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D.O. Flashcards

1
Q

Fuel levels must be maintained at

A

1/2 tank or more

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2
Q

How often is inventory check performed?

A

Quarterly

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3
Q

How often do we operate and test master stream monitor devices or ladder pipes?

A

Weekly

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4
Q

Driver re-test cannot be taken until

A

14 days have passed since previous examination

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5
Q

Failure to pass or failure to re-test within how long will result in repeating MDFR task book process

A

6 months

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6
Q

Class 1 leak

A

Seapage, wetness and no drops

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7
Q

Class 2 leak

A

Leakage enough to form drop but not cause drop to fall

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8
Q

Class 3 leak

A

Leakage great enough to cause drops to fall

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9
Q

OOS criteria will include, brake system with ______

A

class 2 leakage of brake fluid

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10
Q

OOS criteria will include, tire tread depth less than _____

A

4/32” on any steering (front) axle or 2/32” on non steering (rear) axle

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11
Q

OOS criteria will include, fuel system component with ______

A

Fuel system component with Class 2 leakage of fuel.

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12
Q

OOS criteria will include, service brakes that have an air pressure drop of more than ____ psi in ______ minute(s)

A

3 psi in one minute with engine stopped and service brakes released

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13
Q

Air compressor must BUILD air pressure from ___ - ___ psi, in ___ seconds

A

85-100 psi in 45 seconds

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14
Q

Air compressor must MAINTAIN between ___ - ___ psi

A

80-90psi

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15
Q

Daily apparatus inspection report to be completed no later than

A

0900

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16
Q

Daily apparatus inspection report is NOT used for

A

Scheduling routine or preventative maintenance

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17
Q

Transmission must be checked at an operating temp of

A

180° or higher

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18
Q

How often do we connect to a hydrant?

A

Daily

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19
Q

How often do we perform manual pump shift?

A

(Weekly) Each Friday

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20
Q

How often do we perform draft test and backflush complete system?

A

(Monthly) First Friday of each month.

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21
Q

When do we clean undercarriage of chassis?

A

(Weekly) Saturday

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22
Q

When do we wax the suppression?

A

(Quarterly) The first Tuesday of each quarter.

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23
Q

DAILY apparatus inspection/duties includes :

A
  • Connect to a hydrant
  • Check pump shift
  • Check pump primer and run dry vacuum test
  • Check for leaks
  • Operate all drains and valves and check for defects
  • Check gauges
  • Confirm proper operation of pressure governor
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24
Q

WEEKLY apparatus inspection/duties includes:

A
  • Perform manual pump shift (Each FRIDAY during daily truck inspection)
  • Undercarriage of chassis (cleaned each SATURDAY)
  • Operate and test master stream monitor devices
  • Reverse flush the pumping system weekly (and after any drafting operation, keep strainers clean at all times)
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25
Q

QUARTERLY apparatus inspection/duties include:

A
  • Waxing suppression (1st Tuesday of the quarter)

- Inventory Check

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26
Q

The ____ is responsible for The Notice of Automobile Accident

A

The D/O

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27
Q

What is the result of fully opening the tank fill valve while fighting fire?

A

Cavitation and loss of water to the attack lines

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28
Q

Why do we make note of the upper end of the intake pressure fluctuations?

A

This will be the static pressure

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29
Q

Why do we use the static intake pressure?

A

It is utilized to calculate available water

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30
Q

Residual intake pressures should not be taken below how many psi?

A

20 psi

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31
Q

Tank Fill Valve should be closed to prevent what?

A

Constant discharge from the overfill pipe

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32
Q

When receiving water from a hydrant supply, the Tank to Pump Valve should remain

A

Open

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33
Q

Should a supply fail, EPG (Engine pressure governor) in pressure mode will _____

A

Automatically throttle up to maintain the desired EDP (Engine Discharge Pressure)

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34
Q

During extended periods of little or no water discharge you should ____

A

-Throttle down to idle and shift into neutral while leaving the pump engaged.
-Open your tank fill valve
-Set up a discharge line
NOTE: Do not take truck out of pump and shut off ignition

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35
Q

The D/O Should avoid flowing a second line until their water supply has been augmented. However, an acceptable practice is _______

A

Charging a back up line WITHOUT flowing.

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36
Q

If the EPG (Engine Pressure Governor) is not working, the increase in EDP (Engine Discharge Pressure) resulting from conducting a changeover must be manually resolved by _____

A

Slowly opening the intake while simultaneously throttling down the RPMs to compensate for the pressure increase

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37
Q

/

A

/

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38
Q

(Hose Testing) Each hose line will flow at _____ psi for ______ minutes.

A

200 psi for five minutes

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39
Q

(Hose Testing) If hard suction is to be used under positive pressure, It will be serviced tested to a water pressure of _____ psi

A

165 psi

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40
Q

(power plants) 4-stroke idle for how long?

A

2 min

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41
Q

(saws) 2-Stroke operate

A

At full throttle for 60-90 seconds

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42
Q

(Hurst Tools) Leave a gap in spreader tips approx

A

1/2”-1”

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43
Q

Accordion loads are mainly used for ______

A

Packaging hotel rolls and extra sections

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44
Q

Flat load is mainly used for loading _______

A

2 1/2”, 3” and 5” hose

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45
Q

“S” load is most common MDFR load used on ______

A

1 3/4” pre-connected jumplines

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46
Q

Booster lines are NOT to be used as _______

A

Primary attack lines for structure fires

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47
Q

During backing operations, the back up person will not ______

A

Walk backwards while guiding the apparatus

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48
Q

(Backing operations) Personnel required for backing the apparatus includes ________

A

AT LEAST TWO PERSONS
1) “back-up” person
(1) rear observer
Note: (1) Front observer WHEN AVAILABLE

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49
Q

(High-Rise Fires) Pressure reducing device (PRD) are attached _______ to prevent discharge pressure past ____ PSI

A

Attached to the stand pipe outlets of some buildings to prevent outlet discharge pressures from exceeding 100 psi

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50
Q

During a well stretch evolution, one 50 foot hose section can you reach which floor?

A

4th or 5th

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51
Q

What is the scrub area?

A

The entire area on the face of the structure that can be effectively reached by an aerial ladder without repositioning the apparatus

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52
Q

(High-Rise Fires) The D/O of the first arriving suppression apparatus should spot to _____

A

Supply the FDC with two 3” lines

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53
Q

Any fire above the fourth floor, RIC or rehab should stage

A

2 floors below

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54
Q

Pressures for a high-rise fire:

A 
1-10 floors = 150psi
11-20 floors = 200psi
21-30 floors = 250psi
31-40 floors = 300psi 
41-50 floors = 350psi 
Every floor 5 PSI
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55
Q 
Standpipe system (outlets) 
Class 1, 2, and 3
A

Class 1 - FD use, 2 1/2” outlets
Class 2 - occupant use only, 1 1/2” outlets
Class 3 - for both, 2 1/2” outlets with 1 1/2” reducer

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56
Q

You supply the sprinkler FDC prior to standpipe if _____

A

There are multiple FDC’s

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57
Q

(High-Rise Fires) Aerial usage takes priority over ______

A

Spotting FDC

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58
Q

Hydrants are within ______ feet of the FDC.

A

150 ft

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59
Q

Crews assigned to check the upper floors should equip themselves with a ______

A

CO gas meter

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60
Q

A potential hazard with garage fires ______

A

Burning fuel to run down ramps and other openings

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61
Q

A hazard with electrical fires _____

A

Re-energizing potential from emergency back up generators and power supplies

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62
Q

(Africanized honeybees) CO2 fire extinguishers are ___

A

Ineffective and may attract more bees

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63
Q

(Africanized honeybees) Vibrations from sirens may ______

A

Attract and or aggravate more bees

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64
Q

(Africanized honeybees) At night, the only light that should be used

A

red lights

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65
Q

(Africanized honeybees) The primary agent used for swarm colony eradication is ________

A

AFFF 6%. Class A foam 5% Solution is an acceptable substitute

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66
Q

(Africanized honeybees) bee zone =

A

Hot zone : < 150’
Warm zone : 150’ - 450’
Cold zone : >450’

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67
Q

(Fire ground procedures) The first arriving engine/tanker apparatus should position in a fashion to _______

A

Facilitate hoseline deployment and advancements, supplying FDC, and operating top mounted master stream

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68
Q

A Split Lay is ______

A

A water supply evolution where two apparatus are used to establish a single supply line

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69
Q

During strip mall fires, the third arriving suppression should respond ______

A

To the rear of the structure

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70
Q

The safest location to ladder most strip malls is _____

A

The rear

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71
Q

During strip mall fires, when will windows be vented?

A

Prior to advancing the hose line to the interior

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72
Q

During strip mall fire, if Backdraft conditions are present ______

A

The venting firefighter should begin with the outer most window and work their way in word

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73
Q

During warehouse fires, Access for roof operations equals a minimum of how many ladders?

A

Two ladders (remotely close together)

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74
Q

During a Forward hose lay, position the apparatus ______

A

20 feet past the hydrant in the direction of the fire

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75
Q

During a forward hose lay, the D/O radios which ff for water?

A

3 ff at hydrant for water

76
Q

Hydrant pressure should be boosted if master streams will be deployed or should be considered when the hose lay is greater than ______ feet.

A

300 feet

77
Q

Boosting pressure procedure:

A
  • A section of 5” hose should be connected from unclappered side of hydra-assist to main pump intake.
  • another section of 5” is connected from clappered side to large diameter pump discharge.
  • the hydra-assist handle is then turned toward the clappered discharge side to allow water into the pump’s intake
78
Q

Preconnected 1 3/4” jumpline, once line has been deployed and pressure has been adjusted, D/O begins _____

A

D/O begins looking for hydrant for self-supply/changeover or prepares to receive supply from another apparatus.

79
Q

In a reverse lay, position apparatus ___ - ____ feet past the attack apparatus in the direction of____.

A

5-10 feet past the attack apparatus in direction of water supply source

80
Q

The minimum residual intake pressure is

A

20 PSI (to prevent cavitation of the apparatus boosting pressure)

81
Q

AR-AFFF is used with _____

A

polar solvent at 6% (class B foam)

82
Q

AFFF is only used where?

A

The airport

83
Q

Class A foam proportioning should be between ___% - ___%

A

0.5%-1% which will act as a wetting agent for Class A fuels (ordinary combustibles)

84
Q

The percentage for Class B foam is ___% - ____%

A

3%-6%

85
Q

Gallons of concentrate (formula) =

A

% x GPM x Minutes

86
Q

Batch mixing:

A

-3% foam in a 500 gal tank = 3 pails (15 gals.) of concentrate
-3% foam in a 750 gal tank = 4.5 pails (22.5 gals.)
-6% foam in a 500 gal tank = 6 pails (30 gals.)
-6% foam in a 750 gal tank = 9 pails (45 gals.)
NOTE: Each pail is 5 gallons. “Street method”: Multiply the % X’s first number of gallon tank. Answer divided by 5

87
Q

The height from the foam concentrate level to the eductor must not exceed _____ feet.

A

6 feet

88
Q

EDP (Engine Discharge Pressure) of 200 psi plus 1 psi FL for each 50’ section of 3” hose

A

Utilized between the pump discharge and the eductor

89
Q

(Foam evolution) _____ psi from eductor for every section of 3”

A

200 psi Plus 1 psi friction loss

90
Q

(Foam evolution) Max feet past the eductor is ______ feet

A

300 feet

91
Q

In elevated foam stream evolutions, the pressure gov switches to ______ mode.

A

Pressure mode

92
Q

Formula for engine discharge pressure

A

EDP = FL + 20 psi

93
Q

In relay pumping, the pressure gov should be set to

A

RPM (throttle mode)

94
Q

When stopping relay operations, ______

A

Reverse order from start.

  • Begin with attack apparatus back to source pumper.
  • Slowly throttle down.
  • DO NOT SHUT DOWN DISCHARGES
  • Open bleed-off line and shut down discharges
  • Finally take pump out of gear.
95
Q

Source apparatus from draft will be at maximum capacity 100% when the EDP (Engine Discharge Pressure) reads _______ PSI
70% at ____ PSI
50% at ____ PSI

A
  • 150 psi = 100% (Maximum)
  • 200 psi = 70%
  • 250psi = 50%
96
Q

When target GPM is not known initially, the initial pressure should be _____ psi

A

100 psi EDP (Engine Discharge Pressure)

97
Q

In relay pumping, max distance between apparatus is _____ feet @ _____ gpm

A
  • 2000’ = 1000 gpm
  • 1300’ = 1250 gpm
  • 900’ = 1500 gpm
  • 500’ = 2000 gpm
98
Q

During drafting, the D/O stops the apparatus ______ feet short of the drafting site.

A

20 feet short of the drafting site

99
Q

Main source of communication is ______

A

through radios

100
Q

All FD pumping apparatus have their fire pumps rated when drafting from a lift of ______ feet.

A

10 feet through 20 feet of hard intake hose.

-20% of pump capacity at 200 psi

101
Q

During drafting, the pump is only able to deliver 70% of its capacity at ____ foot lift, and 60% capacity at a ____ ft lift

A
  • 70% capacity at a 15 ft lift

- 60% capacity at a 20 ft lift

102
Q

MDFR Training 1 has a fire pump rated at 1250 gpm at 150 psi. At 20 feet of lift, the pump will only be able to deliver ______ gpm

A

790 gpm

103
Q

During drafting, set the RPM (throttle mode) at _____ - ______ RPM

A

1200-1500 rpm

104
Q

Drafting pump capacity is _____ feet of lift or _____ feet of hose.

A

10’ of lift or 20’ of hose

105
Q

During drafting, the flotation device is used to ________

A

It eliminates the whirlpool effect

106
Q

Frame tank = _____ gallons

A

2500 gallons

107
Q

Portable tank = _____ gallons

A

2000-2500 gallons

108
Q

Pumpkin tank (self supporting tank) = _____ gallons

A

2000 gallons

109
Q

Turbo drafting allows apparatus to be placed at a distance of up to ______ feet and/or an elevation of _____ feet

A

200’ and/or an elevation of up to 20 ft from the water source.
NOT 250’

110
Q

In turbo drafting, the appliance is capable of generating water flows up to _____ gpm

A

670 gpm

111
Q

In turbo drafting, maintain a discharge pressure of _____ psi

A

175 psi

112
Q

In wildland fires, the KBDI is

A

a scale from 0-800. The higher the number the drier the area. Readings in excess of 500 are considered extremely dangerous.

113
Q

In wildland fires, red flag warnings are _____

A

A sign of extreme fire behavior

114
Q

In wildland fires, always maintain ______ tank

A

1/4 tank

115
Q

Booster reel, _____ psi, ____ - ____ gpm

A

200 psi, 30-40 gpm

116
Q

(Wildland fire procedure) LCES

A
  • Lookout
  • Communication
  • Escape Routes
  • Safety Zones
    It is a safety system developed/used by Wildland firefighters.
117
Q

The “regen” process takes between ______ - ____ min

A

20-40 min

118
Q

Tread depth should be no less than ______

A

1/8” in tires

AKA 4/32” for front

119
Q

Tires with air pressure more than 20 psi BELOW required pressure will be considered _______

A

Flat

120
Q

(Hose loads) Hose hampers, located on the front bumper, typically carry 100’ of 1 3/4” pre-connected hose in a _______

A

“S” load, flat load or accordion load

121
Q

Where do you find the correct inflation pressure for tires on the apparatus?

A

On a placard (usually near the drivers seat) NOT on tire.

122
Q

In Wildland fires, the D/O will spot the apparatus based on the following:

A
  • Direction of travel of the fire
  • Accessibility of attack lines
  • Wind direction
  • Probable path the fire will take
  • Escape routes
  • Access to Safety Zones
    NOT Direction of traffic
123
Q

During vehicle fires, the apparatus is spotted noting the following:

A 
During vehicle fires, the apparatus is spotted noting the following:
- Wind direction (upwind)
- Slope (uphill)
- Traffic
NOT Time of day
124
Q

(Foam operations) On the upper floors of a standpipe equipped bldg, A pumper will have to supply the FDC (Fire Dept Connection) at _____ psi.

A

200 psi plus elevation loss.
- any PRD’s (Pressure reducing devices) have to be removed from the standpipe outlet valve.
NOTE: if this is not feasible, the foam line would have to be supplied by means of a portable standpipe.

125
Q

(Foam operations) The preferred nozzle in a foam evolution is _____ nozzle

A

Elkhart Chief 4000-14 (125 gpm @ 75 psi) fog nozzle, located on the front bumper line.
-This matches the gpm flow of the TFT UE-125 eductor.

126
Q

(Foam operations) All suppression apparatus should carry a MINIMUM of _____ pails of AR-AFFF (Class B foam)

A 
2 pails (10 gallons)
Note: capable of carrying 4
127
Q

When a mobile mechanic responds to the units location for repairs, _____ will physically assist the mechanic if needed

A

The D/O

128
Q

The 4 riding positions on a suppression apparatus are designated as ________

A 
#1 = Unit Officer (calls for water)
#2 = D/O
#3 = Hydrant FF (behind driver)
#4 = Nozzle FF (behind OIC)
129
Q

MIV (Master Intake Valve) is designed to __________

A

Control the speed at which water is introduced into the pump to prevent water hammer.
- it is equipped with an air-bleed valve to prevent loss of prime in the pump.

130
Q

MIV (Master Intake Valve) can be found _______

A

Internally as a butterfly-type valve or as an external gated appliance.

131
Q

Master Intake Gauge is also known as _______

A

The compound gauge

132
Q

During relay pumping, a Bleed-Off Line (a.k.a. dump or waste line) is _______

A

A 50’ section of 3” hose utilized to discharge water in order to assist with lowering excess intake pressures and to aid in lowering pump temp during periods of diminished water movement.
-Bleed-off lines must be secured unwanted movement

133
Q

During relay pumping, ALL apparatus from the source pumper to the attack pumper must connect ________

A

a 50’ section of 3” hose to a discharge to serve as a bleed-off line

134
Q

During Relay Pumping, a _______ should be used by each relay and attack apparatus.

A

Portable hydrant

Note: 5” supply lines should not be connected directly to apparatus intakes.

135
Q

During Relay Pumping, when no more water is available from the source, this is indicated by _______

A
  • From a hydrant, 20 psi residual pressure is reached on the intake gauge
  • from draft, 150 psi is reached on the master discharge gauge.
136
Q

Level 1 staging :

A

With the exception of the first arriving suppression, all other units will stage in their direction of travel, approximately 1 block from the scene.

137
Q

(Apparatus placement) The final position should not block the most advantageous spot for ________

A

The later arriving Aerial apparatus.

138
Q

(Apparatus placement) When operating on roadways, apparatus will position to _______

A

Protect the working area from traffic hazards

139
Q

For all interior firefighting, the minimum diameter hoseline will be _____ flowing at _______ gpm

A

1 3/4” at 180 gpm

140
Q

2 1/2” hoselines will be deployed when flows of ____ to ____ gpm are required

A

250-325 gpm

141
Q

When flows of 325 gpm are required, ____ ____ should be considered.

A

Master streams

142
Q

When fixed fire suppression systems (sprinkler or standpipe) are present, priority must be given to __________

A

Supplying the system

143
Q

Generally, all engine apparatus will carry ____ ft of 5” hose

A

1000 ft

144
Q

On most apparatus, ____ ft of 3” hose can be carried.

A

600 ft

145
Q

3” hose beds will be loaded in the _______ configuration

A

“Reverse lay” (male couplings exiting bed first)

146
Q

The D/O should relay to the hose team via radio when the water level is down to ____ and ____ tank levels

A

1/2 and 1/4

1B9 sec. 9 B

147
Q

When and how often is hose testing done?

A

Annually in January

148
Q

Other terms for “portable hydrant” appliances.

A

Water thief, portable manifold

149
Q

Other term for Hydra-assist

A

4-way valve

150
Q

Tank fill is how many inches in diameter?

A

Tank fill is 2” in diameter.

151
Q

Tank to pump is how many inches in diameter?

A

Tank to pump is 3” is diameter.

152
Q

If water is being pumped from the booster tank, prior to receiving a hydrant supply, a true static intake pressure is only available_______

A

When no water is being flowed from the discharge.

153
Q

Make note of the upper end of the intake pressure fluctuations, as this will be ______

A

The static pressure

154
Q

GPM for a Smoothbore 1 1/8’’ tip for 2 1/2’’ and 2’’?

A

265 GPM

250GPM

155
Q

GPM for a Smoothbore 1 1/4’’ tip?

A

325 GPM

156
Q

GPM for a Smoothbore 1’’ tip?

A

210 GPM

157
Q

GPM for a Smoothbore 15/16’’ tip?

A

185 GPM

158
Q

GPM for a Smoothbore 1 3/8’’ tip?

A

500 GPM

159
Q

GPM for a Smoothbore 1 1/2’’ tip?

A

600 GPM

160
Q

GPM for a Smoothbore 1 3/4’’ tip?

A

800 GPM

161
Q

GPM for a Smoothbore 2’’ tip?

A

1000 GPM

162
Q

PSI for Sprinkler head

A

30 PSI

163
Q

GPM and PSI for R.A.N.

A

75 PSI

500 GPM

164
Q

GPM and PSI for Bumper foam Chief 4000-14

A

75 PSI

125 GPM

165
Q

GPM and PSI for Highrise/Crosslay Chief 4000-14

A

50 PSI

175 GPM

166
Q

GPM and PSI for Handline Chief 4000-26

A

50 PSI

250 GPM

167
Q

GPM and PSI for Master Stream Chief 4000-26

A

100 PSI

325 GPM

168
Q

Foam eductor friction loss

A

65 PSI

169
Q

FDC standpipe/sprinkler friction loss

A

25 PSI

170
Q

Appliance over 300 GPM friction loss

A

10 PSI

171
Q

1 3/4’’ hose friction loss for
125 GPM
175 GPM
185 GPM

A

6 PSI
11 PSI
12 PSI

172
Q

2’’ hose friction loss for
250 GPM
265 GPM
325 PGM

A

20 PSI
22 PSI
33 PSI

173
Q

2 1/2’’ hose friction loss for
250 GPM
265 GPM
325 GPM

A

6 PSI
7 PSI
10 PSI

174
Q 
3'' hose friction loss for
325 GPM
400 GPM
500 GPM
600 GPM
A

5 PSI
6 PSI
10 PSI
15 PSI

175
Q 
5'' hose friction loss for
1000 GPM
1250 GPM
1500 GPM
2000 GPM
A

5 PSI
8 PSI
11 PSI
20 PSI

176
Q

Oil Level Code : oL 0X

A

setting time to short

177
Q

Oil Level Code : oL 50

A

RPM to Low

178
Q

Oil Level Code : oL 59

A

RPM ro high

179
Q

Oil Level Code : oL 65

A

not in neutral

180
Q

Oil Level Code : oL 70

A

Temp Low

181
Q

Oil Level Code : oL 79

A

Temp High

182
Q

Oil Level Code : oL 89

A

Output shaft rotation detected

183
Q

Oil Level Code : oL 95

A

Oil sensor failed

184
Q

Oil Level Code : oL ok

A

fluid level correct

185
Q

Oil Level Code : oL LO o#

A

Oil level low then number of courts

186
Q

Oil Level Code : oL HI o#

A

Oil level high then number of courts

MDFR DO (3 decks)

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