DNA Virus Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) Viruses Family:

A
  1. Adenoviridae
  2. Hepadnaviridae
  3. Herpesviridae
  4. Papillomaviridae
  5. Parvoviridae
  6. Polyomaviridae
  7. Poxviridae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

All DNA viruses have double stranded DNA, except:

A

Parvovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

All DNA viruses have LINEAR DNA, except:

A

(circular, supercoiled)
POLYOMAVIRUS
PAPILLOMAVIRUS
HEPADNAVIRUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

All DNA viruses are Icosahedral, except:

A

POXVIRUS (Complex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus, except:

A

POXVIRUS (cytoplasm, carries own DNA dependent RNA polymerase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All DNA virus are enveloped, except:

A

Adenoviridae
Papillomaviridae
Parvoviridae
Polyomaviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

First isolated from the culture of human
adenoids and tonsils in the early 1950ss,
hence the name

A

Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Large 70-80 nm, icosahedral, double stranded linear DNA virus, naked/unenveloped.

A

Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MOT of Adenovirus

A

Respiratory (aerosol droplets)
fecal oral
Direct contact (eye)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Adeno virus site of latency:

A

Replication in oropharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Currently, 85 serotypes have been
described.

A

ADENOVIRUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pharyngitis, conjunctivitis, coryza

A

ADENOVIRUS URT (serotype 3, 7, 8, 19, 37)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

bronchitis, atypical pneumonia

A

ADENOVIRUS LRT (serotype 14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

acute gastroenteritis (infantile diarrhea)

A

ADENOVIRUS GIT [serotype: 40, 41]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

acute hemorrhagic cystitis

A

ADENOVIRUS GUT (serotype: 7,11,21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Adenovirus Incubation period:

A

Respiratory Disease: 2-14 days
Gastroenteritis: 3-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Common upper R.T.I includes colds,
tonsillitis, pharyngitis ,pharyngo conjunctival
fever, and sometimes croup.

A

ADENOVIRUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Infections of the eye and conjunctivitis
often accompany respiratory infection
(in children, otitis media is often a
complication of the respiratory disease.)

A

ADENOVIRUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lower R.T.I can be severe in children.
Pneumonia is often fatal in
infants and young children

A

Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cause less than 5% of all acute respiratory
disease in the general population;

A

ADENOVIRUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

However, they account for up to 15% of all
acute diarrheal infections in children

A

Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Diagnosis for Adenovirus

A

1.cell culture (HE-p-2)
2.cowdry type B intranuclear basophilic
inclusion
3.EIA for gastroenteritis 40,41
4.PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Adenovirus prevention

A

Vaccine for (Adenovirus 4 and 7) for military recruits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Serum Hepatitis

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Partially double stranded DNA (incomplete circular), enveloped icosahedral capsid

A

HEPADNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Virion called Dane particle, surface antigen called Australian antigen

A

HEPADNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MOT for HEPADNA

A

Percutaneous exposure to blood or blood products
1. Blood transfusions
2. Needle stick injury
3. Sexual
4. Transplacental
5. Perinatal
6. Direct contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

HEPADNA site of latency

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HEPADNA virulence factor:

A

HBsAg, HBcAg, HBeAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Used as marker of potential infectivity in HBV

A

HBeAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hepatitis B incubation

A

1 to 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the only DNA virus that produces DNA by reverse transcription with mRNA as the template, not a retrovirus but has reverse transcriptase.

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hypocellular injury due to immune attack by cytototoxic T cells, no cytopathic effcts.

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

infection remains a significant worldwide
cause of liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma despite the availability of an effective vaccine.

A

Chronic HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Fever, anorexia and jaundice.

A

Hepatits B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dark urine, pale faces, elevated transglutaminase levels

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

significant cause of liver damage associated with morbidity and mortality.

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Humans infected with HBV worldwide is
nearly 400 million, and approximately
50 million new cases occur annually

A

take note

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Humans are the only source of the virus

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The only positive during window period: Hepatitis B

A

Anti-HBc
IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The only positive among vaccinated patients:

42
Q

What can differentiate chronic active infection from chronic carrier:

43
Q

Chronic infection is characterized by the persistence of ____for at least 6 months

44
Q

is the principal marker of risk for developing chronic liver disease and liver cancer (hepatocellular carcinoma) later in life.

A

Persistence of HBsAg

45
Q

Liver Biopsy: Granular eosinophilic “ground
glass” appearance

A

Hepatitis B

46
Q

Councilman body: eosinophilic globule of cells that represents a dying hepatocyte often surrounded by normal parenchyma

A

Hepatitis B

47
Q

Hepatitis B Extrahepatic manifestations:

A

o Aplastic Anemia
o Membranous-Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
o Polyarteritis nodosa (autoimmune vasculitis)

48
Q

Have large, enveloped, icosahedral
capsids, linear, containing double-stranded.
DNA genomes.

A

HERPESVIRIDAE

49
Q

●Encode many proteins that manipulate
the host cell and immune response.
● Encode enzymes (DNA polymerase) that
promote viral DNA replication and are
good targets for antiviral drugs.
● DNA replication and capsid assembly
occurs in the nucleus

A

HERPESVIRIDAE

50
Q

Virus is released by exocytosis, by cell
lysis, and through cell-to-cell bridges. Can cause lytic, persistent, latent, and (for
Epstein Barr virus) immortalizing infections

A

HERPESVIRIDAE

51
Q

Ubiquitous. Cell-mediated immunity is required for control

A

HERPESVIRIDAE

52
Q

Alphaherpesviridae

A

HHV-1 Herpes Simplex type 1
HHV-2 Herpes Simplex type 2
HHV-3 Varicella zoster virus

53
Q

Gammaherpesviridae

A

HHV-4 Epstein Barr Virus
HHV-8 Kaposi sarcoma related virus

54
Q

Betaherpesviridae

A

HHV-5 Cytomegalovirus
HHV-6 Herpes lymphotropic virus
HHV-7

55
Q

HSV 1-Herpes simplex transmission

A

Saliva or direct

56
Q

HSV 2 -Herpes simplex transmission

A

Sexual or transvaginal

57
Q

filled with virus particles and cell debris

A

vesicle HSV

58
Q

-Gingivostomatitis
-Herpes labialis (lips)
-Keratoconjunctivitis
-Temporal lobe encephalitis
-Herpetic whitlow (fingers)
Herpes gladiatorum (trunk)

A

HSV1 (HHV 1)

59
Q

-Genital herpes
-Neonatal herpes (TORCH)
-Aseptic meningitis

A

HSV 2 (HHV 2)

60
Q

Site of Latency for HSV 1 and 2

A

HSV 1- Trigeminal ganglia
HSV 2- Lumbosacral ganglia

61
Q

HHv or HSv Diagnosis:

A

1.Tzanck smear
2.Cowdry type A
3.Cell cuture ( HDF others)
4.EIA
5.FA stain
6.PCR ( CSF herpes encephalitis)

62
Q

Treatment for HHv or HSV

A

Acyclovir
Penciclovir
Valacyclovir
Famiciclovir
Trifluridine

63
Q

HHV 3

A

Varicella Zoster Virus

64
Q

Varicella Zoster transmission

A

close contact and respiratory

65
Q

Varicella Zoster transmission site of latency

A

dorsal root ganglia

66
Q

chicken pox

67
Q

shingles

A

herpes zooster

68
Q

ramsay hunt syndrome

A

herpes zooster oticus

69
Q

Infects the URT, then spreads via the blood to the skin - Becomes latent in the dorsal root ganglia, which may reactivate as
zoster

A

Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)/ HHV-3

70
Q

Period of communicability of VARICELL/CHICKENPOX

A

48 hours before vesicle formation and
4 -5 days after until all vesicles are crusted

71
Q

Vesicular rash (‘dewdrop on a rose petal appearance’) that begins on trunk; spreads to face and extremities (centrifugal) with lesions of different stages

A

VARICELL/CHICKENPOX

72
Q

Complications: Pneumonia, Encephalitis, Reye’s syndrome, Cerebellar ataxia, secondary bacterial infection

A

VARICELLA/ CHICKEN POX

73
Q

Unilateral painful vesicular eruption with a dermatomal distribution (thoracic and lumbar) .Debilitating pain (postherpetic neuralgia) a most common complication

A

HERPES ZOSTER/ SHINGLES

74
Q

Reactivation of latent VZV residing within geniculate ganglion

A

RAMSAY-HUNT SYNDROME/ HERPES ZOSTER OTICUS

75
Q

A triad of ipsilateral facial paralysis, ear pain
and vesicles on the face, on the ear.

A

RAMSAY-HUNT SYNDROME/ HERPES ZOSTER OTICUS

76
Q

maximal interruption with limb development (short and malformed limbs covered with cicatrix_skin lesion with zigzag scarring associated with atrophy of the affected limb)

A

CONGENITAL VARICELLA
Fetuses infected at 6-12 weeks

77
Q

CONGENITAL VARICELLA
Fetuses infected at 16-20 weeks

A

eye and brain involvement

78
Q

Varicella-Zoster transmission:

A

Airborne-droplet
Direct contact with the lesions

79
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) HHV-5 MOT

A

Human body fluids
Transplacental
Organ transplantation

80
Q
  • Immediate early proteins
    -Translated from premade mRNAs
    -Impair assembly of the MHC class 1-viral
    peptide complexes
A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)/ HHV-5

81
Q

Most common infectious cause of congenital abnormalities

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)/ HHV-5

82
Q

1.Most common intrauterine viral infection
2.Most common when the mother is infected in first trimester

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)/ HHV-5

83
Q

Microcephaly, seizures, deafness, jaundice, and purpura. Periventricular calcifications

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)/ HHV-5

84
Q

-Monospot-negative
-Fever, lethargy, and abnormal lymphocytes in blood smears

A

HETEROPHIL-NEGATIVE MONONUCLEOSIS

84
Q
  • Pneumonitis, hepatitis, colitis
    -AIDS retinitis: hemorrhage, cotton-wool exudates, vision loss
A

SYSTEMIC CMV INFECTIONS

85
Q

Cultured in shell tubes
Negative heterophil test
Giant cells with owl’s-eye nuclear inclusion

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)/ HHV-5

86
Q

-infects mainly lymphoid cells, primarily B-lymphocytes through CD21 - Elicits EBV-specific antibodies and non-specific heterophil antibodies

A

Epstein-Barr Virus HHV 4

87
Q

î ‘Kissing disease’
î Monospot-positive/heterophil-positive
î fever, sorethroat, lymphadenopathy
î splenomegaly à rapid increase in size produces a tense, fragile, splenic
capsule à splenic rupture is a rare complication (Avoid contact sports!)

A

Epstein-Barr Virus HHV 4

88
Q

MALIGNANCIES
î Burkitt’s lymphoma (in Africanpeople)
î B-cell lymphomas
î Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (in Chinese people)
î Hairy leukoplakia (in AIDS patients)

A

Epstein-Barr Virus HHV 4

89
Q

Differential white blood cells
count will show elevated
“atypical lymphocytes” Downey cells

A

Epstein-Barr Virus HHV 4

90
Q

MONONUCLEOSIS
Heterophil-Positive:

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

91
Q

Heterophil-Negative:

A

î Cytomegalovirus
î Toxopasma

92
Q

Use of amoxicillin in
mononucleosis can cause
characteristic

A

maculopapular rash.

93
Q

Epstein-Barr Virus MOT

94
Q

Oral hairy leukoplakia in HIV patients

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

95
Q
  • rose-colored macules appear on body after several days of high fever;
    can present with febrile seizures; usually affects infants
  • Nagayama spots: erythematous papules on soft palate and base of the uvula
A

ROSEOLA, EXANTHEM SUBITUM, SIXTH DISEASE

96
Q

Site of Latency HHV 6 and 7

A

T lymphocytes or CD4 cells

97
Q

Epstein Barr Virus site of latency

A

B cells C3d complement

98
Q
  • most common AIDS-related malignancy - malignancy of the vascular endothelial cells
    -Dark/violaceous plaques or nodules representing vascular proliferation
A

KAPOSI SARCOMA HHV 8

99
Q

CMV OR HHV 5 MOT

A

Human body fluids
Transplacental
Organ transplantation