Dobson #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is more likely to get periodontitis and why?

A

down syndrome patients because they are more likely to get leukemia

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2
Q

What makes up the normal flora in healthy gingiva?

A

facultative gram positive

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3
Q

what is the composition of plaque?

A

anaerobic and microaerophilic gram negative bacteria

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4
Q

what is important for protection against candida infection?

A

neutrophils, macrophages, and Th17 cells

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5
Q

histologic features of candida?

A

pseudohyphae and bidding yeast

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6
Q

name an example of a deep fungal infection

A

zygomycetes can cause Mucor–> rhinocerebral mucromycosis

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7
Q

who does mucormycetes primarily affect?

A

diabetics, and the fungus may spread from nasal sinuses to the orbit and brain

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8
Q

what is scarlet fever due to?

A

pyrogenic toxin from group A beta hemolytic bacteria

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9
Q

most at risk for HPV related cancers of head and neck?

A

white, non-smoking 35-55 men

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10
Q

what cancer is associated with premalignant lesions?

A

classic opscc

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11
Q

What is over expressed in HPV oral SCC?

A

p16

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12
Q

what is over expressed in oral cancer caused by alcohol/tobacco?

A

Cyclin D1

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13
Q

what is the most frequent cause of xerostomia?

A

medications: anticholinergic, antidepressant/antipsychotic, diuretic, antihypertensive, sedative, muscle relaxant, analgesic, and antihistamine drugs

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14
Q

bacterial cause of sialadenitis?

A

staph aureus/ strep viridans (secondary to stone)

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15
Q

What is the most common lesion of the salivary glands?

A

mucocele

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16
Q

how do mucocele’s appear?

A

blue translucent hue

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17
Q

how can nonspecific sialadenitis be characterized?

A

unilateral involvement of a single gland

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18
Q

what are the genetic aberrations associated with pleomorphism adenoma?

A

PLAG1 overexpression

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19
Q

histologic feature of pleomorphism adenoma?

A

epithelial elements and mesenchymal elements

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20
Q

what’s important to remember about mucoepidermoid carcinomas?

A

prognosis is dependent on grade

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21
Q

what is an omphalacele?

A

when the abdominal musculature is incomplete and viscera herniate into the ventral membranous sac

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22
Q

what is gastroschisis?

A

when all the layers of the abdominal wall fail to develop- from the peritoneum to the skin

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23
Q

what are the complications associated to meckel diverticulum?

A

complications related to ectopic gastric or pancreatic tissue

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24
Q

What is pyloric stenosis associated with?

A

turner syndrome and trisomy 18; or erythromycin or azithromycin within first 2 weeks of life

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25
what is Hirschspring disease?
aganglionic megacolon due to arrested migration of NCCs into the gut
26
How does Hirschspring disease present?
functional obstruction and the rectum is always involved
27
what are 3 functional causes of esophageal obstruction?
nutcracker esophagus, DES, and systemic sclerosis
28
what is a complication due to increased esophageal pressure?
Zenker diverticulum
29
what are esophageal webs associated with?
GERD, C-GVHD, and celiac disease
30
achalasia is characterized by a triad of what?
incomplete LES relaxation, increased LES tone, and aperistalsis of the esophagus
31
what is the cause of primary achalasia?
ganglion cell degeneration
32
where does the tear occur in mallory-weiss syndrome?
gastric side of the gastroesophageal junction
33
where does the tear occur in Boerhaave's syndrome?
complete rupture at the distal esophagus
34
what is the most frequent cause of esophagitis?
reflux of gastric contents into the lower esophagus
35
how can you determine the cause of viral esophagitis?
the endoscopic appearance
36
how does HSV viral esophagitis look?
it typically causes punched-out ulcers
37
how does CMV viral esophagitis look?
CMV causes shallower ulcerations and is marked by characteristic nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions
38
where are most of the benign neoplasms of the esophagus located?
most are submucosal
39
what is are the characteristics of benign neoplasms of the esophagus?
most are mesenchymal, with smooth muscle tumors being the most common
40
there are 2 malignant neoplasms of the esophagus- what are they?
squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
41
what geographic distribution is at more risk for squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus?
iran, central china, Hong kong
42
what is the highest risk group for squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus?
>45, males, african americans 8x more likely
43
where do most squamous cell carcinomas of the esophagus occur?
in the middle third of the esophagus
44
what are 3 specific risk factors for esophageal scc?
if you have tylosis, HPV (+/-), HIV
45
what is typically the first symptom of an esophageal scc?
aspiration of food due to an acquired TE fistula
46
where are the highest rates for esophageal adenocarcinoma?
US, UK, Canada, australia
47
who is the highest risk group for esophageal adenocarcinoma?
caucasians, 7x more common in men
48
What are the risk factors for esophageal adenocarcinoma?
barrett esophagus, tobacco, radiation
49
where are esophageal adenocarcinomas commonly found?
distal 1/3 esophagus
50
what do esophageal adenocarcinomas look like microscopically?
the tumors typically produced mucin and form glands
51
how do esophageal adenocarcinomas commonly present?
pain or difficulty swallowing, progressive weight loss, hematemesis, chest pain, and vomiting
52
what is the most common cause of diffuse atrophic gastritis?
autoimmune gastritis
53
what happens to long-standing chronic gastritis that involves the body/fundus?
it could lead to mucosal atrophy and/or intestinal metaplasia--> both are risk factors for adenocarcinoma
54
when looking for H. pylori, what stain should you use?
warthrin-starry stain
55
5 features of autoimmune gastritis?
1. antibodies to parietal cells and IF 2. reduced serum pepsinogen I (chief cells are collateral damage) 3. Endocrine cell hyperplasia 4. Vitamin B12 deficiency 5. defective gastric acid secretion
56
what is gastrin secretion like in autoimmune gastritis?
it is markedly increased BECAUSE THE ANTRUM IS SPARED DUH SO G CELLS ARE THERE AND CAN STILL STIMULATE GASTRIN
57
what could come from Type B chronic gastritis?
peptic ulcer, adenocarcinoma, MALToma
58
what could come from type A chronic gastritis?
atrophy, pernicious anemia, adenocarcinoma, carcinoid tumor
59
how is lymphocytic (an uncommon form of gastritis) characterized?
by thickened folds covered by small nodules with central aphthous ulceration
60
how do peptic ulcers appear?
are solitary; round-oval, sharply punched out defect; HEAPED UP MARGINS= MALIGNANCY NOT PUD
61
where are peptic ulcers most common?
proximal duodenum
62
How is intestinal metaplasia recognized?
by the presence of goblet cells
63
what are two diseases that causes hypertrophic gastropathy?
Menetrier disease and zollinger-ellison syndrome
64
what are the risk factors associated with zollinger-ellison syndrome?
multiple endocrine neoplasia
65
what etiology of hypertrophic gastropathy is associated with adenocarcinoma?
menetrier disease
66
what is the causes of menetrier disease?
over expression of TGF-alpha
67
what are the symptoms associated with menetrier disease?
hyponatremia, weight loss, diarrhea
68
what are the symptoms associated with Zollinger-ellison syndrome?
peptic ulcers
69
how is zollinger ellison syndrome characterized?
doubling of the oxyntic mucosal thickness
70
what is the most common benign tumor of the stomach? (polyp)
inflammatory and hyperplastic polyps
71
what are inflammatory and hyperplastic polyps associated with?
H. pylori
72
what is the most common malignancy of the stomach?
adenocarcinoma
73
what geographical region has a higher risk of adenocarcinoma of the stomach?
japan, chile, costa rica, and eastern europe
74
early symptoms of both types of adenocarcinoma of the stomach include what?
dyspepsia, dysphagia, and nausea
75
incidence of cancer of the gastric cardia is on the rise. Why so?
barrett esophagus and may reflect the incidence of chronic GERD and obesity
76
what are the two types of gastric adenocarcinomas?
diffuse gastric cancer and intestinal type gastric cancer
77
what is a key step in the development of diffuse gastric cancer?
loss of E-cadherin
78
what is the histology of diffuse gastric cancer?
signet ring cells that are discohesive and do not form glands; large intracellular mucin vacuoles that push nucleus to the periphery= signet ring cells
79
what is a morphological feature of diffuse gastric cancer?
linitis plastica: appearance when there are large areas of infiltration, diffuse rugal flattening, and a thick rigid wall
80
What is intestinal type gastric cancers-bulky cancer strongly associated with?
APC mutations; mutations that result in increased signaling via the Wnt pathway; and gain of function mutation in gene encoding B-catenin
81
most gastric adenocarcinomas involve what?
the antrum- the lesser curvature is involved more often than the greater
82
which translocation is most common in MALToma?
t(11;18)(q21;q21)
83
what are the most common symptoms of MALToma?
dyspepsia and epigastric pain
84
histologically, how does MALToma look?
takes the form of a dense lymphocytic infiltrate in the lamina propria- the lymphocytes infiltrate the gastric glands focally to create diagnostic lymphoepithelial lesions
85
What are the clues that you are dealing with a neuroendocrine tumor (carcinoid tumor)?
cutaneous flushing, sweating, bronchospasm, colicky abdominal pain, circumscribed yellow mass, salt and pepper chromatin, neurosecretory granules
86
what is the most common mesenchymal tumor of the abdomen?
GIST
87
what do GISTs arise from?
interstitial cells of cajal
88
when children present with GIST tumors what should you consider?
Carney syndrome triad and Carney-stratakis dyad--> increased risk in neurofibromatosis type 1
89
approximately 75% of all GISTS hace oncogenic, gain of function mutations in what?
the receptor tyrosin kinase KIT (cKIT)