DNA replication, repair and methylation Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the difference in the origins of replication between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

Prokaryotes only have one origin of replication (called OriC) because they have their whole genome in one long strand. Therefore, prokaryotic genome only consists of one replicon. Eukaryotes have many origins of replication, at least one on each chromosome. Origins of replications don’t always fire at the same time, so replication bubbles from two different origins can fuse together to make one bubble if they meet.

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2
Q

Describe the initiation of replication in E. coli cells, and the parts of DnaA, DnaB and DnaC.

A

The prokaryotic replicator sequence (OriC) consists of three 13mer AT rich sequences, followed give five 9mer sequences. The five 9mers act as binding sites for the DnaA. Five subunits of DnaA bind to each 9mer. Once a sixth DnaA subunit binds to ATP and joins the other DNaA subunits, the complete DnaA hexamer interacts with the 13mer sequences that results in separating the DNA into single strand.

DnaB is a helicase enzyme and DnaC is a helicase loading protein. DnaC loads DnaB onto the separated DNA strand (one on each strand). DnaB is then activated and start to unwind the strands to form a growing replication bubble. DnaB breaks the hydrogen bonds between the complementary bases which requires ATP hydrolysis. DnaB also recruits primase, which synthesises the RNA primer ready for the initiation of replication by DNA Pol.

Single strand binding proteins are also vital for keeping the two strands separate by binding to the ssDNA.

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3
Q

Describe the structure of the DNA Pol III holoenzyme.

A

The DNA Pol III of prokaryotes consists of the three DNA Pol III core, that is the main component necessary for synthesis of the growing DNA strand by adding nucleotides from the 5’ to 3’. The core consists of three subunits, alpha, epsilon and theta. The alpha subunit is the polymerase domain, epsilon is the 3’-5’ exonuclease activity domain and the theta has an unknown function.

These are attached to flexible linkers (tau subunits) that are bound to the sliding clamp (consists of beta subunits) and the sliding clamp loader, which are necessary for recognising the RNA primers (primer:template junction) and binding to them.

There are more subunits, such as gamma, delta, psi etc. and these are thought to play a part in enhance the processivity by assisting the replisome assembly.

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4
Q

Describe the process of DNA replication by the lagging strand by DNA Pol III.

A

The lagging strand must be synthesised in short Okazaki fragments, because the synthesis of a new strand must always be in the 5’ to 3’ direction. The sliding clamp binds to every primer:template junction. The two lagging strand DNA Pol III cores then take turns to bind the primers in the sliding clamp and begin the synthesis of the new strand. Synthesis continues until the Pol III core reaches the primer from the previous Okazaki fragment, whereby then it dissociates. This process then repeats. This is called the trombone model because it is almost a back-and-forth. movement, as if the DNA Pol is pulling the strands through.

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5
Q

What is the problem that is found when replicating a circular piece of DNA? And how does topoisomerase II solve this issue?

A

Two circular DNA will form a catenane, where the two are interlinked. Topoisomerase II nicks the double strand and unlinks the two copies. This is called decatenation.

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6
Q

What is the replication termination of linear DNA problem? What are the two possible solutions for the problem?

A

On the lagging strand, there needs to be nick translation because each Okazaki fragment has to have its RNA primer removes and replaced with the DNA equivalent. This is where the gap between the end of one Okazaki fragment is joined to the beginning of the next (where the primer was before). But this causes a problem at the 5’ end of the strands because the most 5’ Okazaki fragment has no fragment to join to. There is a short stretch of DNA that does not get covered in an Okazaki fragment, and it is too short to have a primer. So the RNA primer is removed and this leads a small gap where the lagging strand is a few nucleotides shorter than the template, leaving a 3’ overhang. This incomplete replication would create a problem as a few nucleotides would be lost every time the DNA is replicated.

Some prokaryotes use protein priming, where a protein (usually a tyrosine) is added to the 5’ ends of the new strands. This protein then provides the OH group needed for DNA Pol III to synthesise the last bit of the strands.

The other solution is telomeres - these are TG rich sequences at the 3’ end of DNA in eukaryotes that can be extended by telomerase in order to ensure that the lost nucleotides are within the telomere sequence not the important gene coding areas.

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7
Q

Describe how telomeres ensure that the ends of DNA are not lost.

A

Telomeres are TG rich repeat sequences at the ends of linear DNA that protect it from degradation. There is still an overhang but it is only the loss of a telomere sequence, and not protein-coding DNA. Telomeres are regulated by telomerase, a RNA-dependent DNA polymerase enzyme, that can synthesise a DNA strand using a RNA template. Telomerase is a riboprotein, which means that it includes RNA within its native structure - RNA that consists of the telomere repeat sequence. The telomerase reverse transcriptase domain (TERT) is used to extend the 3’ overhang sequence using the telomerase RNA as the template. It does this repeatedly by translocating, rebinding and polymerising.

This extended 3’ end is then used as the template for a new Okazaki fragment, whereby a primer is synthesised and the complementary strand is made. This still leaves a slight 3’ overhang but now it is only a loss of telomere sequence, instead of the actual genome.

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8
Q

How is telomerase regulated?

A

There are DNA binding proteins that help to regulate telomerase. They bind along the dsDNA telomeres and identify the end of the telomeres. Increasing DNA binding proteins is thought to inhibit telomerase.

Telomeres also form a T-loop structure at the end, where the end telomere sequence complementary binds to a sequence further down to form a loop structure. This protects the end of the telomeres.

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9
Q

What is the general process of DNA polymerisation?

A

DNA polymerisation requires a DNA template strand and the new strand is synthesised from the 5’ to 3’ end. Pol uses the 3’ OH group in order to polymerise the next nucleotides. If the bases don’t pair, the three-dimensional alignment does not fit to allow for the 3’ OH to initiate the nucleophilic attack on the triphosphate of the incoming nucleotide. A double phosphate, called a pyrophosphate, is produced as a result. Pyrophosphatase breaks this down into two phosphates, which generates a lot of energy.

Polymerisation on the leading strand is continuous, whereas on the lagging strand, it is done discontinuously in Okazaki fragment. These fragments are later joined together via nick translation.

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10
Q

How does nick translation occur and what proteins are involved?

A

Nick translation is catalysed by DNA Pol I. Pol I extends the 5’ end of the Okazaki fragment while its exonuclease activity degrades the RNA primer. This joins the two fragments together and gets rid of the nick (gap). DNA ligase is needed to catalyse the synthesise the phosphodiester bonds between the nucleotides.

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11
Q

Use the ‘right hand model’ to explain the structure of the alpha subunit of DNA Pol III.

A

The 3D structure of the alpha subunit resembles a right hand that is almost forming a circle around the DNA that passes through it. The palm of the hand is where the active site is - the active site is very small and is small enough that it rejects RNA nucleotides from entering so that only DNA nucleotides are used for polymerisation. This is due to the small different that there is a OH group on the 2’ of RNA, where there is only a H group on DNA.

The active site includes two magnesium ions. One facilitates the nucleophilic attach by pulling the H away and creating a polarity in the 3’ OH group. The other ion stabilises phosphate.

The specificity of what nucleotide binds next is determined by the ‘finger’ regions of the alpha subunit. This region creates a kink in the template strand so that only the next nucleotide in the template is exposed, to avoid confusion. When the correct nucleotide interacts with the amino acid residues in the ‘fingers’, they close in towards the active site to assist the catalysis.

The ‘thumb’ region is not involved in the catalysis but is known to stabilise the DNA strand.

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12
Q

How does the DNA Pol III correct its mistakes?

A

The epsilon subunit of the core has exonuclease activity. When it senses that the incorrect nucleotide has been added, it will move the strand to the exonuclease region, the last nucleotide will be removed, the strand is moved back to the active site and polymerisation can continue. The exonuclease activity is in the 3’-5’ direction.

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13
Q

What is the meaning of DNA Pol processivity? How can it be increased?

A

Processivity is determined by the number of nucleotides added per subunit every time it binds to a primer:template junction. Low processivity DNA Pol will only add a few nucleotides after the primer:template junction before releasing, whereas if it is high processivity, it will add the whole Okazaki fragment.

Processivity is facilitated by the sliding of the DNA polymerase along the DNA template. The polymerase interacts tightly with the DNA strand in non-sequence specific ways e.g. electrostatic attraction. Every time a nucleotide is added, it must partially release the DNA strand and rebind to it on the next nucleotide. If this is smooth and stable, there will be higher processivity.

Subunits such as the sliding clamp and accessory subunits can enhance processivity. E.g. protein-protein interactions with the clamp subunit prevents the DNA polymerase from dissociating from the template.

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14
Q

What are the three ways in which DNA polymerisation can be targeted and disrupted by chemotherapeutic agents? Give examples of each.

A

Diminishing the supply of correct nucleotides: this requires the use of nucleotide precursor analogues that inhibit DNA polymerisation. These inhibit the synthesis of nucleotides in the cells. For example, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) is an analogue of uracil with a fluorine attached and 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) is an analogue of adenine. 5-FU is used as a therapeutic against cancerous cells (esp. colorectal) and 6-MP is used to treat acute leukaemia.

Targeting nucleotide incorporation: These analogues are used to be able to be integrated into the growing DNA strand and then inhibit further polymerisation of the strand. For example, Ara-C is used to treat acute leukaemia and is an precursor analogue of deoxycytidine. It contains a arabinose sugar that disrupts the polymerisation.

Intra- and inter- strand links: Intra- and inter- strand links inhibit the translational machinery in the cell. Cisplatin is an example that forms intra-strand links between the N7 of adenine or guanine and then forms inter-strand link between opposite strands of the helix. It can be used to treat cancer. Another example is nitrogen mustard gas. It forms inter-strand links between the N7 of two guanines. It has been used as biological warfare but has potential uses to treat leukaemia and lymphoma.

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15
Q

What is the main role of methylation on DNA?

A

Methylation and methylation patterns allow the cell to know whether the genome has been replicated already and prevents re-replication. As the genome is usually methylated on both strands, the presence of hemi-methylated DNA (half methylated) shows that this is a newly synthesised chromosome.

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16
Q

Describe the importance of SeqA and Dam in DNA replication in E. coli.

A

Dam methyltransferase is the enzyme responsible for the methylation of DNA. It is able to transfer a methyl group from S-adenosyl L-methionine (SAM) to the adenine of a GATC sequence. It’s natural substrate is hemimethylated DNA.

SeqA (sequestration) is a protein that rapidly binds to hemimethylated DNA, straight after DNA replication. It binds at the methylated sites along the DNA, including in the oriR, and this inhibits DnaA and Dam from binding. When SeqA eventually dissociates, this allows for the methylation of the new strand and a fully methylated replicator sequence would allow DnaA to bind (which would initiate replication again).

17
Q

Describe the process of forming the pre-replicative complex onto the DNA during G phase.

A

In the G phase of the cell cycle, there will be a pre-replicative complex that forms over the origin of replication in order to inhibit replication until the cell enters the S phase. The pre-replicative complex is formed by the ORC (origin recognition complex) that recognises and binds to the oriR, and recruits Cdc6 (cell division cycle 6) which sits on top of the ORC. Cdc6 then recruits the Cdt1 (chromatin licensing and DNA replication factor 1) and two Mcm (mini chromosome maintenance, a helicase enzyme). Binding of these, with ATP hydrolysis by ORC, binds the helicase to the ORC. Cdc6 and Cdt1 are released, as their role is just to load the helicase.

18
Q

What does the increase in kinase concentration and the phosphorylation of the pre-replicative complex initiate?

A

Increase in kinase concentration at the S phase leads to the phosphorylation of both the ORC and the helicase, which activates the helicase and temperarily dissociates the ORC from the DNA. This displacement allows for the recruitment of DNA Pol onto the DNA, joining helicase. The replication machinery can then go ahead to start replicating the DNA, while the ORC rejoins onto the oriR. Because the ORC is phosphorylated, it does not recruit another helicase and remains on the OriR. The replicative machinery can displace the next pre-replicative complex that it comes into contact with along the genome to continue its replication.

On completion of the replication of the entire genome, the pre-replicative complex is dephosphorylated in order to reset it onto its original conformation.

19
Q

Describe the key steps and proteins involved in mis-match repair in E. coli (MMR system).

A

MMR depends on three proteins - MutS, MutL and MutH.

1: MutS scans along the DNA and binds to a mis-match in the sequence. ATP is hydrolysed my MutS but it is unclear what it is used for.
2: MutS recruits MutL, which in turn recruits MutH. These two proteins bind to the DNA and MutH nicks the DNA near the mismatch sight.
3: Helicase enzyme unwinds the DNA around the region.

4: Exonuclease enzyme displaces the mismatch nucleotides. Different exonucleases are required depending on which strand the incorrect nucleotide is.
5’ nicks uses exonuclease VII or RecJ.
3’ nicks use exonuclease I.

5: The gap is polymerised by DNA Pol III and sealed with DNA ligase.

20
Q

How do the proteins know which strand contains the correct nucleotide and which is the mis-match in prokaryotes?

A

The proteins recognise that the methylated strand will be the template strand and the unmethylated strand to be the newly synthesised strand. Therefore, it will correct that strand.

If the prokaryotes do not have Dam proteins, it will use the Okazaki fragments as the functional equivalent to the MutH nicked strand. So repairs take place on the lagging strand.

21
Q

What are the eukaryotic homologs of the MMR system called?

A

Eukaryotes lack a homolog for MutH, but do have homologs for MutS (called MHS) and MutL (MLH and PMS).

22
Q

What are the three main roles of methylation of DNA in prokaryotes?

A

GATC methylation is used for the regulation of replication.

GATC methylation is also used as part of the repair system to distinguish the template strand from the new strand for mismatch repair.

Methylation is also used for restriction modification as a defence mechanism against foreign DNA. Foreign DNA, e.g. phage DNA, will not be methylated and so can be degraded by restriction endonucleases, whereas the methylated DNA will be protected. This only applies to methylation sensitive enzymes. Some enzymes are not methylation sensitive e.g. type II restriction enzymes.

23
Q

What does epigenetics mean?

A

Epigenetics includes the different ways in which modifications can be made of the DNA to affect its expression, excluding changes to the sequence. It is a reversible, but inheritable alteration. These include methylation, histone modifications and non-coding RNA (ncRNA).

24
Q

What are the roles that methylation plays in eukaryotic cells?

A

DNA methylation regulates gene expression by repressing promoter activity by methylation of the promoter. Promoter hypermethylation (lots of methyl groups) acts to silence the gene, whereas the opposite -hypomethylation- is associated with active genes.

DNA methylation dictates X-chromosome inactivation and controls expression of imprinted genes, which are key regulator during development.

DNA methylation represses the translocation of repetitive sequences and insertion of transposable elements into active genes, maintaining genomic stability.

DNA methylation marks the bodies of active genes, and possibly influences splicing.

25
Q

What role does the CpG island play in DNA methylation in eukaryotes?

A

CpG islands are termed this because DNA methylation typically occurs on the cytosine nucleotide, and is followed by guanine. There are regions where there is a high density of CpG islands, commonly at the 5’ region of genes where promoters are found. This facilitates the regulation of gene expression through methylation of promoter regions. This high density region can either by hypomethylated or hypermethylated to determine whether the gene is silenced or active.

26
Q

What are the mechanisms that actually allows DNA methylation to influence activity in the cell?

A

Unmethylated DNA takes an open conformation that is more accessible for the binding of transcription factors. Methylated DNA impedes the binding of transcription factors and therefore, silences genes that are hypermethylated.

There are also proteins, called methyl-CpG-binding proteins, that are able to preferentially bind to methylated DNA through its methyl-CpG-binding domain (MCB). This allows the MCB to essentially read the ‘epigenetic code’ and either act on it itself or recruit other proteins to.

27
Q

What is the difference between maintenance methylation and de novo methylation?

A

Maintenance methylation maintains the methylation pattern that is already established on the DNA. It does this using DNA methyltransferase 1 (DNMT-1). De novo methylation on the other hand establishes new patterns on the DNA and is catalysed by DNMT-3a and DNMT-3b.

28
Q

Describe the process of maintenance methylation.

A

Methylation patterns are maintained on newly synthesised strands by DNMT-1. When DNA is replication, it produces hemi-methylated DNA where only the template strand is methylated. DNMT-1 recognises hemi-methylated DNA and copies the methylation pattern onto the unmethylated strand. DNMT1 is ubiquitously expressed in mammals because it is required for the whole genome during DNA replication.

29
Q

Describe the process of de novo methylation.

A

Establishment of new methylation pattern occurs during early development, by DNMT-3a and DNMT-3b. After fertilistation, the methylation pattern is erased from the genome and must be re-established. These enzymes are directed towards methylation sites by DNA binding proteins, which are site specific.

30
Q

What is imprinting and how are genes influence by it?

A

Genomic imprinting is passed onto the offspring from its parents. Parents can have different imprinting patterns that will affect the expression of the gene in the offspring. Imprinting means that certain parts of the genes are methylated and therefore silenced.

For example, for Igf2 genes in mice, the imprinting pattern changes in gametes depending on the gender. When gametes are made during meiosis, all of the imprinting patterns are removed. It is then re-established in a way that is appropriate in female and male gametes. In this case, female gametes have its methylation removed from this chromosome while the male gametes has its pattern re-established. This leads to variation in the progeny of which alleles are methylated.

31
Q

Explain how the imprinting patterns on the Igf2 and H19 genes can cause imprinting disorders Beckwith-Weidemann syndrome (BWS) and Silver-Russell syndrome (SRS).

A

Igf2 and H19 are encoded on the same chromosome and can both be imprinted. It is controlled by shared control elements. The two syndromes cause opposite results: BWS results in over-growth whereas SRS results in undergrowth.

The normal pattern is that H19 is paternally repressed but maternally expressed and Igf2 is maternally repressed but paternally expressed. This is achieved through methylation of a region (called the differentially methylated region DMR1) between the Igf2 and H19 genes on the paternal chromosome, which leads of suppression of H19 and expression of Igf2.

With BWS, there is methylation on the maternal chromosome as well causing bi-allelic expression of Igf2 and repression of both H19. Igf2 is a foetal growth factor and there this is why we see an overgrowth in the sufferers of BWS.

In SRS, the opposite happens. There is no methylation of either the maternal or paternal chromosomes, leading to bi-allelic expression of H19 and repression of both Igf2. This results in undergrowth of the babies.

32
Q

Explain how the imprinting patterns of DMR1 results in expression or suppression of Igf2 and H19 and the role of CTCF in this.

A

The region in which the two genes are encoded follows the following structure: the Igf2 is the most upstream of the genes, then it is followed by the DMR1, then the H19 and then finally by two enhancer regions.

If the DMR1 has CTCF bound to it, which protrudes out from the DNA, then the enhancer effect cannot reach the promoter region of the Igf2 to enhance the transcription. But it can still enhance transcription of H19. Therefore, if DMR1 is not methylated, H19 is transcribed whereas Igf2 is not.

On the other hand, in males, the DMR1 can be methylated. As a result, CTCF cannot bind to the DMR1 and the enhancer can extend its effect to the promoter of the Igf2 and therefore promote its transcription. Therefore, both genes are transcribed.