

National Mental Week

CHN LEC (1 decks)

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