D.O. Flashcards
1
Q
Fuel levels must be maintained at
A
1/2 tank or more
2
Q
How often is inventory check performed?
A
Quarterly
3
Q
How often do we operate and test master stream monitor devices or ladder pipes?
A
Weekly
4
Q
Driver re-test cannot be taken until
A
14 days have passed since previous examination
5
Q
Failure to pass or failure to re-test within how long will result in repeating MDFR task book process
A
6 months
6
Q
Class 1 leak
A
Seapage, wetness and no drops
7
Q
Class 2 leak
A
Leakage enough to form drop but not cause drop to fall
8
Q
Class 3 leak
A
Leakage great enough to cause drops to fall
9
Q
OOS criteria will include, brake system with ______
A
class 2 leakage of brake fluid
10
Q
OOS criteria will include, tire tread depth less than _____
A
4/32” on any steering (front) axle or 2/32” on non steering (rear) axle
11
Q
OOS criteria will include, fuel system component with ______
A
Fuel system component with Class 2 leakage of fuel.
12
Q
OOS criteria will include, service brakes that have an air pressure drop of more than ____ psi in ______ minute(s)
A
3 psi in one minute with engine stopped and service brakes released
13
Q
Air compressor must BUILD air pressure from ___ - ___ psi, in ___ seconds
A
85-100 psi in 45 seconds
14
Q
Air compressor must MAINTAIN between ___ - ___ psi
A
80-90psi
15
Q
Daily apparatus inspection report to be completed no later than
A
0900
16
Q
Daily apparatus inspection report is NOT used for
A
Scheduling routine or preventative maintenance
17
Q
Transmission must be checked at an operating temp of
A
180° or higher
18
Q
How often do we connect to a hydrant?
A
Daily
19
Q
How often do we perform manual pump shift?
A
(Weekly) Each Friday
20
Q
How often do we perform draft test and backflush complete system?
A
(Monthly) First Friday of each month.
21
Q
When do we clean undercarriage of chassis?
A
(Weekly) Saturday
22
Q
When do we wax the suppression?
A
(Quarterly) The first Tuesday of each quarter.
23
Q
DAILY apparatus inspection/duties includes :
A
- Connect to a hydrant
- Check pump shift
- Check pump primer and run dry vacuum test
- Check for leaks
- Operate all drains and valves and check for defects
- Check gauges
- Confirm proper operation of pressure governor
24
Q
WEEKLY apparatus inspection/duties includes:
A
- Perform manual pump shift (Each FRIDAY during daily truck inspection)
- Undercarriage of chassis (cleaned each SATURDAY)
- Operate and test master stream monitor devices
- Reverse flush the pumping system weekly (and after any drafting operation, keep strainers clean at all times)
25
QUARTERLY apparatus inspection/duties include:
- Waxing suppression (1st Tuesday of the quarter)
| - Inventory Check
26
The ____ is responsible for The Notice of Automobile Accident
The D/O
27
What is the result of fully opening the tank fill valve while fighting fire?
Cavitation and loss of water to the attack lines
28
Why do we make note of the upper end of the intake pressure fluctuations?
This will be the static pressure
29
Why do we use the static intake pressure?
It is utilized to calculate available water
30
Residual intake pressures should not be taken below how many psi?
20 psi
31
Tank Fill Valve should be closed to prevent what?
Constant discharge from the overfill pipe
32
When receiving water from a hydrant supply, the Tank to Pump Valve should remain
Open
33
Should a supply fail, EPG (Engine pressure governor) in pressure mode will _____
Automatically throttle up to maintain the desired EDP (Engine Discharge Pressure)
34
During extended periods of little or no water discharge you should ____
-Throttle down to idle and shift into neutral while leaving the pump engaged.
-Open your tank fill valve
-Set up a discharge line
NOTE: Do not take truck out of pump and shut off ignition
35
The D/O Should avoid flowing a second line until their water supply has been augmented. However, an acceptable practice is _______
Charging a back up line WITHOUT flowing.
36
If the EPG (Engine Pressure Governor) is not working, the increase in EDP (Engine Discharge Pressure) resulting from conducting a changeover must be manually resolved by _____
Slowly opening the intake while simultaneously throttling down the RPMs to compensate for the pressure increase
37
/
/
38
(Hose Testing) Each hose line will flow at _____ psi for ______ minutes.
200 psi for five minutes
39
(Hose Testing) If hard suction is to be used under positive pressure, It will be serviced tested to a water pressure of _____ psi
165 psi
40
(power plants) 4-stroke idle for how long?
2 min
41
(saws) 2-Stroke operate
At full throttle for 60-90 seconds
42
(Hurst Tools) Leave a gap in spreader tips approx
1/2"-1"
43
Accordion loads are mainly used for ______
Packaging hotel rolls and extra sections
44
Flat load is mainly used for loading _______
2 1/2", 3" and 5" hose
45
"S" load is most common MDFR load used on ______
1 3/4" pre-connected jumplines
46
Booster lines are NOT to be used as _______
Primary attack lines for structure fires
47
During backing operations, the back up person will not ______
Walk backwards while guiding the apparatus
48
(Backing operations) Personnel required for backing the apparatus includes ________
AT LEAST TWO PERSONS
1) "back-up" person
(1) rear observer
Note: (1) Front observer WHEN AVAILABLE
49
(High-Rise Fires) Pressure reducing device (PRD) are attached _______ to prevent discharge pressure past ____ PSI
Attached to the stand pipe outlets of some buildings to prevent outlet discharge pressures from exceeding 100 psi
50
During a well stretch evolution, one 50 foot hose section can you reach which floor?
4th or 5th
51
What is the scrub area?
The entire area on the face of the structure that can be effectively reached by an aerial ladder without repositioning the apparatus
52
(High-Rise Fires) The D/O of the first arriving suppression apparatus should spot to _____
Supply the FDC with two 3" lines
53
Any fire above the fourth floor, RIC or rehab should stage
2 floors below
54
Pressures for a high-rise fire:
```
1-10 floors = 150psi
11-20 floors = 200psi
21-30 floors = 250psi
31-40 floors = 300psi
41-50 floors = 350psi
Every floor 5 PSI
```
55
```
Standpipe system (outlets)
Class 1, 2, and 3
```
Class 1 - FD use, 2 1/2" outlets
Class 2 - occupant use only, 1 1/2" outlets
Class 3 - for both, 2 1/2" outlets with 1 1/2" reducer
56
You supply the sprinkler FDC prior to standpipe if _____
There are multiple FDC's
57
(High-Rise Fires) Aerial usage takes priority over ______
Spotting FDC
58
Hydrants are within ______ feet of the FDC.
150 ft
59
Crews assigned to check the upper floors should equip themselves with a ______
CO gas meter
60
A potential hazard with garage fires ______
Burning fuel to run down ramps and other openings
61
A hazard with electrical fires _____
Re-energizing potential from emergency back up generators and power supplies
62
(Africanized honeybees) CO2 fire extinguishers are ___
Ineffective and may attract more bees
63
(Africanized honeybees) Vibrations from sirens may ______
Attract and or aggravate more bees
64
(Africanized honeybees) At night, the only light that should be used
red lights
65
(Africanized honeybees) The primary agent used for swarm colony eradication is ________
AFFF 6%. Class A foam 5% Solution is an acceptable substitute
66
(Africanized honeybees) bee zone =
Hot zone : < 150'
Warm zone : 150' - 450'
Cold zone : >450'
67
(Fire ground procedures) The first arriving engine/tanker apparatus should position in a fashion to _______
Facilitate hoseline deployment and advancements, supplying FDC, and operating top mounted master stream
68
A Split Lay is ______
A water supply evolution where two apparatus are used to establish a single supply line
69
During strip mall fires, the third arriving suppression should respond ______
To the rear of the structure
70
The safest location to ladder most strip malls is _____
The rear
71
During strip mall fires, when will windows be vented?
Prior to advancing the hose line to the interior
72
During strip mall fire, if Backdraft conditions are present ______
The venting firefighter should begin with the outer most window and work their way in word
73
During warehouse fires, Access for roof operations equals a minimum of how many ladders?
Two ladders (remotely close together)
74
During a Forward hose lay, position the apparatus ______
20 feet past the hydrant in the direction of the fire
75
During a forward hose lay, the D/O radios which ff for water?
#3 ff at hydrant for water
76
Hydrant pressure should be boosted if master streams will be deployed or should be considered when the hose lay is greater than ______ feet.
300 feet
77
Boosting pressure procedure:
- A section of 5" hose should be connected from unclappered side of hydra-assist to main pump intake.
- another section of 5" is connected from clappered side to large diameter pump discharge.
- the hydra-assist handle is then turned toward the clappered discharge side to allow water into the pump's intake
78
Preconnected 1 3/4" jumpline, once line has been deployed and pressure has been adjusted, D/O begins _____
D/O begins looking for hydrant for self-supply/changeover or prepares to receive supply from another apparatus.
79
In a reverse lay, position apparatus ___ - ____ feet past the attack apparatus in the direction of____.
5-10 feet past the attack apparatus in direction of water supply source
80
The minimum residual intake pressure is
20 PSI (to prevent cavitation of the apparatus boosting pressure)
81
AR-AFFF is used with _____
polar solvent at 6% (class B foam)
82
AFFF is only used where?
The airport
83
Class A foam proportioning should be between ___% - ___%
0.5%-1% which will act as a wetting agent for Class A fuels (ordinary combustibles)
84
The percentage for Class B foam is ___% - ____%
3%-6%
85
Gallons of concentrate (formula) =
% x GPM x Minutes
86
Batch mixing:
-3% foam in a 500 gal tank = 3 pails (15 gals.) of concentrate
-3% foam in a 750 gal tank = 4.5 pails (22.5 gals.)
-6% foam in a 500 gal tank = 6 pails (30 gals.)
-6% foam in a 750 gal tank = 9 pails (45 gals.)
NOTE: Each pail is 5 gallons. "Street method": Multiply the % X's first number of gallon tank. Answer divided by 5
87
The height from the foam concentrate level to the eductor must not exceed _____ feet.
6 feet
88
EDP (Engine Discharge Pressure) of 200 psi plus 1 psi FL for each 50' section of 3" hose
Utilized between the pump discharge and the eductor
89
(Foam evolution) _____ psi from eductor for every section of 3"
200 psi Plus 1 psi friction loss
90
(Foam evolution) Max feet past the eductor is ______ feet
300 feet
91
In elevated foam stream evolutions, the pressure gov switches to ______ mode.
Pressure mode
92
Formula for engine discharge pressure
EDP = FL + 20 psi
93
In relay pumping, the pressure gov should be set to
RPM (throttle mode)
94
When stopping relay operations, ______
Reverse order from start.
- Begin with attack apparatus back to source pumper.
- Slowly throttle down.
* DO NOT SHUT DOWN DISCHARGES
- Open bleed-off line and shut down discharges
- Finally take pump out of gear.
95
Source apparatus from draft will be at maximum capacity 100% when the EDP (Engine Discharge Pressure) reads _______ PSI
70% at ____ PSI
50% at ____ PSI
- 150 psi = 100% (Maximum)
- 200 psi = 70%
- 250psi = 50%
96
When target GPM is not known initially, the initial pressure should be _____ psi
100 psi EDP (Engine Discharge Pressure)
97
In relay pumping, max distance between apparatus is _____ feet @ _____ gpm
- 2000' = 1000 gpm
- 1300' = 1250 gpm
- 900' = 1500 gpm
- 500' = 2000 gpm
98
During drafting, the D/O stops the apparatus ______ feet short of the drafting site.
20 feet short of the drafting site
99
Main source of communication is ______
through radios
100
All FD pumping apparatus have their fire pumps rated when drafting from a lift of ______ feet.
10 feet through 20 feet of hard intake hose.
| -20% of pump capacity at 200 psi
101
During drafting, the pump is only able to deliver 70% of its capacity at ____ foot lift, and 60% capacity at a ____ ft lift
- 70% capacity at a 15 ft lift
| - 60% capacity at a 20 ft lift
102
MDFR Training 1 has a fire pump rated at 1250 gpm at 150 psi. At 20 feet of lift, the pump will only be able to deliver ______ gpm
790 gpm
103
During drafting, set the RPM (throttle mode) at _____ - ______ RPM
1200-1500 rpm
104
Drafting pump capacity is _____ feet of lift or _____ feet of hose.
10' of lift or 20' of hose
105
During drafting, the flotation device is used to ________
It eliminates the whirlpool effect
106
Frame tank = _____ gallons
2500 gallons
107
Portable tank = _____ gallons
2000-2500 gallons
108
Pumpkin tank (self supporting tank) = _____ gallons
2000 gallons
109
Turbo drafting allows apparatus to be placed at a distance of up to ______ feet and/or an elevation of _____ feet
200' and/or an elevation of up to 20 ft from the water source.
NOT 250'
110
In turbo drafting, the appliance is capable of generating water flows up to _____ gpm
670 gpm
111
In turbo drafting, maintain a discharge pressure of _____ psi
175 psi
112
In wildland fires, the KBDI is
a scale from 0-800. The higher the number the drier the area. Readings in excess of 500 are considered extremely dangerous.
113
In wildland fires, red flag warnings are _____
A sign of extreme fire behavior
114
In wildland fires, always maintain ______ tank
1/4 tank
115
Booster reel, _____ psi, ____ - ____ gpm
200 psi, 30-40 gpm
116
(Wildland fire procedure) LCES
- Lookout
- Communication
- Escape Routes
- Safety Zones
It is a safety system developed/used by Wildland firefighters.
117
The "regen" process takes between ______ - ____ min
20-40 min
118
Tread depth should be no less than ______
1/8" in tires
| AKA 4/32" for front
119
Tires with air pressure more than 20 psi BELOW required pressure will be considered _______
Flat
120
(Hose loads) Hose hampers, located on the front bumper, typically carry 100' of 1 3/4" pre-connected hose in a _______
"S" load, flat load or accordion load
121
Where do you find the correct inflation pressure for tires on the apparatus?
On a placard (usually near the drivers seat) NOT on tire.
122
In Wildland fires, the D/O will spot the apparatus based on the following:
- Direction of travel of the fire
- Accessibility of attack lines
- Wind direction
- Probable path the fire will take
- Escape routes
- Access to Safety Zones
NOT Direction of traffic
123
During vehicle fires, the apparatus is spotted noting the following:
```
During vehicle fires, the apparatus is spotted noting the following:
- Wind direction (upwind)
- Slope (uphill)
- Traffic
NOT Time of day
```
124
(Foam operations) On the upper floors of a standpipe equipped bldg, A pumper will have to supply the FDC (Fire Dept Connection) at _____ psi.
200 psi plus elevation loss.
- any PRD's (Pressure reducing devices) have to be removed from the standpipe outlet valve.
NOTE: if this is not feasible, the foam line would have to be supplied by means of a portable standpipe.
125
(Foam operations) The preferred nozzle in a foam evolution is _____ nozzle
Elkhart Chief 4000-14 (125 gpm @ 75 psi) fog nozzle, located on the front bumper line.
-This matches the gpm flow of the TFT UE-125 eductor.
126
(Foam operations) All suppression apparatus should carry a MINIMUM of _____ pails of AR-AFFF (Class B foam)
```
2 pails (10 gallons)
Note: capable of carrying 4
```
127
When a mobile mechanic responds to the units location for repairs, _____ will physically assist the mechanic if needed
The D/O
128
The 4 riding positions on a suppression apparatus are designated as ________
```
#1 = Unit Officer (calls for water)
#2 = D/O
#3 = Hydrant FF (behind driver)
#4 = Nozzle FF (behind OIC)
```
129
MIV (Master Intake Valve) is designed to __________
Control the speed at which water is introduced into the pump to prevent water hammer.
- it is equipped with an air-bleed valve to prevent loss of prime in the pump.
130
MIV (Master Intake Valve) can be found _______
Internally as a butterfly-type valve or as an external gated appliance.
131
Master Intake Gauge is also known as _______
The compound gauge
132
During relay pumping, a Bleed-Off Line (a.k.a. dump or waste line) is _______
A 50' section of 3" hose utilized to discharge water in order to assist with lowering excess intake pressures and to aid in lowering pump temp during periods of diminished water movement.
-Bleed-off lines must be secured unwanted movement
133
During relay pumping, ALL apparatus from the source pumper to the attack pumper must connect ________
a 50' section of 3" hose to a discharge to serve as a bleed-off line
134
During Relay Pumping, a _______ should be used by each relay and attack apparatus.
Portable hydrant
Note: 5" supply lines should not be connected directly to apparatus intakes.
135
During Relay Pumping, when no more water is available from the source, this is indicated by _______
- From a hydrant, 20 psi residual pressure is reached on the intake gauge
- from draft, 150 psi is reached on the master discharge gauge.
136
Level 1 staging :
With the exception of the first arriving suppression, all other units will stage in their direction of travel, approximately 1 block from the scene.
137
(Apparatus placement) The final position should not block the most advantageous spot for ________
The later arriving Aerial apparatus.
138
(Apparatus placement) When operating on roadways, apparatus will position to _______
Protect the working area from traffic hazards
139
For all interior firefighting, the minimum diameter hoseline will be _____ flowing at _______ gpm
1 3/4" at 180 gpm
140
2 1/2" hoselines will be deployed when flows of ____ to ____ gpm are required
250-325 gpm
141
When flows of 325 gpm are required, ____ ____ should be considered.
Master streams
142
When fixed fire suppression systems (sprinkler or standpipe) are present, priority must be given to __________
Supplying the system
143
Generally, all engine apparatus will carry ____ ft of 5" hose
1000 ft
144
On most apparatus, ____ ft of 3" hose can be carried.
600 ft
145
3" hose beds will be loaded in the _______ configuration
"Reverse lay" (male couplings exiting bed first)
146
The D/O should relay to the hose team via radio when the water level is down to ____ and ____ tank levels
1/2 and 1/4
| 1B9 sec. 9 B
147
When and how often is hose testing done?
Annually in January
148
Other terms for "portable hydrant" appliances.
Water thief, portable manifold
149
Other term for Hydra-assist
4-way valve
150
Tank fill is how many inches in diameter?
Tank fill is 2" in diameter.
151
Tank to pump is how many inches in diameter?
Tank to pump is 3" is diameter.
152
If water is being pumped from the booster tank, prior to receiving a hydrant supply, a true static intake pressure is only available_______
When no water is being flowed from the discharge.
153
Make note of the upper end of the intake pressure fluctuations, as this will be ______
The static pressure
154
GPM for a Smoothbore 1 1/8'' tip for 2 1/2'' and 2''?
265 GPM
| 250GPM
155
GPM for a Smoothbore 1 1/4'' tip?
325 GPM
156
GPM for a Smoothbore 1'' tip?
210 GPM
157
GPM for a Smoothbore 15/16'' tip?
185 GPM
158
GPM for a Smoothbore 1 3/8'' tip?
500 GPM
159
GPM for a Smoothbore 1 1/2'' tip?
600 GPM
160
GPM for a Smoothbore 1 3/4'' tip?
800 GPM
161
GPM for a Smoothbore 2'' tip?
1000 GPM
162
PSI for Sprinkler head
30 PSI
163
GPM and PSI for R.A.N.
75 PSI
| 500 GPM
164
GPM and PSI for Bumper foam Chief 4000-14
75 PSI
| 125 GPM
165
GPM and PSI for Highrise/Crosslay Chief 4000-14
50 PSI
| 175 GPM
166
GPM and PSI for Handline Chief 4000-26
50 PSI
| 250 GPM
167
GPM and PSI for Master Stream Chief 4000-26
100 PSI
| 325 GPM
168
Foam eductor friction loss
65 PSI
169
FDC standpipe/sprinkler friction loss
25 PSI
170
Appliance over 300 GPM friction loss
10 PSI
171
1 3/4'' hose friction loss for
125 GPM
175 GPM
185 GPM
6 PSI
11 PSI
12 PSI
172
2'' hose friction loss for
250 GPM
265 GPM
325 PGM
20 PSI
22 PSI
33 PSI
173
2 1/2'' hose friction loss for
250 GPM
265 GPM
325 GPM
6 PSI
7 PSI
10 PSI
174
```
3'' hose friction loss for
325 GPM
400 GPM
500 GPM
600 GPM
```
5 PSI
6 PSI
10 PSI
15 PSI
175
```
5'' hose friction loss for
1000 GPM
1250 GPM
1500 GPM
2000 GPM
```
5 PSI
8 PSI
11 PSI
20 PSI
176
Oil Level Code : oL 0X
setting time to short
177
Oil Level Code : oL 50
RPM to Low
178
Oil Level Code : oL 59
RPM ro high
179
Oil Level Code : oL 65
not in neutral
180
Oil Level Code : oL 70
Temp Low
181
Oil Level Code : oL 79
Temp High
182
Oil Level Code : oL 89
Output shaft rotation detected
183
Oil Level Code : oL 95
Oil sensor failed
184
Oil Level Code : oL ok
fluid level correct
185
Oil Level Code : oL LO o#
Oil level low then number of courts
186
Oil Level Code : oL HI o#
Oil level high then number of courts
