DNA Technology Flashcards

1
Q

DNA technology permits

A

Manipulation and analysis of DNA, synthesis and mutation of genes, clone and express genes to produce proteins, locate gene mutations, detect carriers of genetic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Enzymes used in DNA technology

A

Restriction endonucleases, DNA ligase, DNA polymerase, Reverse transcriptase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Restriction endonucleases

A

Restriction enzymes, cut double-stranded DNA into smaller fragments, cut at specific sequence- restriction site, isolated from bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Restriction site

A

Specific sequence of bases cleaved by a restriction enzyme, most commonly 4-6 base pairs long, many are palindromic (both strands have same sequence when read 5’ to 3’)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sticky ends

A

Restriction enzyme cuts at palindromic restriction site, leaves staggered ends of the DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Blunt ends

A

Restriction enzymes cuts evenly through both strands of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

DNA ligases

A

Join together fragments of DNA, in vivo they repair single-stranded breaks, in vitro then join fragments of double-stranded DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ligation

A

Joining together DNA molecules, more efficient between sticky ends, can add linkers to blunt ends to make them sticky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

DNA polymerases

A

Makes copies of DNA, synthesize a single new strand complementary to an existing single-stranded DNA template, most require a double-stranded primer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Reverse transcriptase

A

Copies RNA onto DNA, synthesizes a DNA strand complementary to an RNA template, used in production of complementary DNA (cDNA), required for production of recombinant eukaryotic proteins in prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Analyzing the result of a DNA reaction

A

Reaction products are separated by gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules move according to their size, smaller the molecule, the faster it moves, bands are visualized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Separation of products by gel electrophoresis

A

DNA loaded into a well cut out of the gel, DNA separates into bands of different-sized fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Estimation of product size

A

Size markers- mix of DNA fragments of known, different lengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hybridization techniques

A

Techniques involving annealing of two single strands of complementary base sequence, involve use of probe to identify or select specific DNA fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Probe

A

Short single-stranded nucleotide of known sequence, usually labelled to permit identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Southern blotting

A

Identification of DNA fragments through their ability to hybridize with a complementary probe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Northern blotting

A

Identification of RNA fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Western blotting

A

Identification of proteins through their ability to bind to specific antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Applications of southern blotting

A

Identifying genes, diagnosis of genetic diseases, carrier detection, DNA fingerprinting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DNA profiling (fingerprinting)

A

Original method used probes that annealed to DNA regions comprising repeated blocks of bases, number of repeats varies from one individual to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Minisatellite DNA

A

Comprises variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Microsatellite DNA

A

Compromises short tandem repeat polymorphism (STRPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DNA sequencing

A

Determination of the sequence of bases in a DNA molecule, Maxam-Gilbert chemical method, chain termination or dideoxy method, automated sequencing using fluorescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

DNA sequencing protocol

A

4 sequencing reactions are set up, one for each base, each reaction is set up to synthesize a nucleotide chain complementary to the chain under analysis, all reaction components are added to each reaction plus a small amount of ddNTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Automated DNA sequencing

A

Based on Sanger method, employs fluorescent labeling, different fluorolabel attached to each ddNTP, all 4 reactions performed in one tube and electrophoresis performed in one lane of the gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A

In vitro method for producing large amounts of DNA from a target sequence, requires only minute amount of sample to be amplified, can produce a million copies in 2-3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

PCR reaction components

A

Target DNA template, deoxynucleotide mixture (dATP, dTTP, dCTP, dTTP), heat stable DNA polymerase, oligonucleotide primers complementary to ends of region to be amplified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Steps of PCR

A

Heat separates strands, add synthetic oligonucleotide primers, cool, add thermostable DNA polymerase to catalyze DNA synthesis, repeat, DNA synthesis catalyzed by thermostable DNA polymerase, target sequence amplified 10^6 fold after 25 cycles

29
Q

Advantages of PCR

A

Size and condition of sample, speed

30
Q

Disadvantages of PCR

A

Some sequence knowledge required, size limit for target DNA, contamination

31
Q

Uses of PCR

A

Accelerating and facilitating genetic engineering, diagnosing genetic diseases, identifying carriers of genetic diseases, detecting presence of infectious organisms, DNA profiling

32
Q

Vectors

A

Vehicles that carry DNA fragments into cells- plasmid, bacteriophage, cosmid, bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC), yeast artificial chromosome (YAC), vectors for gene therapy (viruses)

33
Q

Transduction

A

Phage mediated gene transfer into a prokaryotic cell

34
Q

Transformation

A

Non-phage mediated gene transfer into prokaryotic cell

35
Q

Transfection

A

Gene transfer into a eukaryotic cell

36
Q

Formation of recombinant DNA molecule

A

Add gene to vector with DNA ligase, forming a recombinant DNA molecule

37
Q

Clone

A

Group of organisms, cells, or molecules all originating from a single individual

38
Q

Clone a gene

A

Isolate the DNA that encodes the gene in a pure, readily reproducible form, can be used for amplifying DNA or production of the encoded protein from cloned DNA

39
Q

DNA libraries

A

Large collection of recombinant DNA clones, in which the DNA has been inserted into a vector

40
Q

Genomic library

A

A collection of DNA fragments from an organism’s entire genome cloned into bacterial colonies, contains all genes for an organism

41
Q

cDNA library

A

Collection of cDNA fragments produced from all the mRNA present in a particular tissue type, contains only cDNAs corresponding to proteins expressed in the cell type from which the library was made

42
Q

Screening a genomic library

A

Selecting a colony that contains a specific individual gene, hybridization with an oligonucleotide probe

43
Q

Screening a cDNA library

A

Polymerase chain reaction, hybridization with an oligonucleotide probe, immunological screening

44
Q

Medical applications of DNA technology

A

Diagnosis of genetic diseases, carrier detection, detection of infectious organisms, production of therapeutic proteins, production of DNA vaccines, gene therapy

45
Q

DNA techniques in diagnosis

A

Most involve preliminary amplification by PCR- restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis, direct PCR analysis, allele-specific oligonucleotide (ASO) hybridization, hybridization to microchip array

46
Q

Detection of mutation by direct PCR analysis

A

PCR amplification of mutated region

47
Q

Allele-specific PCR amplification (ARMS test)

A

PCR equivalent of ASO hybridization, achieves the same purpose in one PCR step, 2 sets of primers: 1st primer the same for both reactions, 2nd primer in 2 forms, normal and mutant, only exact complementary target sequence is amplified

48
Q

PCR target size limitations

A

Routine use, not >4000 bases, disorders due to triplet nucleotide expansions, full mutation too large to amplify routinely

49
Q

DNA microarrays

A

Used to detect mutations and to examine gene expression, normal and mutated ASOs robotically placed on glass slide, hybridized with fluorescently labeled DNA from patient, pattern analyzed by computer

50
Q

Therapeutic proteins produced by recombinant DNA technology

A

Insulin, factor VIII, factor IX, human growth hormone, tissue plasminogen activator, interferon, erythropoietin, adenosine deaminase

51
Q

Production of vaccines by recombinant DNA technology

A

Protein antigens can be produced completely free of the infectious agent, hepatitis B vaccine was first produced recombinant DNA vaccine

52
Q

Gene therapy

A

To cure or prevent a disease by modifying an individual’s genes or their expression, somatic cell therapy or germline therapy

53
Q

Somatic cell therapy- gene replacement therapy

A

Replacing a mutated gene that causes disease with a healthy gene

54
Q

Somatic cell therapy- gene therapy for non-inherited diseases

A

Introducing a new gene to help fight a disease

55
Q

Somatic cell therapy- gene-blocking therapy

A

Inactivating a mutated gene that is functioning improperly

56
Q

Retrovirus vectors

A

Advantages- enters cells efficiently, integrates stably into host genome, targets only dividing cells
Disadvantages- limited insert size, integrates into host genome, targets only dividing cells

57
Q

Adenovirus vectors

A

Advantages- enters cells efficiently, high expression of insert, does not integrate into host genome
Disadvantages- can elicit serious immune response, does not integrate into host genome

58
Q

Adeno-associated virus vectors

A

Advantages- enters cells efficiently, elicits little or no immune response, integrates into host genome at specific site
Disadvantages- limited insert size, difficult to produce

59
Q

Herpes simplex virus vectors

A

Advantages- can carry up to 20kb, prolonged activity, infects nerve cells efficiently
Disadvantages- can cause immune response

60
Q

Liposome vectors

A

Advantages- can accept large inserts, no immune response

Disadvantages- inefficient cell entry, no integration into host genome, can be toxic

61
Q

Naked DNA vectors

A

Advantages- can accept large inserts, no immune response

Disadvantages- very inefficient cell entry, no integration into host genome

62
Q

Viral vs non-viral vectors

A

Non-viral vectors are better suited for ex vivo gene therapy than in vivo gene therapy

63
Q

Ex vivo gene therapy

A

Patient’s cells are extracted, manipulated outside the body, and re-introduced, used for SCID, familial hypercholesterolemia, Gaucher disease, malignant melanoma, leukemia

64
Q

In vivo gene therapy

A

Used for cystic fibrosis, various cancers (brain tumors, ovarian cancer, neck cancer), hemophilia B, Duchenne muscular dystrophy

65
Q

Success with human gene therapy

A

SCID, malignant melanoma, Leber’s congenital amaurosis, hemophilia B, chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), Parkinson disease, cystic fibrosis

66
Q

Gene therapy for lipoprotein lipase deficiency

A

Glybera approved as treatment, delivers lipoprotein lipase in an adeno-associated virus (AAV) vector, one time intramuscular injection

67
Q

Transgenic animals and plants

A

Organisms with foreign DNA introduced in the genome, can increase growth rate, disease resistance, produce nutritional supplements

68
Q

Compounds produced in pharm animals

A

Human hemoglobin, human tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)