Do or Die Flashcards
what category are ACEI/ARBs in 2nd & 3rd trimesters?
C & D respectively
which abx prolong QT?
macrolides -mycin
quinolones -floxacin
what is a major SE of quinolones?
tendon rupture
HIV increases risk of what with abx use?
sulfa-related Steven’s Johnson syndrome
ASA suppresses platelet function for how long?
irreversibly x7 days
ASA should not be used in which patient population?
<16 years old (Reye syndrome)
which abx is used to treat MRSA infection?
Bactrim
S. aureus infection is treated with which abx?
doxycycline
how should you treat severe poison ivy?
14-21 days of oral steroids
which abx interfere with warfarin?
erythromycin
clarithromycin
sulfa
which vaccines are considered live vaccines?
MMR Flumist rotavirus varicella zoster
parameters for mammograms?
50-74 years old, every 2 years
parameters for pap smear?
21-65 years old, every 3 years
parameters for colonoscopy?
50-75 years old, every 10 years
parameters for pneumovax?
one time at age 65
parameters for Tdap?
one time, then Td booster
normal Rinne test (VIII)?
AC > BC
otitis external treatment?
cortisporin drops
which vitamin is a teratogenic?
high-dose vitamin A
major SE of cholesteatoma?
erodes bones of the face damaging CN VII; need abx & debridement
pinguicula
yellow triangular thickening (outer cornea)
chalazion
“bead” in the upper eyelid
pterygium
yellow triangular thickening (inner cornea)
foods that have increased levels of vitamin K?
mayo
canola
soy bean
what is a common SE of minocycline?
vertigo, dizziness
features of mitral regurg (blood regurg in the L atrium)?
holosystolic murmur, blowing quality
usually grade II-III
MR s/s?
decreased cardiac output DOE CP orthopnea syncope
valves of the heart
tricuspid- R atrium & R ventricle
pulmonary- R ventricle & pulm artery
mitral valve- L atrium & L ventricle
aortic valve- L ventricle & aorta
blood flow through the heart
SVC R atrium R ventricle pulmonary artery pulmonary vein L atrium L ventricle aorta
areas of the heart
aortic pulmonic Erb's tricuspid mitral
common form of HTN target organ damage?
LVH
when do you hear an S3 heart sound?
systolic dysfunction
HF
when do you hear an S4 heart sound?
diastolic dysfunction
poorly-controlled HTN
recurrent MI
immediate intervention is anaphylaxis in primary care?
ABCs supine position EMS IM epi benadryl, ranitidine IV access, O2 monitoring
stages of change
precontemplation contemplation preparation action maintenance/relapse
recommendation for breast ca screening?
mammogram annually at age 45 to 54 (then biennially)
recommendation for colorectal screening?
colonoscopy every 10 years beginning at age 50
recommendation for lung ca screening?
people at high-risk 55-74 annual LDCT
finasteride (PROSCAR, PROPECIA) falls into which category?
X
5-alpha reductase inhibitor
what does specificity mean?
DO NOT have a disease
what is the most common cause of otitis media?
pseudomonas
Rocky Mtn Fever presentation
103-105 fever
petechiae (start on hands/feet)
Rocky Mtn Fever treatment
doxycycline
Remeron is good for which population and why?
elderly
appetite stimulant
what score on the MMSE qualifies for dementia?
<24
what does CURB-65 stand for?
confusion BUN >7 RR >30 SBP <90, DBP <60 age >65
what is Korsakoff-Wernicke?
B1 deficiency (chronic)
what is the least sedating antihistamine making it OK for elderly?
claritin
which oral antidiabetic is not good for the elderly?
glyburide
when should osteoporosis screening begin?
age 65
who should receive Flumist?
2-49 years ONLY
at what age can you receive the shingles/zoster vaccine?
age 60
acute closure glaucoma s/s
acute, severe eye pain
HA
n/v
when someone has senile arcus you should…
screen for cataracts
gastroparesis is a contrindication for what?
Exenatide (Byetta)
Glucagon-Like peptide 1 receptor
PCOS is a risk factor for what?
DMII
abnormal lab values in hyperthyroid?
decreased TSH, increased free T4
what medication should be avoided in BPH?
elavil
what is 1st line treatment for cellulitis?
dicloxacillin
PCN allergy- macrolides (Clinda)
? of MRSA- Bactrim
what abx should be used for bites?
Augmentin
what is hidradenitis suppurativa?
A chronic skin condition featuring lumps in places such as the armpits or groin.
how do you treat hidradenitis suppurativa?
Augmentin (S. aureus)
how do you treat impetigo?
keflex
macrolides (Clinda)
what is impetigo?
highly contagious, causing red sores on the face
what are the s/s of meningitis?
sudden onset sore throat cough fever HA stiff neck photophobia changes in LOC
what is recommended for meningitis prophylaxis?
rifampin
how is meningitis treated?
IV rifampin and vancomycin
s/s of Lyme disease?
erythema migrans (bulls-eye) flu-like symptoms
treatment of Lyme disease?
doxycycline
what medication is used to treat varicella and shingles?
acyclovir
how do you identify tinea infections?
KOH slides
how are tinea infections treated?
-azoles
what is the identifying symptom in Measles?
Koplik spots- white, with red base
mneumonic MOTIVAED
mitral, tricuspid- AV valves
mneumonic APPLES
aortic, pulmonic- semilunar valves
a split S2 heart sound signifies what?
normal when heard on inspiration
MR. ASH
systolic murmurs
MR- left, radiates to apex & axilla
AS- right, radiates, noisy
MS. ART
diastolic murmurs
MS- apex, “snap”, low-pitch
AR- right, high-pitch, “blowing”
CHADS2
CHF HTN age diabetes stroke/TIA
why are CCBs used in a-fib?
rate control
what does paroxysmal atrial tachycardia look like on an EKG?
peaked QRS, P waves
when does paroxysmal atrial tach occur?
carotid massage
straining
what is the 1st line antihypertensive in DM?
ACE/ARB
when should an ACE/ARB never be used?
pregnancy
renal artery stenosis
what is the first line med for HTN in men with BPH?
-zosin
when should thiazides not be used?
sulfa allergy
what do you see on an exam in a patient with diabetic retinopathy?
microaneurysms
cotton wool spots
neovascularization
floating spots in visual field
what defines NYHA class II?
ordinary physical activity = DOE, fatigue
aside from HTN, when are CCBs used?
Raynauds
what is the first line treatment in COPD?
inhaled anticholinergics and/or LABA
what are the inhaled anticholinergics?
Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent®) Tiotrpium Bromide (Spiriva®)
what are the LABAs?
Foradil Serevent Brovana Perforomist (-terol)
what are the SABAs?
-buterol
s/s of acute CAP?
green-rust colored sputum
how do you treat acute CAP (no comorbidities)?
macrolide (Clarithro, Azithro)
how do you treat acute CAP (comorbidities)?
levaquin
how do you treat atypical PNA (gradual onset)?
macrolides
how do you treat acute bronchitis?
symptom management
what are the absolute contraindications for oral contraception?
My- migraine with aura C- CAD/CVA U- undiagnosed bleeding P- pregnant L- liver E- estrogen-dependent tumor T- thrombus S- smoker >35
s/s of acute pancreatitis?
+Cullen
+Gray-Turner
epigastric pain that radiates to back
s/s of acute diverticulitis?
LLQ pain
rebound pain
+Rovsings
s/s of acute appendicitis?
RLQ pain
+psoas
+obturator
+McBurney’s
s/s of acute cholecystitis?
RUQ pain
pain radiates to R shoulder
+Murphy’s
how do you treat an H. pylori infection?
clarithromycin
amoxicillin
PPI
how do you treat diverticulitis?
cipro with Flagyl
treatment for C. diff?
Flagyl
what does it mean when you are HBsAg +?
+ virus, infections
what does it mean when you are anti-HBS +
immune
what does lone GGT elevation mean?
alcoholism
what is a contraindication to using fluoroquinolones?
<18 years old
what do you use to treat UTIs?
Bactrim
what signifies a UTI (on lab test)?
> 10,000 of ONE organism
how do you treat acute pyelonephritis?
recephin
what tests are used to test for meningitis?
Kernig (flexion hip & knee)
Brudzinski (flexion of neck)
cranial nerves
olfactory optic occulomotor trochlear trigeminal abducens facial acoustic glossopharyngeal vagus spinal hypoglossal
tensions HA is?
bilateral
s/s of cluster HA?
tearing
nasal congestion
treatment of cluster HA
high-dose oxygen
when are MCHC and MCH decreased?
iron-deficiency anemia
thalassemia
when is TIBC increased?
iron-deficiency anemia
when is ferritin decreased?
iron-deficiency anemia
when do you see a normocytic anemia?
chronic illness
autoimmune d/o
what do pernicious, folate and B12 anemias have in common?
megoblastic RBCs
blepharitis is most common in?
fair-skinned people
which diagnostic test finds ca ONLY and not polyps?
fecal immunochemical test
what does stridor sound like?
high-pitched
harsh on inspiration
what is not elevated in pancreatic ca?
amylase
what is tinea cruris?
jock itch
how do you treat duodenal ulcers?
antimicrobial therapy
what vital signs represent shock?
HR >100, BP <80, RR >24
Osler nodes and Janeway lesions are indicative of what?
bacterial endocarditis
what is vasogenic shock
anaphylaxis
how do you treat osteamalacia?
calcium & vitamin D
what is the first-line diagnostic testing in ED?
serum glucose
TSH
lipid panel
how do you identify nephrotic syndrome?
proteinuria
hypoalbuminemia
increased glomerular permeability
edema
how do you treat pernicious anemia?
B12 for life
what is Fifth’s disease?
erythematous, macular rash on the cheeks & ears
“slapped cheek”
what is autoimmune thyroiditis?
when the body sees the thyroid gland and hormones (TSH, T3, T4) as a threat
iron absorption decreases with?
antacids
H2
fluoroquinolones
S1 heart sound indicates what?
mitral stenosis
nitroglycerin can have what SE?
headaches
what are the low-potency topical corticosteroids?
hydrocortisone 2.5%
flucinolone 0.01%
triamcinolone 0.025%
desonide (Desowen)
what is a normal T4 in the elderly?
8.1
what do you see on eye exam wth hypertensive retinopathy?
AV nicking
copper & silver wire arterioles
how frequently should you test for DMII after age 45?
every 3 years
what is Korsakoff’s syndrome?
chronic thiamine deficiency
s/s of pulmonary embolus?
SOB friction rub tachycardia tachypnea pleuritic chest pain chest discomfort
what does increased ICP look like on exam?
optic disc swollen with blurred edges
who is high risk for prostate ca?
African American- begin to screen at age 40
when should you begin screening for prostate ca?
50 yo
what are the risk factors for endocarditis?
h/o
cardiomyopathy
bicuspid aortic valve
BRATY diet
bananas, rice, applesauce, toast, yogurt
what is a hordeolum?
stye
when do you see respiratory alkalosis?
pulmonary embolus
when do you see respiratory acidosis?
obstructive lung disease
sleep apnea
Guillain Barre syndrome
what can cause gouty arthritis?
thiazides ASA niacin cyclosporine alcohol
how do you treat an HPV lesion?
trichloracetic acid
how do you treat AOM in PCN allergic?
clarithromycin
Katz Index
0-6, lower the score the higher the function
what causes a gastric ulcer
NSAIDs
steroids
which type of ulcers have a higher risk of malignancy?
gastric
how do you treat uncomplicated PNA?
macrolides
doxycycline
s/s of angle-closure glaucoma?
rapid onset
eye pain
blurred vision
halos
what increases susceptibility of gastroenteritis?
increased age
poor physical
gastric surgery
open-angle glaucoma?
increased cup to disc ratio
how do you diagnose meningitis?
CSF culture
blood, throat cultures
what puts someone at an increased risk for UTI?
low lactobacilli colonization
s/s of TB?
fever
dry cough
malaise
what is pseudogout?
calcium pyrophosphate deposition
what is the first line treatment for AOM?
amoxicillin
causes of chronic blood loss?
erosive gastritis
menorrhagia
GI malignancy
causes of reduced RBC production?
nutritional deficit
anemia of chronic disease
bone marrow suppression
reduced erythropoietin production (chronic renal failure)
what medications can cause reduced RBC production?
chronic PPI use
metformin
microcytic
MCV <80
normocytic
MCV 80-96
macrocytic
MCV >96
normochromic
MCHC 31-37
hypochromic
MCHC <31
Normal RDW
11.5-15%
normocytic, normochromic with normal RDW is etiology of?
acute blood loss
ACD
microcytic, hypochromic with elevated RDW is etiology of?
IDA
what test confirms IDA?
Ferritin
microcytic, hypochromic with normal RDW is etiology of?
alpha or beta thalassemia
who is at risk for alpha thalassemia?
asian, african
who is at risk for beta thalassemia?
african
mediterranean
middle eastern
macrocytic, normochromic with elevated RDW is etiology for?
pernicious anemia
B12 deficiency
folate deficiency
normal hgb?
12-14
normal hct?
36-43
iron supplements should be taken…
on an empty stomach
what is the most common type of anemia in childhood, pregnancy, elderly and in women during reproductive years?
IDA
acute rhinosinusitis (ARS) is caused by?
allergens, environmental irritants or infection
can last up to 4 weeks
acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS) is caused by?
secondary infection following viral URI
first-line treatment for ABRS?
augmentin
doxycycline in PCN allergy
in conductive hearing loss, the Weber test lateralizes to….
affected ear
how do you treat sensorineural hearing loss?
hearing aids or implants
in conductive hearing loss, the Rinne test….
BC >AC
s/s of allergic rhinitis (AR)?
nasal congestion
rhinorrhea
sneezing
intraocular and/or nasal itching
what is the controller therapy for AR?
intranasal corticosteroids (Flonase, Nasacort) LTM (Singulair) as an add-on if not adequately controlled
what is the reliever therapy in AR?
2nd gen oral antihistamines (loratadine, cetirizine)
when should a patient be referred to opthamology?
eye triad: red, painful eyes with new-onset vision changes
what is macular degeneration?
central vision loss
open-angle glaucoma is identified as?
peripheral vision loss
what test is used for early detection of macular degeneration?
Amsler grid
what is presbyopia?
hardening of the lens resulting in close vision problems
what is anosmia?
diminished sense of smell
what is presbycusis?
difficulty with conversation in a noisy place
suppurative conjunctivitis treatment?
cipro-, levo-, moxi
otitis externa treatment?
mild: acetic acid with propylene glycol and hydrocortisone
moderate: drops with cipro and hydrocortisone
malignant otitis externa treatment
PO cipro
exudative pharyngitis treatment?
pCN V
what does actinic keratosis look like?
red or brown, scaly, often tender
how do you treat actinic keratosis?
5-fluorouracil
5% imiquimod
topical diclofenac
which type of skin carcinoma is most common?
basal cell
which type of skin carcinoma is more likely malignant?
squamous cell
how is scabies treated?
permethrim lotion
what are mid to higher potency corticosteroids used in contact dermatitis therapy?
triamcinolone 0.1%
clobestasol 0.05%
when >20% of BSA is affected with contact dermatitis, how should it be treated?
prednisone PO
s/s of brown recluse spider bite?
red, white and blue
treatment for MSSA?
dicloxacillin
cephalexin
what is the topical treatment for impetigo?
mupirocin
what is the treatment for nonpurulent cellulitis, erysipelas, and impetigo?
PCN VK
Keflex
dicloxacillin
clinda
what are the characteristics of first degree burns?
superficial
red, painful, dry
no blisters
what are the characteristics of second degree burns?
superficial partial thickness or deep partial thickness
red, blistered
swollen, painful (maybe)
what are the characteristics of third degree burns?
full thickness
white or charred
rule of 9s
1%: genitalia, palmar aspect of hand
9%: head & neck, upper limbs,
18%: lower limbs
36%: trunk
treatment of 2nd degree burns?
bacitracin
silvadene
bactroban
s/s of hypothyroidism?
thick, dry skin hyporeflexia thoughts too slow weight gain constipation menorrhagia easily chilled
s/s of hyperthyroidism?
smooth, silky skin hyperreflexia mind racing weight loss frequent, low volume, loose stool oligomenorrhea heat intolerance
common causes for hypothyroidism?
hashimotos
RAI treatment
lithium, amiodarone, interferon
lab values with hypothyroidism?
increased TSH
decreased T3 & T4
when should TSH be checked after starting levothyroxine?
8 weeks of therapeutic therapy
how should levothyroxine be taken?
with water on an empty stomach
same time every day
do not take within two hours of iron, calcium, aluminum, magnesium
at what point should hypothyroid be treated?
TSH >5
what is the treatment for hyperthyroid?
beta-blocker (tremor & tachycardia)
PTU
RAI
what is the role of parathyroid hormone?
appropriate body calcium levels
clinical presentation for primary hyperparathyroidism?
moans, groans, stones and bones… with psychic overtones
a thunderclap HA is suggestive of what?
subarachnoid hemorrhage
what are the abortive medications used in migraine HA treatment?
triptans
ergots
what are the prophylactic medications used in migraine treatment?
beta blockers
tricyclic antidepressants (-triptyline)
depakote, topiramate, sodium valproate
butterbur, feverfew, CoQ10, riboflavin
which medication is used in the treatment of cluster HAs?
lithium
which lab tests are used when there is suspected temporal arteritis?
CRP
ESR
treatment for temporal arteritis?
high-dose systemic steroids (6 months-2 years) until biopsy
what can be taken to help reduce the risk of developing cataracts?
antioxidants (E & C)
what would you expect to see on CSF eval of someone with bacterial meningitis?
WBC median count of 1200 cells/mm3 of CSF with 90 – 95% neutrophil
reduced CSF glucose amount below the normal level of about 40% of the plasma level
an elevated CSF protein level
what EKG findings are associated with digoxin toxicity?
AV heart block
what are the triad of responses known as Cushings response seen in neurologic deterioration?
widened pulse pressure
bradycardia
irregular respiratory pattern
most cost-effective method of diagnosing H. pylori infection is?
stool antigen testing
how do you establish the diagnosis of GERD?
s/s of heartburn & regurg
DO NOT perform endoscopy, barium, H. pylori
when is an endoscopy warranted?
dysphagia odynophagia (painful swallowing) unintended weight loss hematemesis melena chest pain choking
what is recommended treatment for the presumptive diagnosis of GERD?
PPI
once/day, before the first meal
other than pharmacologic, what are recommendations in GERD treatment?
head of bed elevation
avoidance of meals 2-3 hours before bed
weight loss
avoiding food that can trigger reflux (chocolate, caffeine, alcohol, acidic foods)
in which disease processes to you expect to see leukocytosis?
appendicitis
pyelonephritis
bacterial pneumonia
s/s of duodenal ulcer?
intermittent upper abd pain epigastric burning, gnawing pain relief with foods, antacids tender at the epigastrium slightly hyperactive bowel sounds
s/s of erosive gastritis?
NSAID use
intermittent nausea, burning pain limited to upper abd
worse with eating
hyperactive bowel sounds
s/s of diverticulitis?
intermittent LLQ pain
fever, cramping, nausea
4-5 loose stools/day
negative Blumberg’s
what are acute disease markers of hep A infection?
HAV IgM
elevated hepatic enzymes
what are the acute disease markers for hep B?
HBV core IgM ab (earliest to become positive) HBsAg (always growing) HBeAg (extra contagious) elevated hepatic enzymes IgM anti-HBc +
what are the chronic disease markers for hep B?
HBsAb (Bye)
what markers indicate that you are still susceptible to hep B?
HBsAg negative
anti-HBc negative
HBsAb negative
what are the acute markers for hep C?
anti-HCV +
HCV viral RNA
elevated hepatic enzymes
what are the chronic markers for hep C?
anti-HCV present
HCV viral RNA
normal to slightly elevated hepatic enzymes
what indicates that hep C was present in the past?
HCV RNA absent
anti-HCV present
what are symptoms of acute hepatitis infections?
fever fatigue loss of appetite n/v abdominal pain gray-colored BM joint pain jaundice
what are the preferred antimicrobials in s. pneumoniae CAP?
doxycycline
azithro-, clarithro-, erythro
standard dose amox
what are the preferred antimicrobials in s. pneumoniae CAP with risk for DRSP?
HD amox
moxi-, levo-, gemi-
what are the preferred antimicrobials in h. influenzae CAP?
cephalosporins augmentin macrolides respiratory fluoroquinolones doxycycline
in which population is h. influenzae common?
tobacco-related lung disease
what are PE findings with consolidation in PNA?
dullness
increased tactile fremitus
bronchial or tubular breath sounds
late inspiratory crackles
what are PE findings with pleural inflammation (pleurisy) in PNA?
sharp, localized pain, worse with deep breathing/movement/cough
audible pleural friction rub (inspiration & expiration)
treatment of acute bronchitis d/t respiratory tract virus?
Atrovent
albuterol
short course of oral steroid
treatment of acute bronchitis d/t bacterial pathogens?
macrolide
doxycycline
clinical presentation of active TB?
cough unexplained weight loss/anorexia fever night sweats hemoptysis chest pain fatigue
what diagnostic tool is used to make the diagnosis of asthma and COPD?
spirometry
what diagnostic tool is used for monitoring asthma?
peak flow meter
what would you expect to find of PE during acute asthma or COPD flare?
hyperresonance decreased tactile fremitus wheeze (expiratory first, then inspiratory) low diaphragms increased AP diameter
what are the most common COPD symptoms?
chronic cough
chronic sputum
activity intolerance
progressive over time
in GOLD 1, mild COPD, what is the expected FEV1?
> 80%
in GOLD 2, moderate COPD, what is the expected FEV1?
50%-80%
in GOLD 3, severe COPD, what is the expected FEV1?
30-50%
in GOLD 4, very severe COPD, what is the expected FEV1?
<30%
treatment recommendations for GOLD 1-2?
low risk/less symptoms: SAMA or SABA PRN
low risk/more symptoms: LAMA or LABA on set schedule
treatment recommendations for GOLD 3-4?
high risk/less symptoms: ICS + LABA (or LAMA) on set schedule
high risk/more symptoms: ICS + LABA (or LAMA) on set schedule
in addition to bronchodilator use, what would be used in COPD exacerbation?
prednisone 40 mg/d 5-10 days
consider adding ICS
in absence of risk factors, when should screening for DM occur?
age 45 (repeated at least at 3 year intervals)
which lab values are indicative of DM?
fasting plasma glucose >126
random >200 with symptoms (pols)
2 hr OGTT >200
A1c >6.5%
what is a normal A1c?
<5.6
what is a normal fasting plasma glucose?
<100
what is a normal peak postprandial (1-2 hr post meal) plasma glucose?
<140
thiazolidinediones (Actos, Avandia) should not be used in which patient population?
HF- edema risk
should not be used with insulin or nitrates
which medications are the sulfonylureas?
glipizide
glyburide
glimepiride
GLP-1 agonists (Byetta, Victoza) should not be used in which patients?
gastroparesis
severe renal impairment or ESRD
what are the short-acting, rapid-acting insulins?
Humalog
Novolog
what are the regular insulins?
Humulin R
Novolin R
what are the long-acting insulins?
Levelmir
Lantus
what are the intermediate-acting insulins?
Novolin N
Humulin N
what are the components of metabolic syndrome?
large waistline HLD low HDL HTN high glucose
what is the BP goal in patient with DM and/or CKD?
<140/<90
BP goal in patients >60 with no DM or CKD?
<150/<90
what labs should be monitored with diuretic use?
Na
K
Mg
when is aldosterone most often use?
HF
what are the effects of statin therapy?
decrease LDL 18-55%
increase HDL 5-15%
what is the most frequent cause of HF?
systolic LV dysfunction
PE findings in genital herpes (HHV-2)?
painful ulcerated lesions
lymphadenopathy
PE findings in chlamydia?
irritative voiding symptoms
mucopurulent discharge
large number of WBCs
cervicitis common
treatment of chlamydia?
azithro
PE findings in gonorrhoeae?
purulent discharge
irritative voiding symptoms
large number of WBCs
treatment of gonorrhoeae?
ceftriaxone one-time dose + azithro one-time dose
PE findings in trichomoniasis?
dysuria itching vulvovagnial irritation frothy, cervical petechial hemorrhages alkaline pH large number of WBCs
treatment of trichomoniasis?
Flagyl one-time dose
PE findings in syphilis?
chancre, firm, round, painless genital and/or anal ulcers with clean base and indurated margins
PE findings in genital warts (HPV)?
verruca-form lesions
treatment of genital warts?
podofilox liquid nitrogen cryoprobe trichloroacetic acid topical imiquimod (external only)
PE findings in PID?
irritative voiding symptoms fever abdominal pain CMT vaginal discharge increased risk of ectopic pregnancy and/or infertility
treatment of PID?
ceftriaxone one-time dose + doxycycline x14 days with out without Flagyl
treatment of acute, uncomplicated UTI in nonpregnant woman?
Bactrim
acute bacterial prostatitis PE findings?
irritative voiding symptoms suprapubic, perineal pain fever tender, boggy prostate leukocytosis
treatment of acute bacterial prostatitis in <35 yo?
ceftriaxone one-time dose + doxycycline x10 days
PE findings in prostate ca?
nodular, firm, nontender prostate
treatment for urge incontinence?
detrol ditropan VESIcare enablex toviaz
paraphimosis
retracted foreskin that cannot be brought forward to cover the glans
varicocele
“bag of worms”
hydrocele
collection of serous fluid that causes painless scrotal swelling, easily recognized by transillumiation
phimosis
foreskin cannot be pulled back to expose the glans
cryptorchidism
testicle located in inguinal canal or abdomen
opportunistic conditions for which there is no effective therapy?
cryptosporidiosis
microsporidiosis
progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
testing for HIV
ELISA
then Western blot to confirm
SIGECAPS (depression)
sleep interest guilt energy concentration appetite psychomotor suicide
WATCHERS (GAD)
worry anxiety tension in muscles concentration difficulty hyperarousal energy loss restlessness sleep disturbance
SSRIs (most to least energizing)
fluoxentine sertraline citalopram escitalopram paroxetine
SNRIs
venlafaxine
duloxetine
desvenlafaxine
SDRI
Wellbutrin
which SSRi has the longest half life?
fluoxetine (84 hours)
FINISH (antidepressant discont. syndrome)
flu-like symptoms insomnia nausea imbalance sensory disturbances hyperarousal
medications used to slow AD?
vitamin E 1000
or selegiline
mild to moderate stage treatment of AD?
donepezil
rivastigmine
galantamine
moderate to severe AD treatment?
Namenda
treatment of agitation in AD?
risperidone (if environmental manipulation fails)
medications with significant anticholinergic effect?
amitriptyline
doxepin
oxybutynin
mneumonic for anticholinergic effects
dry as a bone red as a beat mad as a hatter hot as a hare can't see can't pee can't spit can't shit
